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March > Kv > Flashcards

Kv Flashcards

1
Q

What are the lower than standard T/O Mins for PSA

A

500/500/500
Low time FO take off 4000 RVR or less

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2
Q

What is the difference between fail operational and fail passive?

A

Fail passive a system, which, in the event of a failure causes no significant deviation of aircraft flight path or altitude
Fail operational system, after which failure of any single component is capable of completing an approach flare and touchdown or approach flare, touchdown, and roll out by using the remaining operational elements of the fair operational system

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3
Q

What are the seasonal passenger weights and bag weights?

A

198 pounds summer, 203 pounds winter, 34 pounds bag

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4
Q

What is the weight of the pilot and flight kit?

A

229 pounds

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5
Q

What is required to fly into a special qualification airport?

A

In the proceeding 12 months
The PIC or SIC has made an entry into that airport, including takeoff and landing while serving as a flight crewmember or
The PIC has qualified by using pectoral means or
The ceiling at that airport is at least 1000 feet above the lowest MEA or MOCA or initial approach altitude prescribed for the instrument approach procedure for that airport and the visibility is at least 3 miles

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6
Q

What are derived Weather min

A

400–1 for a single Navid, 200–1/2 for multiple navaids to the most conservative approach

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7
Q

What is exemption 17347?

A

Half half whole
Main body of the forecast must be at least equal to the landing minimum visibility and the TAF has conditional codes, such prob or tempo
Destination, conditional visibility not less than half required for the approach
First alternate, conditional, visibility and ceiling not less than half derived minimum
Alternate main body and conditional statement, derived alternate minimum

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8
Q

What is the marginal rule?

A

C or V and C or V
With the ceiling or visibility is at the publish minimum for the destination and the ceiling or visibility is at the derived minimum for the alternate, then a second alternate is required

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9
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required

A

When the visibility is less than what is required to perform a category, one approach at the departure airport

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10
Q

How far can the takeoff alternate be?

A

Not more than one hour with one engine in operative still in the air, and normal cruise. A maximum of 300 miles.

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11
Q

How much fuel do we need to dispatch?

A

To the destination, the furthest alternate, then 45 minutes at cruise altitude

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12
Q

What’s the lowest visibility an aircraft can be dispatched if there is a category II approach?

A

1/4 mile visibility

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13
Q

How close can an aircraft get to a thunderstorm during an approach?

A

3 miles

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14
Q

What are the positive and negative load factors when flaps are retracted?

A

-1.0 to +2.5G

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15
Q

What are the positive and negative load factors with flaps extended?

A

0 to +2.0G

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16
Q

When does SMCGS go into effect?

A

Less than 1200 RVR

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17
Q

How many hours of rest do pilots need a night?

A

10 hours including eight hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity

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18
Q

How much dry ice can PSA carry?

A

275 pounds, 5.5 pounds per person however as of June 23, 23, none

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19
Q

Reasons to reject a takeoff above 80 kn?

A

 engine, failure, engine, fire, aircraft, unsafe, or unable to fly, lack of directional control

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20
Q

Reasons to reject a takeoff below 80 kn?

A

Anything except a white status message

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21
Q

ALD versus OLD versus RLD

A

ALD ( actual landing distance distance) used for dispatch an emergency. Test pilot numbers.
OD (operational landing distance) this is advisory performance data not required by regulation. Thrust reversers and spoilers are assumed operational.

RLD (required landing distance) is ALD times 1.67

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22
Q

When must the captain takeoff and land?

A

equal or less than 1600 RVR.
runway is less than 5000 feet
For a low time, FO
Contaminated runway
Braking action less than good
RVR 4000 or less
Other reasons decided by the captain
Special airport
Crosswind more than 15 kn
Wind shear reported in the vicinity

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23
Q

When is the crosswind limitation further limited by runway conditions?

A

When the runway condition is less than good

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24
Q

What is considered a non-routine flight operation?

A

Op check, ferry, repo

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25
Q

Can you takeoff with frost adhering to any surface?

A

The upper surface of the fuselage and or the underside of the wing caused by cold soaked fuel
Frost on the upper fuselage is not considered critical if it is possible to distinguish surface features. Frost and excess of this must be removed.

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26
Q

When is a tactile wing check required?

A

When the OAT is 10° or less or bulk fuel temperature is 0°C or less or atmosphere conditions have been conducive to frost formation

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27
Q

What are the oil pressure limits?

A

Steady state idle – 25 psi
Takeoff power – 45 psi
Maximum transit – 156 psi
Maximum transient after cold start 182 psi
Maximum time above 95 psi 10 minutes


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28
Q

Oil temperature limits?

A

-40 Celsius for starting
155°C maximum continuous
163°C maximum permissible (15 minutes)

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29
Q

Max ITT for hot start

A

815°C

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30
Q

Starter must not be engaged if N2 RPM exceeds what?

A

45%

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31
Q

Takeoff with engine fuel temperature indications below what is prohibited?

A

5°C

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32
Q

Bulk fuel temperature takeoff limit?

A

-30°C

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33
Q

Bulk fuel temperature freezing limit

A

-40°C

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34
Q

APU ground starting altitude limit?

A

15,000 feet

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35
Q

Super cool liquid drop icing conditions are indicated by what

A

Ice forming on the flight compartment, side windows

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36
Q

If the glidepath angle is greater than 3.5° and less than or equal to 4° and the airport elevation is less than or equal to 4000 feet, the minimum height for auto pilot use is what

A

120 foot AGL

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37
Q

Minimum runway width approved for takeoff and landing?

A

100 feet.

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38
Q

Do maximum crosswind components include gust?

A

No

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39
Q

Can a category two ILS be flown by hand?

A

No

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40
Q

What are the maximum tire limits for ground speed?

A

182/195

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41
Q

Maximum VMO/MMO

A

335 kn or .85 Mach
Mach is temperature dependent

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42
Q

Minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?

A

-40°C

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43
Q

Normal takeoff power and maximum power for 2 engines is limited to what

A

Five minutes

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44
Q

APR power is limited to what?

A

10 minutes

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45
Q

Starter assisted main engine start using APU bleed is limited to what altitude?

A

21,000 feet or below. Not an APU limitation, but a main engine start altitude limitation

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46
Q

The altimeter must be within how many feet of the airport elevation?

A

+ or -75 feet

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47
Q

What are five items for a dispatch release to be valid?

A

Flight number
Departure, destination, and any alternates, including special qual airports
Type of operation ((IFR))
Minimum fuel supply

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48
Q

What is the minimum fuel required to take the runway?

A

Takeoff fuel

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49
Q

What is the minimum fuel needed at the out time or pushback?

A

Takeoff fuel plus taxi fuel

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50
Q

How long is a flight release valid for?

A

Till it is amended

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51
Q

How long can you delay before you need a new clearance?

A

Two hours

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52
Q

How is burn fuel calculated?

A

Climb Cruse descent and one approach

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53
Q

How is reserve fuel calculated and what are the minimum amounts required?

A

45 minutes at flight level 250 at Long range cruise speed
2100/2200

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54
Q

How is alternate fuel calculated?

A

Minimum fuel from destination to furthest alternate is 1500 pounds
0 to 50 miles at 10,000 feet
51 to 100 miles at 15,000 feet
101 to 150 miles at 20,000 feet
151 miles are greater at 25,000 feet

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55
Q

How is taxi fuel calculated?

A

19 pounds per minute with two engines running

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56
Q

What does contingency fuel count for?
What are the minimum amounts?

A

Anticipated delays
Extra holding fuel
Possible missed approach at destination
Any conditions, delaying landing
937/1082

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57
Q

Minimum tanker fuel?

A

330 pounds (include seven minutes of taxi plus a 42 minute APU burn)

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58
Q

What is the maximum allowable fuel variance versus the release?

A

plus or minus five hundred lbs but never below takeoff plus taxi

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59
Q

What is PYLD?

A

( PAX booked X seasonal Wt)+(1.5 bags per person x 34)

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60
Q

What is PAYLD?

A

Max payload=MTOW-(BOW+FOB)

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61
Q

How much difference is allowed for pressure (altimeter setting) on the flight release before an update is required

A

-0.1

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62
Q

When do you need to contact the dispatcher for flight release changes?

A

When there is the discrepancy of more than 100 miles, 4000 feet or when QNH is more than -.1 inches from what is on the original release 

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63
Q

How do you calculate fuel needed for ground delays or air delays?

A

Ground equals tanker plus taxi
Air equals tanker plus contingency

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64
Q

What is the suggested order of troubleshooting a cascading EiCAS message?

A

El
Hy
P
O

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65
Q

When will Mach show up on the PFD

A

.45 Mach or 31,600 feet.

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66
Q

What is the purpose of the DCU?

A

The data concentrator unit collects information for showing on EICAS displays

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67
Q

What is the purpose of the LDU?

A

The lamp driver unit illuminates various lamps around the cockpit

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68
Q

The green low-speed queue is how much above stick shaker speed

A

25%

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69
Q

What are the two subsets of the fire protection system?

A

Detection and extinguishing

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70
Q

What’s on the emergency bus?

A

FIREX A
FIREX B
Engine fuel shut off valves
Engine Hydraulic shut off valves
APU fuel shut off valve
APU battery direct feed

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71
Q

How long do you have to wait to do the fire test after turning on the battery master switch

A

30 seconds

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72
Q

If smoke has been detected in the cargo compartment, what happens?

A

The fire system shuts down the cargo bay heater and closes both intake and exhaust shut off valves in the cargo bay

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73
Q

How is the lavatory protected from fire

A

Self contained detector and automatic extinguisher

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74
Q

Which area protection only has a single loop fire detector

A

The main landing gear

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75
Q

What type of fire protection does the gear have?

A

Only detection

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76
Q

If APU fire occurs in flight, will the APU shut down automatically?

A

Yes, but the bottle must be discharge manually if you were in flight

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77
Q

How many smoke detectors are in the forward cargo compartment? Aft compartment?

A

Three, two

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78
Q

How many halon bottles are for both the forward and aft compartments

A

Two

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79
Q

Will there be any indication that the lavatory fire bottle has been discharged on the flight deck?

A

No

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80
Q

Fire detection is powered by what bus?

A

The DC battery bus

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81
Q

Fire protection has powered by what bus

A

DC emergency bus

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82
Q

What happens when the engine fire push button is pushed?

A

The bottle squibs are armed for both bottles
Arm pushed to discharge switch lights illuminate
Fuel feed shut off valve closes
Bleed air shut off valve
Hydraulic shut off valve closes
Driven generator is tripped

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83
Q

What happens when the APU fire push switch light is pressed?

A

APU bottle squibs armed
APU fuel valve shut off closes
Fuel solenoid valve closes
Load control valve closes
APU generator tripped off-line
Push to discharge light eliminates

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84
Q

What are the possible problems with a loop system?

A

Shorted loop
Open loop
A false fire indication

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85
Q

What is the safety area for the radome?

A

2 feet

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86
Q

What does the ADG supply power to?

A

3B hydraulic pump
Pitch trim channel 2
ADG bus/AC essentials bus
Flaps and slats operate at half speed

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87
Q

When will the ADG deploy?

A

Weight off wheels and lost of all a AC power

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88
Q

If the essential TRU contactor activates where does TRU to get its power from?

A

Now, the AC essentials bus. Normally it would be AC bus two

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89
Q

What are the components of the IDG?

A

The generator, generator control unit, constant speed drive

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90
Q

What are the battery ratings?

A

Main – 24 V 17 A
APU – 24 V 43 A

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91
Q

How many DC PCs are there?

A

Two-DC power centers

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92
Q

What is the minimum speed for the ADG

A

135 kn

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93
Q

How many volts is the electrical system? AC/DC?

A

115 V AC 28 V DC

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94
Q

How was the constant speed drive cooled?

A

Air oil heat exchanger

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95
Q

How would a generator be tripped off line by the generator control unit?

A

Over/undervoltage
Over/under frequency
Generator and bus overcurrent
Generator out of phase

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96
Q

Which tru Does the ADG power?

A

Essential TRU one

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97
Q

What causes IDG fault light

A

High oil temperature or low oil pressure

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98
Q

What causes the IDG drive shaft to sheer?

A

High oil temperature or over torque

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99
Q

ADG is deployed and during the flight power is reestablished what do you have to do?

A

Stow the ADG handle and push the power transfer override button

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100
Q

Is the DC emergency bus on the DC electrics page ever shown?

A

No, it only shows if one of the two power sources is faulted or the bus fails

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101
Q

The APU battery is charged from what bus?

A

AC service bus

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102
Q

The main battery is charged from what bus?

A

AC bus one

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103
Q

What does the APU charger status message mean?

A

APU battery battery is not charging or it is overheating

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104
Q

What model engines do the 700 and 900 have

A

700 – CF 34–8C5B1
900- CF 34–85 A1

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105
Q

When is APR armed

A

During takeoff when N1 of both engines is within 8% of scheduled takeoff thrust, and during approach when flaps are greater than 20 and the landing gear is down

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106
Q

How many stages and blades for the N1 fan?

A

One stage, 28 blades – titanium

107
Q

How many stages N2?

A

10

108
Q

How many stages in the high-pressure turbine

A

Two

109
Q

How many stages in the low pressure turbine?

A

Four

110
Q

What is the percentage difference for synchronization of N1? And two?

A

1.5%/2.5%

111
Q

What is the primary purpose of the variable guide vanes?

A

To prevent a compressor stall

112
Q

How are the variable guide vanes moved

A

High pressure fuel from the FMU is used to hydraulically move them

113
Q

How is the operability valve moved?

A

High-pressure fuel and then hydraulically moved

114
Q

Ignition a is powered by

A

AC essential bus

115
Q

Ignition B is powered by?

A

Battery bus through a static inverter

116
Q

What is on the accessory gearbox?

A

Engine lubrication pumps
FADEC alternator
Hydraulic pump
Engine fuel pump
IDG
Air starter

117
Q

What operates the thrust reversers?

A

Hydraulics

118
Q

Where would a fire occur in the engine?

A

In the accessory section between the core and the cowling

119
Q

How long will the emergency lights be powered for?

A

10 minutes interior/20 minutes exterior

120
Q

When will the FADEC channels alternate?

A

Every second engine start

121
Q

What does the fuel metering unit do?

A

It controls fuel consumption using the FADEC. It supplies the high-pressure fuel used to actuate the operability valve and the inlet guide.

122
Q

When will the FADEC alternator begin to power the FADEC channels?

A

50% N2

123
Q

When will continuous ignition come on?

A

Engine restarts in flight, icing conditions, periods of high angles of attack

124
Q

Flex thrust can only be entered on the ground when the following conditions are met?

A

Thrust reverses at idle or shut off
Weight on wheels for at least one minute
Assumed temperature is greater than actual OAT
Airspeed less than 65 kn

125
Q

When is flex thrust removed?

A

Thrust lever retarded to climb
Thrust reverser advance to APR
Cowl anti ice selected on
Wing anti-ice selected on

126
Q

When will probes actually be off when they are set to off?

A

When external power or APU power is applied. Otherwise the three PO heads are supplied with half power.

127
Q

When will the APU shut down?

A

Fire, overspeed, DC signal loss, door closed, ECU failure, RPM loss, slow to start

128
Q

When does AP logic and fault protection revert to ground mode?

A

60 seconds after landing

129
Q

Why do we wait two minutes in between each APU start attempt?

A

To allow cooling of starter and starter contactor for APU fuel drainage

130
Q

What is on the APU accessory gearbox?

A

Speed sensors, oil pump, and lubrication module, fuel control unit, high-pressure fuel pump, APU generator

131
Q

What does the APU SVU do?
Surge control valve

A

It opens when the APU is supplying electrical loads at levels above 17,000 feet. It reduces APU surge potential when operating an unloaded bleed air condition.

132
Q

Is the APU motor AC or DC?

A

DC

133
Q

At sea level, when does the starter disengage on the APU?

A

46%. 60% at 37,000.

134
Q

How is the APU cooled?

A

Oil/air heat exchanger

135
Q

The APU ECU operates the bleed air based on

A

Altitude/ambient air pressure, APU load, weight on wheels, system requirements

136
Q

When starting the APU and flight, will the door open when the APU power fuel switch light is pressed

A

No. It stays closed or partially closed to prevent overspeed from ram air

137
Q

Where does the halon bottle discharge for an APU fire?

A

The APU is contained in a titanium box.

138
Q

How many batteries are needed to start the APU?

A

Two. The APU battery powers the starter. The main battery powers the ECU. 22 V.

139
Q

How many pressure controllers are there?

A

Two. CPC one and CPC two.

140
Q

How are the safety valves operated?

A

Pneumatically opened and spring loaded closed

141
Q

What is the function of the ground valve?

A

The ground valve ensures that the aircraft remains unpressurized while on the ground and improves the effectiveness of the avionics cooling system by dumping heated air overboard

142
Q

How is the outflow valve operated?

A

A triple actuator

143
Q

Does the cabin pressure controller switch from one to two?

A

Yes. Three minutes after landing.

144
Q

Maximum altitude for emergency depressurization

A

15,000 feet

145
Q

Maximum positive and negative differential pressure is limited to what

A

8.7/-0.5

146
Q

What is the CPAP and what is its purpose?

A

There is a micro processor within the cabinet, pressure controller that performs CP functions
Controls the opening and closing speed of the ground valve during ground sequences to avoid discomfort. limits cabinet due to 14,500+ or -500 feet the automatic drop down the passenger mask at 14,000+ -300 feet

147
Q

When low pressure ground air is supplied what needs to be off?

A

Both packs otherwise the recirc fan can be damaged even if it is off

148
Q

When will the pressure controller light illuminate?

A

Failure of both cabin pressure controllers

149
Q

What generates the caution messages for the ECS

A

Both the active cab pressure, controller and CPAM generate the messages

150
Q

When will bleed loading automatically be transferred after takeoff/landing question

A

Landing gear up/flaps 20 or less/thrust levers retarded from toga

151
Q

When will bleed loading automatically be transferred for landing

A

Flaps greater than 20/landing gear down

152
Q

When do the packs automatically turn off?

A

During engine start

153
Q

What temperature is the aft cargo compartment regulated to?

A

60-80f

154
Q

How many recirculation fans are there?

A

Two

155
Q

When will the avionics fan caution message display?

A

When any abiotic fan drops below 60%

156
Q

What psi is bleed air pressure regulated to

A

45+ or -3 psi

157
Q

If a leak occurs downstream of the wing, anti-ice valve (after equipment, bay, center, fuselage, or wings) what will happen?

A

Both wing ant ice valves will close and anti-duct warning message

158
Q

Which zone out of the five of the bleed air leaked detection system uses a pressure transducer instead of dual sensing loops

A

The left and right Cowl zones

159
Q

How many scavenge ejectors are there?

A

4

160
Q

Maximum refueling imbalance

A

2500 pounds

161
Q

How many fuel probes are there in each tank?

A

Six in each wing three in the center tank and one in each collector tank

162
Q

How many magnetic level indicators are installed in each tank?

A

Two in each wing and one in the center

163
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with engine fuel temperature temperature indications below

A

5°C.

164
Q

How much fuel is stored in the wing tanks? How much is in the center tank?

A

7492 pounds/4610 pounds

165
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with bulk fuel temperature indications below

A

-30°C. Takeoff must be at or above -29°C.

166
Q

Where does the fuel provided to the engines come from?

A

The collector takes. They are housed in the center.

167
Q

What is the capacity of the collector tank?

A

Approximately 50 gallons

168
Q

How is the collector tank

A

Gravity feed manifold that connects the collector tank to its associated wing tank by a scavenge ejector

169
Q

Where does the APU get its field from

A

Left collector tank

170
Q

When is fuel carried in the center tank?

A

Extended range operations

171
Q

When does the fuel pressure relief valve open?

A

If the tank becomes over pressurized. Greater than five psi.

172
Q

What do the NACA scoops do?

A

In-flight they provide ram air pressure to maintain positive pressure in the fuel tanks.
On the ground, they provide static ventilation and relieve buildup of pressure caused by refueling and thermal expansion

173
Q

How does an injector operate?

A

Main and scavenger/motive flow created by the engine driven pumps
Transfer ejector/flow created when the engine fuel manifold

174
Q

When does the cross flow pump activated? How much does it overfill?

A

When there is a 200 pound difference it overflows by 50 pounds

175
Q

What do the boost pumps do?

A

Supply fuel to the system when a main ejector pressure is low

176
Q

What controls the operation of the fuel system?

A

The fuel system computer

177
Q

What does the fuel system computer do?

A

Calculates the fuel quantities of each tank, measures fuel density, takes fuel temperature in the right wing tank, takes fuel temperature at its engine, controls the pumps and valves to maintain balance

178
Q

What provides information to the fuel system computer?

A

The fuel system and a HRS

179
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Fuel oil heat exchanger

180
Q

When does the system automatically balance the tanks?

A

More than 200 pounds out of balance

181
Q

When are fuel tanks balanced by gravity

A

Manually when the power fuel cross load does not correct and imbalance.

182
Q

When does the FSC automatically transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing?

A

When the wing drops below 94%

183
Q

What are the fuel requirements to dispatch a flight?

A

Fly to destination
Fly to most distant alternate
Fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise

184
Q

What are considerations for planning fuel supply?

A

Wind and other weather
Anticipated traffic delays
One instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination
Any conditions that may delay

185
Q

What specifies emergency fuel?

A

Less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining after landing at the alternate
2/3 of reserve fuel

186
Q

What is min fuel?

A

Having an amount of fuel that does not allow for undo delays in flight due to minimal amounts. It would result in less than 45 minutes of fuel after landing at the alternate.
2/3 of reserve fuel +350 pounds

187
Q

What is the approximate fuel
burn in flight?

A

3000 pounds

188
Q

What else is fuel used for other than the obvious?

A

Cooling lubrication
Moving operator, ability valves
Moving the variable guidance

189
Q

How do you calculate bingo fuel?

A

Fuel remaining minus reserve.

190
Q

How do you calculate time remaining?

A

Bingo fuel round it down to nearest 1000 /fuel flow ppm

191
Q

How does the fuel SOV normally close?

A

Throttles to shut off.
Engine fire push switch light in emergencies

192
Q

If the ADG deploys, which hydraulic pump will be powered

A

3B regardless of switch position

193
Q

When do the B pumps turn on if in auto?

A

Flaps out of 0°
The appropriate bus is powered
At least one IDG is online

194
Q

What are the major components of the hydraulic system?

A

Engine driven pumps times two
Alternating current motor pumps times four
Hydraulic shut off valves
Accumulators
Reservoir times three

195
Q

Where are the B pumps located?

A

Aft equipment bay

196
Q

What is the system pressurized to?

A

3000+ or -200

197
Q

What does the accumulator do?

A

Satisfies instant demand and dampens pressure surges

198
Q

How is the hydraulic fluid cooled in the air?

A

Inflate with ram air directed across a heat exchanger for systems one and two. Also, the lines traveled through the wing tanks, allowing the fuel to cool it.
System three is cooled by natural convection and radiation, and there is no heat exchanger

199
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic shut off valve?

A

Shut off fluid between the reservoir and the engine driven pump

200
Q

Which two ways are there to close a hydraulic shut off valve?

A

Press the applicable, switch light for engine fire push switch light

201
Q

What is the maximum normal temperature of the hydraulic fluid in the reservoir

A

Less than 96°

202
Q

When does the hydraulic reservoir temperature turn Amber?

A

Greater than or equal to 96°

203
Q

When will the hydraulic pressure turn, Amber

A

1800 psi

204
Q

How does the emergency gear deploy?

A

A bypass valve dumps hydraulic system three pressure

205
Q

When will the BTMS monitors go away?

A

After a 30 second delay if landing gear is up and lock/flaps are up/BTMS indications are normal

206
Q

When is nose wheel steering active

A

Weight on wheels/gear down and locked/switch is armed

207
Q

When is anti-skid active

A

Switch armed/36 knot wheel spin up/both gear down and locked/Weight on wheels/parking brake released

208
Q

If a leak occurs in a brake line, what will happen?

A

Associated hydraulic fuse, will close preventing loss of the entire system fluid

209
Q

How many times can you push the brakes after losing pressure?

A

Six times

210
Q

What is brake time with BTMS in operative

A

Refer to charts in POH. The fuse plugs may require inspection.

211
Q

What does anti-skid provide?

A

Individual wheel anti-skid control, touchdown, protection, locked wheel protection

212
Q

Which hydraulic system normally operates the landing gear?

A

3 and 2

213
Q

What are the functions of the multi function spoilers

A

Ground lift dumping , roll assist, flight spoilers

214
Q

When will the spoiler deploy caution message appear?

A

When spoilers are deployed and the aircraft is below 300 feet

215
Q

When is the SSPOST2 performed

A

Automatically every 50 flight cycles

216
Q

If the emergency flap which is used, will flaps deploy above the FE

A

No

217
Q

When will the slats/flaps indication be removed

A

BTMS is normal, gear is up slats are up

218
Q

What conditions are required for ground spoilers to deploy?

A

Thrust lever at idle
And any two of the three
Weight on wheels
Wheel speed greater than 16 kn
Altitude less than 10 feet for three seconds

219
Q

What is required for the multifunction spoilers to deploy

A

Thrust levers idle
And weight on wheels
And wheel speed greater than 16
or
altitude less than 10 feet for three seconds

220
Q

If uncommanded displacement of an aileron PCU occurs, what happens?

A

A bungee breakout switch associated with the runaway aileron system sends a signal to the spoiler stabilizer control unit.

221
Q

When the roll disconnect handle is pulled, what happens who controls what?

A

Pilot controls left side and copilot controls right side aileron

222
Q

What happens when pitch disconnect handle is pulled?

A

Pilot controls left elevator
copilot controls, right elevator

223
Q

Selecting the roll select switch on the side with the unjammed aileron does what?

A

Provides the flying pilot with the use of the spoileron function of the on side multifunction spoiler

224
Q

What is the priority of the stab trim?

A

Pilot trim
Copilot trim
Auto pilot trim
Auto trim
Mach trim

225
Q

What holds the slats and flaps in place?

A

Brakes

226
Q

Which are the primary flight controls

A

Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
Multifunction spoilers

227
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Slats/flaps
Ground spoilers
Trims
Multifunction spoilers

228
Q

What position does the emergency flap switch command slats and flaps to?

A

20° slats then 20° flaps

229
Q

What is the weight limitation of the main door

A

1000 pounds or four passengers

230
Q

What is the only door that shows up red when open

A

Passenger door

231
Q

How many exterior emergency lights are there?

A

Six for the 700, seven for the 900

232
Q

When will emergency lights come on when set to auto?

A

When DC essential power fails or is turned off

233
Q

What is in the aft equipment bay?

A

Air conditioning packs, cockpit, voice recorder, flight, data recorder, APU, battery, fire bottles, ELT, cowl anti-icing valves

234
Q

How long is the CVR memory?

A

30 minutes

235
Q

Which radio is dedicated to a CARS

A

BHF3

236
Q

How long is the FDR memory?

A

25 hours

237
Q

When will the FDR start recording?

A

Beacon or strobes on/weight off wheels

238
Q

When she warnings function when the airplane is at what altitude?

A

10 to 1500 AGL

239
Q

Alerting system priority

A

Stall warnings
Windshield warnings
GPWS warnings
TCAS warnings

240
Q

When will HB automatically turn on?

A

31,600 feet

241
Q

When does auto pilot automatically disengage

A

If both yacht dampers are disengaged or fail
If a failure condition is detected by the monitoring circuits
If a warning occurs
During windshield avoidance procedures

242
Q

What is the minimum O2 for three crewmembers/2 crewmembers

A

1110/960

243
Q

How are the cabin masks press

A

They are not. They produce oxygen through a oxygen generator.

244
Q

Why would the deployment of oxygen mask give the false sense of a fire?

A

The oxy Matt give off heat through the chemical reaction and due to them being stored, they may be dusty

245
Q

How long will the cabin masks supply oxygen?

A

13 minutes

246
Q

Which documents are required to be on board the aircraft

A

Airworthiness certificate
Registration
FCC license
EFB
Normal checklist
QRH/QRC
Jump seat, briefing card
Speed book
Maintenance log and stickers
Yellow storage bag

247
Q

List the emergency equipment checked during preflight?

A

PBE
Ax
Oxygen mask/smoke goggles
Fire extinguisher
Flashlight
Escape rope
Escape patch
Life preservers

248
Q

Limitations on flex thrust

A

Anti-skid must be operative
Prohibited on contaminated runways
Prohibited Wendy de iced
Prohibited bleeds on
Prohibited windier
Prohibited cannot achieve full thrust
Prohibited special departure

249
Q

List the ABCs of arrival planning

A

ATIS
Advise flight attendance
Advise op
Built approach
Bug approach
Brief approach
Checklist

250
Q

When is an alternate not required?

A

If the weather is expected to be at or above 2000–3 one hour before to one hour after ETA destination

251
Q

When holding, how can fuel efficiency be improved?

A

Slow down as soon as possible
Use longest legs as possible
Stay in clean configuration
Fly the ACARS calculated hold speed

252
Q

When a non-normal situation is evident, what steps must

A

Maintain aircraft control
Identify the non-normal
Accomplish immediate action items
Captain assigns pilot flying
Complete CRH procedures
Analyze and develop a plan

253
Q

What are the limitations on low time first officers?

A

Takeoff and landings are prohibited from contaminator runways
Breaking action less than good
RVR less than 400/3/4 of a mile or less
Crosswind greater than 15 kn or windier
Special qualification
Other circumstances

254
Q

For 3 1/2 and 4° approaches, then DDA is calculated as what

A

MDA +70 feet

255
Q

What are things that are required to have both pilots concur before touching question

A

Generators
Engine fire push
Throttles
Fuel goosebumps
All guard switches

256
Q

What needs to be set for takeoff config OK

A

Flaps
Trims
Spoilers
Parking brake
Auto pilot

257
Q

What are the different ways to disconnect the auto pilot

A

Pressing the auto pilot disconnect switch on either control wheel
Pressing the auto pilot engage switch on the FCP
Lowering the auto pilot disconnect switch bar
Stab trim
TOG
Yeah, damper disconnect

258
Q

What is the minimum holding speed

A

Flaps 0+30 kn

259
Q

When can you not perform sing and taxi?

A

When ramps or taxiways are contaminated with snow, slush or ice or wind, snow or other freezing frozen precipitation is present

260
Q

What is stabilized approach criteria

A

1000 ft./min. or less descent rate
On proper flight path
The REF +10
Engines spooled
In trim
Landing configuration

261
Q

What are the engine fail procedures?

A

Simple – straight ahead, 1000 feet
Simple special – turn below 1000 feet
Complex – too long to fit on the release

262
Q

How many degrees of bank will result in a tail or wingtip strike

A

11°

263
Q

When must the flight Director be used?

A

Cat Tori one ILS approaches when visibility is less than 4000 RVR

264
Q

For a cross bleed start, what is the bleed air psi requirement?

A

42 psi at a maximum of 80% n2

March (6 decks)

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