kumar and clark Flashcards

1
Q

articular cartilage is mainly composed of what type of cartilage

A

type 2

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2
Q

is synovial vascular

A

yes

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3
Q

neutrophilic occurs in bacterial infection but can also occur in

A

steriod treatment

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4
Q

how to detect rheumatoid factor

A

ELISA

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5
Q

Rf and ant Cp in RA is associated with what

A

worse prognosis

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6
Q

what is used as a screening test for SLE and systemic sclerosis

A

ANA

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7
Q

good thing about anti -dsDNA

A

used to monitor disease activity as rise and fall with disease activity

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8
Q

anti ro and la

A

Sjogrens and SLE

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9
Q

anti sm

A

SLE

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10
Q

anti RNA polymerase 1 and 3

A

systemic sclerosis

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11
Q

ANCAs are what antibody

A

IgG

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12
Q

normal synovial fluid is

A

clear and straw coloured

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13
Q

normal synovial fluid contains less than

A

3000 WBC

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14
Q

after joint aspirate if septic arthritis is suspected

A

gram stain to identify organism

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15
Q

good scan for inflammatory arthritis

A

us

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16
Q

what scan measures bone density and is used in monitoring of osteroporosvsis

A

DXA scan - dual energy x ray absorptiometry

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17
Q

what scan to detect large vessel vasculitis eg takaysu

A

PET - position emission tomography

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18
Q

shoulder abduction nerve root

A

c5

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19
Q

elbo flexion and extension

A

c5 and c6

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20
Q

what is rotator cuff tendonitis

A

pain that is worse at night and radiates to the upper arm

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21
Q

is the shoulder a shallow or deep joint

A

shallow

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22
Q

without impingement what glides under what

A

greater tuberosity slides under the acromion

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23
Q

rotator cuff tendonosis pain is worse when

A

during the middle of the range of abduction, reducing as the arm is fully raised called painful arc

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24
Q

passive elevation is less painful in what

A

rotator cuff tendonosus

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25
Q

what increase the risk of impingement

A

acromioclavicualr osteophytes

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26
Q

x ray is often normal in

A

rotator cuff tendonosis

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27
Q

what can distinguish, tendonitis, tears, bursitis

A

US

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28
Q

patients getting a steroid injection into the subacromial bursa should be warned that what

A

pain may be worse 24-48hrs after injection

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29
Q

shoulder feels hot and swollen and x ray shows a

A

diffuse opacity in the bursa in calcific tendonosis and bursitis

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30
Q

shoulder feels hot and swollen and x ray shows a

A

diffuse opacity in the bursa in calcific tendonosis and bursitis

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31
Q

frozen shoulder what stages are painful

A

initial stages but when shoulder is frozen with little pain that is not painful

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32
Q

pain gripping or holding a bag

A

tennis elbow

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33
Q

pain carrying a tray

A

golfer elbow

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34
Q

trigger finger is more common in

A

diabetics

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35
Q

trigger finger is more common in

A

diabetics

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36
Q

swelling under extensor reinaculum

A

dorsal tenosynovitis - RA

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37
Q

de quervains tenosynovitis has pain where

A

radial styloid- where abductor policies Longus tendon

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38
Q

splint in carpal tunnel holds the wrist in

A

dorsiflexion

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39
Q

in what 2 arthritis can a finger be swollen (dacylitis) or DIP joints affected asymmetrically

A

reactive or psoriatic

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40
Q

are scaphoid fractures seen immediately on X-ray

A

no

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41
Q

what is a ganglion because of

A

partial tear of the joint capsule or tendon sheath

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42
Q

what is first line before surgery in dupuytrens contracture

A

percutaenous collaganase injection

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43
Q

what differentiates mechanical back pain from poly myalgia rheumatica

A

normal CRP/ESR

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44
Q

most common sites for lumbar spondylosis

A

L4/5 L5/S1

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45
Q

weakest point in disc prolapse

A

posterolateral

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46
Q

below what level would cause low motor neuron disease

A

L2/3

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47
Q

straight leg raise producing radiating pain in

A

lower lumbar disc prolapse

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48
Q

hip flexion

A

L1/L2

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49
Q

plantar flexion of foot

A

S1/S2

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50
Q

spinal and root Canal stenosis characterised by

A

pain brought on by walking and relived by rest

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51
Q

what differentiates spinal stenosis from peripheral peripheral arterial caluudication

A

presence of pulses

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52
Q

a manoeuvres that helps in spinal stenosis

A

bending forward as opens up spinal canal

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53
Q

vertebrae slips

A

spondylolithesis- occurs in young adults

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54
Q

osteoporotic fractures of the spine may present as

A

angonizing localised pain that radiated round the abdomen and ribs

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55
Q

what is spared in osteoporotic vertebrae fractures

A

end plates and pedicels

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56
Q

what indicates a vertebrae fracture is recent

A

bone oedema

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57
Q

sudden onset pain in OA

A

effusion - treat with steriod injection

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58
Q

trochanteric bursitis pain is worse

A

going up stairs, crossing the legs

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59
Q

what presents similar to trochanteric bursitis but does not respond to steriod injection

A

gluteus medius tear

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60
Q

AVN occurs when

A

at any age

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61
Q

area of increased bone density at upper pole of femoral head

A

AVN

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62
Q

AVN on xray

A

early stage is normal but scintigraphy or MRI shows bone marrow oedema

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63
Q

what rarely presents with hip pain but only in severe disease

A

hip

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64
Q

slightly cloudy or blood stained fluid is likely to be

A

pseudo gout

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65
Q

meniscus are what cartilage

A

fibrocartilage

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66
Q

immediate treatment to meniscal tear

A

ice

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67
Q

what accounts for 70% of knee haemarthrosis in young people

A

cruciate ligaments toren

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68
Q

a torn ace allows what to be pulled forward

A

tibia

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69
Q

retropatellar cartilage is fibrillated

A

chondromalacia patallae

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70
Q

osteochondritis is fragment from where

A

medial femoral condyle

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71
Q

osteochonditic dissecans presents as

A

aching pain after activity and if fragment becomes loose then giving way occurs

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72
Q

what must be avoided if there is osteonecrosis of the knee

A

weight bearing

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73
Q

anserien bursitis

A

breast stroke swimmers

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74
Q

stood-schlatter particularly occurs in

A

teenage spots players

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75
Q

tenderness of upper calf of sudden onset and history of knee problems

A

ruptured cyst

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76
Q

severs disease affects

A

achilles tendon

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77
Q

painful tender swelling above achilles insertion

A

achilles tendonosisi

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78
Q

what can be injected with steriod injection at achilles

A

bursitis

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79
Q

after the hands, what joints are most commonly affected by RA

A

foot

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80
Q

flate feet puts the hind foot into what position

A

everted

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81
Q

high arched feet put pressure where

A

lateral border and ball of foot

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82
Q

common complication of ra

A

hallux valgus

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83
Q

metatarsalgia common in women who

A

wear high heels- ball of the foot in painful to walk on

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84
Q

Mortons neuroma typically occurs between the

A

3 and 4 metatarsal heads

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85
Q

Mortons neuroma typically occurs between the

A

3 and 4 metatarsal heads

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86
Q

nerve below medial malleolus

A

posterior tibial

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87
Q

difference in biochem between primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

primary - ca is normal or high
secondary - ca is low
ALP AND PTH are both high

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88
Q

what is the only thing that is low in malignancy

A

PTH

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89
Q

ca is whatever but phsopahe and Alp are high in

A

CKD

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90
Q

what is the confirmatory test for osteomalacia

A

low vitamin D

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91
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism do what scan

A

sestamabi

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92
Q

main site for bone turnover

A

cancellous boen

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93
Q

what is the bone found I first few years of life, site of fracture repair and in pagets

A

woven boen

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94
Q

what forms hydroxyapatite

A

calciuma dn phospahet

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95
Q

stimulator of osteoclasts

A

RANKL-receptro activator of nuclear factor kappa b ligand

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96
Q

osteoblasts are derived from

A

mesenchymal cells

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97
Q

what are secreted when osteoclasts are working

A

hydrogen ions

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98
Q

growth occurs at what growth plate

A

epipihyseal

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99
Q

primary source of vitamin D in humans in skin is

A

7- dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol

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100
Q

kidneys convert cholecalciferol to 25 hydroxyvitamin D

A
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101
Q

kidneys convert 25 hydrovitamin D to 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin d which is

A

D3

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102
Q

regulation of what step is by PTH, phosphate and feedback inhibition by 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3

A

the one in the kidney - 25 to 1,25

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103
Q

parathyroid hormone is secreted from what cells

A

chief

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104
Q

what is the rate limiting step in PTH

A

1 alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D

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105
Q

does excess or defined calcitonin have much effect

A

no

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106
Q

what is 1,25 dihydroxycholecaliferol called

A

calcitriol

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107
Q

for critical measures of total plasma calcium should do what

A

fasting g state and use a tourniquet

108
Q

high levels of phosphate are found when

A

CKD and hypoparathyroidism

109
Q

PTh are raised in
in familial hypocalcuric hypercalcaemia, PTH may be

A

hyperparathyroidism
normal or marginally elevated

110
Q

vitamin d status is best asssessed using

A

25 hydroxyvitamin d as 1,25 has a short half life and doe s not accurately reflect vitamin D

111
Q

hypercalaemia means there is increased calcium is urine but one excpetion to where there is hypecalcaemia but reduced calcium excretion is in

A

familial hypocacliuric hypercalcemai

112
Q

what reflects bone turnover

A

uptake of 99m technetium labelled biphosphonate

113
Q

what reflects bone turnover

A

uptake of 99m technetium labelled biphosphonate

114
Q

best test for osteomyelitis

A

MRI

115
Q

what is given before bone biopsy

A

tetracycline

116
Q

dexa scan is measured at

A

hip or spine

117
Q

what factors are the most important in determining peak bone mass

A

genetic factors

118
Q

what can increase risk of osteoporosis

A

oestrogen deficiency

119
Q

vitamin d deficiency consequently causes

A

hyperparathyroidism

120
Q

2/3 of vertebrae fractures are

A

asymptomatic

121
Q

what is the strongest risk for another fracture

A

previous fracture

122
Q

frax is a

A

fracture risk calculator

123
Q

biphosphonates adheres to what and inhibits osteoclasts

A

hydroxyapatite

124
Q

how should biphosphonates betaken

A

fasting, standing upright - after stay upright and avoid drinks dn food for 30 mins

125
Q

what is a rare complication of biphosphobates

A

osteonecrosis of the jaw

126
Q

what is an antibody to RANKL

A

denosumab

127
Q

bad thing about denosumab in comparison to biphosponages

A

when denosumab stopped all good benefits are gone so need to replace with something else

128
Q

what stimulates bone formation

A

teriaratide

129
Q

teriparatide only reduces fractures where

A

vertebrae

130
Q

when can you give treatment without doing dexa scan

A

poste menopausal woman, men over 50 any anyone who has already sustained fragility fracture

131
Q

over 80% of osteonecrosis ar due to

A

steriods or alcohol

132
Q

bone marrow oedema

A

osteonecoris

133
Q

most common site of pagets

A

pelvis

134
Q

what defiency is often seen in pagets

A

vitamin d

135
Q

what is characteristic of pagets in the skull

A

osteoporosis circumscripta

136
Q

cortical thickening and coarsening of trabecular network

A

paget s

137
Q

bisphosphonate treatment of pagets the new bone is

A

lamellar instead of woven

138
Q

what is the most commonly sued iV biphosphonate for pagets

A

zoledronate

139
Q

common symptoms after zoledronae

A

flu like so give paracetemol

140
Q

what is the most common cause of osteomalacia

A

low phosphate due to hyperparathyroidism secondary to vit d deficiency

141
Q

gastro diseases can result in malabsorption of vitamin d as it is a

A

fat soluble vitamin

142
Q

if symptomatic osteomalacia classical causes

A

muscle weakness and widespread bone pain

143
Q

if symptomatic osteomalacia classical causes

A

muscle weakness and widespread bone pain

144
Q

waddling gait with difficulty climbing stairs and getting out of a chair

A

osteomalacia

145
Q

neonatal rickets may present as

A

craniotabes ( thin deformed skull)

146
Q

widened epiphyses, beading of the costochondral junctions producing rickety rosary or a groove in ribcage

A

rickets

147
Q

characteristic finding in rickets

A

losers pseduofractures - narrow radiolucent lines with sclerotic borders running perpendicular to the cortex

148
Q

what is the gold standard in rickets but rarely used

A

tetracycline labelled bone biopsy

149
Q

,mainstay treatment of osteomalacia and rickets

A

vit d

150
Q

organism accountable for 90% of osteomyelitis

A

staphylococci

151
Q

classic presentation of osteomyelitis

A

fever with localised bone pain with overlying tenderness and erythema

152
Q

treatment of osteomyelitis

A

iv antibiotics can switch to oral after 2 weeks

153
Q

subacute osteomyelitis associated with

A

brodeis abscess

154
Q

Potts disease related to

A

tuberculosis osetomyeltiis

155
Q

hot areas of boney metastasis shown on what scan

A

skeletal isotope scan

156
Q

osteosclerotic regions are characteristic of

A

prostatic carcinoma

157
Q

progressive dorsal kyphossiois in the thoracic region in adolescent boy

A

scheurmanns

158
Q

retention of urea does not alter

A

distribution of total body water

159
Q

Na is reabsorbed where

A

collecting ducts

160
Q

Na is reabsorbed where

A

collecting ducts

161
Q

where reabsorbs NaCl without water

A

ascending loop of henle

162
Q

in the absence of adh, little water is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts and a

A

dilute urine is excreted

163
Q

decline in water reabsorption in collecting ducts

A

diabetes insipidus

164
Q

hyponatraemia is seen in

A

siadh

165
Q

what is a common clinical finding in hypoalbuminaeia

A

interstitial oedema

166
Q

things that can cause too much sodium

A

oestrogen
aldosterone
nsaids
tzds

167
Q

drug that can cause peripheral oedema

A

amlodipine

168
Q

loop stimulate excretion of what

A

sodium chloride and water

169
Q

loops act where

A

thick ascending loop of henle

170
Q

loops good with patients with

A

left ventricular failure

171
Q

loops unwanted effects

A

urate retention causing gout, hypokalaemia, hypercalcuria stimulating calcium stoen s

172
Q

loop that can particularly cause ototoxicity

A

furosemide

173
Q

thiazides like loop cause urate rendition, hypoakalemia but they also cause

A

hyponatraemia

174
Q

as thiazides can cause hyponatraemia this is good for

A

diabetes insipidus

175
Q

thiazide diuretic in renal impairment

A

metolazone

176
Q

thiazide diuretic in renal impairment

A

metolazone

177
Q

aldosterone is reabsorbed where

A

collecting ducts

178
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors cause what

A

metabolic acidosis and hypoakalemia

179
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors cause what

A

metabolic acidosis and hypoakalemia

180
Q

what may be needed alongside sglt2i at first

A

loops

181
Q

what diuretic cause more urate retention, glucose intolerance and hypokalaemia

A

thiazides more so than loops

182
Q

excessive diuresis can cause what renal failure

A

pre renal

183
Q

what leads to loss of skin elasticity

A

loss of interstitial fluid

184
Q

what causes postural hypotension

A

loss of extracellular fluid

185
Q

what is a stimulus to sodium and water retention

A

surgery

186
Q

what is a stimulus to sodium and water retention

A

surgery

187
Q

hyponatraemia with euvolaemia

A

SIADH

188
Q

hyponatraemia with euvolaemia

A

SIADH

189
Q

hyponatraeic encephalopathy shows what on MRI

A

cerebral oedema

190
Q

mostly how is hypnatraemia managed

A

restrict water with review of diuretics

191
Q

things that can cause hypokalaemia

A

insulin, theophylline

192
Q

effects that aldosterone has a potassium

A

renal excretion is increased

193
Q

aldosterone secretion is increased by

A

hyperkalaemia and angiotensin II

194
Q

how does vomitting cause hypokalemai

A

sodium loss, aldosterone is released causing hypokalaemia

195
Q

most common causes of hypokalaemia

A

diuretics particularly thiazides and hyperaldsteronism

196
Q

acute hypokalaemia in hospitals the most common cause of

A

diuretic or iv fluids (particularly in DKA) - as use on insulin and iv fluids without potassium can casue

197
Q

most cases how to treat hypoakalemai

A

withdraw diuretics
Iv K is only needed in cardiac arrhythmia, muscle weakness or severe DKA

198
Q

failure to treat hypokalaemia may be due to

A

hypomagnaesemai

199
Q

failure to treat hypokalaemia may be due to

A

hypomagnaesemai

200
Q

physiological cause of acute hyperkalemai

A

vigorous exercise

201
Q

what is a particularly dangerous cause of hyperkalaemia

A

acei with NSAIDs or potassium sparing diuretic

202
Q

muscle weakness can be the only cause in

A

hyperkalaemai

203
Q

hyperkalaemia can be associate with what causing kassmauls breathing

A

metabolic acidosis

204
Q

what brings down the potassium in hyperkalemai

A

insulin- must be with glucose to prevent hypoglycaemia

205
Q

what drugs have been associated with hypomagnesium

A

PPIs

206
Q

flattened t waves

A

hypomagensium

207
Q

what is decreased by parathyroid hormone

A

phosphate

208
Q

causes of metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap

A

CKD, lactic acidosis , ketoacidosis

209
Q

all the glomeruli are where in the kidney

A

cortex

210
Q

renal capsule are urters are innervated by

A

T10-L1

211
Q

foot process of podocytes prevents

A

albumin getting through

212
Q

what can contract and relax to control blood flow

A

mesangial cells

213
Q

distal tubule has what epithelium

A

cuboidal

214
Q

loop of heel has what cells

A

squamous

215
Q

what epithelium in the macula densa

A

columnar

216
Q

what is constructed in response to salt

A

afferent arteriole to reduce gfr so renin is secreted which allows aldosterone

217
Q

sglt2i works where

A

proximal tubule and absorbs na and glucose

218
Q

what is used to monitor deterioration in GFR

A

creatinine

219
Q

what is used to monitor deterioration in GFR

A

creatinine

220
Q

as a diabetics renal function decrease what change is made

A

reduced insulin as kidneys not functioning as well so clearance of insulin is reduced and insulin half life is greater

220
Q

as a diabetics renal function decrease what change is made

A

reduced insulin as kidneys not functioning as well so clearance of insulin is reduced and insulin half life is greater

221
Q

what apparatus regulates flow and filtration of each individual nephron

A

juxtaglomerular

222
Q

renin is stored where

A

JCA

223
Q

angiotensin II causes what in the kidney

A

zona glomerulosa to release alodsteron
vasoconstriction of efferent arteriole

224
Q

sodium absorption from aldosterone occurs where

A

collecting duct

225
Q

polycythaemia may occur in

A

polycystic kidney disease
benign renal cyst
rcc

226
Q

cox 1 is where

cox 2 is where

A

collecting duct

macula densa

227
Q

high specific gravity can suggest

A

pre renal AKI

228
Q

urinary pH is only helpful for invesiogating

A

renal tubular acidosis

229
Q

red cell casts always indicates

A

glomerular disease

230
Q

dipstick that is positivity for haematuria but no red cells on microscopy suggest haemoglobinuria or myoglobin uria

A
231
Q

blood only at the end of peeing suggest

A

bleeding from prostate or baldder base

232
Q

when will women commonly have a dipstick positive haematuria during

A

period

233
Q

electrolytes is unhelpful in

A

CKD

234
Q

enzyme specific for neutrophils

A

leukocytes esterase

235
Q

white cell casts are characteristic of

A

acute pyelonephritis

236
Q

what cells indicate active renal disease

A

granular cast

237
Q

antistreptolysin 0 titre

A

post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

238
Q

membranous nephropathy and polyarteritis linked with hep

A

B - memBranous

239
Q

why is MR angiography to not be used in renal disease

A

risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis

240
Q

podocyte attach to GBM by

A

foot processes

241
Q

where can mixed nephrotic/ nephritic be seen

A

lupus., henoch schonlein purpura

242
Q

thromboembolism is paritucalrly common n what neohripajty

A

membranous

243
Q

loss of immunoglobulin in the urine in nephritic patients can cause what major cause of death

A

sepsis

244
Q

what can trigger the nephrotic syndrome in minimal change disease

A

allergic reactions

245
Q

can minimal change lead to CKD

A

no

246
Q

increased alpha feto protein in amniotic fluid

A

congenital nephrotic syndrome

247
Q

glowmruli where are affected by focal segmental glomerulosclerosis first

A

corticomedullay junction

248
Q

if foot process effacement is present is present in normal and sclerosed glomeruli glomerular then it is

A

primary figs as opposed to secondary

249
Q

collapsing FGS seen in

A

HIV

250
Q

mainstay of treatment of post transplant fgs

A

plasmapheresis

251
Q

glomeruli are typically what in hiv associate nephriapthy

A

collapsed

252
Q

plat 2

A

membranous

253
Q

silver spikes

A

membranous nephropathy

254
Q

what is predomominant in idiopathic membranous nephropathy

A

IgG4

255
Q

1/3 of membranous nephraphty

A

will cgo into remission after 6-12 month s

256
Q

tretament for membranous nephropathy

A

acei, anticoagualtion, diuretics and a statin

257
Q

amyloidosis may be seen in

A

myeloma

258
Q

what can be an early feature of amyloidosis

A

carpal tunnel

259
Q

heart failure and autonomic neuopathy are common in

A

amyloidosis

260
Q

imaging of amyloidosis kidneys are often

A

large

261
Q

what measures progression of amyloid

A

scintigraphy with radiolabelled amyloid P

262
Q

widespread eosinophilic deposits

A

amyloidosis

263
Q

fibrils

A

amyloidosis

264
Q

light chain associated amyloidosis treatment

A

rituximab

265
Q

amylin

A

diabetic nephropathy

266
Q

gym thicken and maesagnium expands

A

diabetic nephroapthy