KS: Crim Pro Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

When you go to trial without raising defeats in the pleadings, you generally are held to have waived most defected–but when the information doe not charge a crime, there is an exception;

A

Presumption that charging documents is sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Post-trial motion to arrest judgment

A

allows a D who is convicted to challenge the sufficiency of the information for up to 10 days after the verdict or conviction is entered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On appeal, charging the document that was not challenged on appeal is viewed using a common-sense approach instead of technical approach–

A

the longer you wait to challenge a charging document, the stronger the presumption that it is sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4th A– Search and Seizure: Eight Steps to Determining search and seizure issues

A

1) is there government conduct?
2) did the search or seizure invade an individual’s reasonable expectation of privacy?
3) was the search authorized by a facially valid warrant?
4) Does an officer’s good faith save the defective search warrant?
5) Was the search warrant properly executed by the police?
6) Is the search valid under any of the eight exceptions to the warrant requirement?
7) Can the prosecutor use evidence gathered in an unconstitutional search and seizure against the D in court?
8) Is any of the evidence introduced by the prosecution fruit of the poisonous tree, and if so, is the evidence admissible?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

4th A-S&S: Is there government conduct?

A
  • publicly paid police, on or off duty
  • private citizens: only if acting at direction of police
  • privately paid police: only if deputized with power to arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

4th A- S&S: did the S or S invade an individual’s reasonable expectation of privacy?

A
  • protected areas: persons, houses, papers, affects, homes, and curtilage of homes
  • unprotected items: paint scrapings on outside of car, account records held by banks, anything that can be seen from airspace, garbage at curb for collection, voice, open fields, handwriting, odors from car or luggage
  • person has NO expectation of privacy in DNA after it has been lawfully obtained by the police
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

4th A - S & S: challenging the search

A

to challenge the legality of the search, the person’s individual privacy rights must be invaded, not those of a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

owners of premises searched

A

always have standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

residents of the premises searched

A

always have standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

overnight guests of the premises searched

A

always have standing as to areas where guests would be expected to access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

individuals using someone else’s residence for business purposes only

A

never have standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

owners of the property seized

A

have standing if they have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the area from which it was seized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

passengers in cars

A

only have reasonable expectation of privacy in the item searched or seized (eg. purse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4th A - S & S: Was the search authorized by a facially valid warrant?

A

Facially valid warrant requires probably cause and particularity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Probable Cause

A

Fair probability that contraband or evidence of crime will be found in the area searched

  • hearsay is admissible for this purpose
  • police may rely on information obtained through an informant’s tip even if the information is anonymous– the sufficiency of the informant’s tip rests on corroboration by the police of enough of the tipster’s information to allow the magistrate to make a common sense practical determination that probable cause exists
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Particularity

A

Warrant must specify the place to be searched and the items to be seized
- the particularized description is contained in an affidavit supporting the warrant, the affidavit must be incorporated explicitly into the warrant itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Warrant that is invalid due to absence of PC or particularity can still be saved if

A

the officer relied on it in good faith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4th A - S & S: Does an officer’s good faith save the defective search warrant?

A

An officer’s good faith overcomes constitutional deficits in PC and particularity EXCEPT if:

  • affidavit supporting the warrant is so egregiously lacking in PC that no reasonable officer would have relied on it
  • warrant application is so egregiously lacking in particularity that no reasonable officer would have relied on it
  • officer or DA lied or misled the magistrate who issued the warrant
  • magistrate who issued the warrant was biased, meaning that he had wholly abandoned neutrality.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4th A - S & S: Was the search warrant properly executed by the police?

A
    • did the officer exceed the copy of warrant? Can be places searched and things searched for
    • did the police comply with the knock and announce rule? Police are required to knock to announce their presence and purpose before forcibly entering the place to be searched, unless doing so would be futile, dangerous, or would inhibit investigation
  • warrant must be executed within 96 hours of its issuance–may be executed any time day or night and officers may use all reasonable force to execute it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4th A - S & S: is the search valid under any of the eight exceptions to the warrant requirement (escapist)?

A

1) Exigent circumstances
2) Search incident to arrest
3) consent
4) automobile
5) Plain view
6) inventory
7) special needs
8) Terry stop and frisk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Exigent circumstances: Evanescent evidence

A

Evidence that would dissipate or disappear in the time it would take to get a warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Exigent circumstances: hot pursuit

A

allows police to enter a suspect’s home or that of a third party into which he fled to look for him if the police are in hot pursuit; any evidence of a crime discovered during hot pursuit in plain view is admissible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Search Incident to arrest

A

arrest must be lawful; allowed to ensure officer safety and need to preserve evidence

  • search must be contemporaneous in time and place with arrest
  • can search wingspan of D– includes passenger compartment of car, including closed containers, but not the trunk so long as D was a recent occupant of the car
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Consent

A

must be voluntarily and intelligently given

- the fact that police do not tell someone that he has right to refuse does not make consent invalid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Apparent authority

A

if police obtain consent to search from someone who lacks authority to grant it, the consent is still valid under the 4th A if the officer reasonably believes that the consenting party had actual authority

  • if premises are shared, any party has authority to consent to search of the premises
  • if co-tenants with equal rights to premises, an objecting party will be able to prevent the search as to areas over which they share dominion and control if both parties are present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Automobile exception

A

Police need PC to believe that contraband or evidence of crime will be found in the automobile

  • police can search passenger cabin and the trunk and may open any package, luggage or other container that may reasonably contain the items for which there was PC to search
  • the smell of ether emanating from vehicle or a house does NOT justify a warrantless search
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Plain view

A

Three req’s

1) lawful access to place from which the item can be plainly seen
2) lawful access to item itself
3) criminality of item is immediately apparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inventory

A

happens when arrestee are booked into jail or when vehicles are impounded.
- searches are constitutional if: regulations governing them are reasonable in scope and the search itself complies with these regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Special Needs

A
  • Random drug testing–allowed for railroad employees following accident, customs officials responsible for drug interdiction and public school children in extracurricular activities
  • probationers’ homes: warrantless searches are permitted where police have reasoned grounds to believe that contraband is present
  • government employees’ desks and files: warrantless searches are permitted to investigate work-related misconduct
  • students’ effects in public– allowed to investigate violations of school rules
  • border searches– neither citizens nor non-citizens have 4th A rights at the border with respect to routine searches of persons and effects
  • KS allows a police officer to conduct a public safety stop on a vehicle is specific and articulable facts support a safety inquiry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Terry Stop and Frisk:

A

Brief detention or seizure for purposes of investigating suspicious conduct, pat down of outer clothing for weapons or contraband is allowed

  • requires specific and articulable facts that make an officer believe that criminal activity is present
  • if an officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a drive is operating a vehicle under the influence of drugs or alcohol, he may administer a blood, breath, urine or other test, even if the driver is unconscious– driver has no right to consult an attorney but driver must be warned that refusal to the the test can result in one year license suspension and that test may be used against the driver at trial – driver must be advised that she may consult an attorney after the test and may secure an additional testing at her expense.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

4th A - S & S: Can the prosecutor use evidence gathered in an unconstitutional search and seizure against the defendant in court?
- Exclusionary Rule

A

Evidence obtained in violation of a federal statutory or constitutional provision is inadmissible in court against the individual whose rights were violated

  • the evidence may be used to impeach the D’s testimony on cross
  • rule does NOT apply to: grand jury proceedings, civil proceedings, parole revocation hearings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4th A - S & S: Can the prosecutor use evidence gathered in an unconstitutional search and seizure against the defendant in court?
-Knock and announce

A

Knock and announce violations do not require suppression of evidence subsequently discovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

4th A - S & S: Can the prosecutor use evidence gathered in an unconstitutional search and seizure against the defendant in court?
-Invalid warrant

A

An officer’s reasonable mistake in executing an invalid warrant, if the warrant was facially valid, does NOT require suppression of the evidence

34
Q

4th A - S & S: Is any of the evidence introduced by the prosecution fruit of the poisonous tree, and if so, is the evidence admissible?
Fruit of Poisonous Tree:

A

Evidence derived by exploiting prior unconstitutional conduct; inadmissible in prosecution’s case in chief

35
Q

Can nullify fruit of poisonous tree by

A

Showing a break in the causal chain between the original illegality and the criminal evidence that is later discovered:

  • independent source: applies where there is a source for discovery and seizure that is distinct from the original illegality
  • inevitable discovery: applies when evidence would necessarily be obtained lawfully by police
  • Attenuation doctrine: admits derivative evidence where D’s free will has been restored through a passage of time and intervening events
36
Q

Wiretapping

A

Need a warrant, which requires:

  • PC
  • persons to be heard
  • conversations
  • time: must be a strictly limited time period
37
Q

Eavesdropping

A

Unreliable ear doctrine: if you speak to someone who has agreed to a wiretap or some other form of electronic monitoring, you have no fourth amendment claim; you assume the risk that the other party will not keep your conversation private.

38
Q

Law of arrest:

A

An arrest occurs when the police take a person into custody against his will for interrogation or prosecution

  • requires PC
  • custodial arrest permitted for any offense, even one punishable by a monetary fine only
  • don’t need warrant to arrest in public but do need one to arrest someone in home absent emergency
39
Q

De facto arrest

A

when police compel person to come to station for fingerprinting or questioning

40
Q

Common enterprise theory

A

in a traffic stop, where a police officer discovers evidence of crime that suggests a common unlawful enterprise between the driver and his passengers, the officer may arrest any or all of them based on reasonable inference of shared dominion and control over the contraband.

41
Q

Confessions: three federal challenges to a confession:

A

1) due process violation under 14A
2) 6th A right to counsel
3) 5th A Miranda doctrine

42
Q

Due Process violation under 14A

A

Basis: involuntariness–confession is the product of police coercion

43
Q

6th A right to counsel

A

express constitutional guarantee, attaches when D is formally charged with crime
- right is offense specific – applies only to the charges files against the person–provides no protection for other uncharged criminal activity.

44
Q

5th A Miranda Doctrine

A

Implied rights ground in self-incrimination charge

- IN KS: police officer may ask suspect where his weapon is before giving Miranda warnings for his own safety

45
Q

Miranda: four key rights

A

1) remain silent
2) anything you say will be used against you
3) right to an attorney
4) right to have attorney appointed

46
Q

Miranda warnings are necessary before

A

Custodial interrogation:

  • custody: the atmosphere is characterized by police domination and coercion such that his or her freedom of action is limited in a significant way
  • Interrogation – any conduct the police knew or should have known was likely to elicit a criminal response
  • Miranda does not apply to incriminating statements made spontaneously, since they are not part of interrogation
47
Q

Miranda does not apply if

A

custodial interrogation is prompted by an immediate concern for public safety– any incriminating statements are admissible against the suspect

48
Q

Waiver of Miranda

A

Knowing and intelligent: suspect must understand the nature of the rights and the consequences of abandoning them

  • voluntary: cannot be the product of police coercion
  • Prosecution bears the burden of proof by a preponderance of the evidence to show that a waiver was valid
49
Q

Miranda: Asserting the right

A

Police must scrupulously honor the request but police can obtain a waiver after an assertion of the right
- once the right is asserted, all questioning must cease UNLESS initiated by the suspect

50
Q

Miranda: Basics

A

Not offense specific–applies to all topics

Harmless error standard for evidence entered in violation of miranda

51
Q

Statement obtained in violation of Miranda

A

can be used to impeach D’s testimony on cross, but cannot be used to impeach a third party’s testimony.

52
Q

Object obtained in violations of Miranda

A

the physical fruits of unwarned but voluntary statements are not suppressed
- If a statement is inadmissible due to a Miranda violation – subsequent statements after a Miranda waiver are admissible so long as the initial waiver ws not obtained through the use of inherently coercive police tactics offensive to due process.

53
Q

Pre-trial identification: three types

A
  • lineups
  • show ups
  • photo arrays
54
Q

There is no 5th A right to counsel at pre-trial identification but there is a

A

6th A right at lineups and show ups that take place after formal charging
- pre-trial identification procedure violates the due process clause of the 14th A when it is so unnecessarily suggestive that there is substantial likelihood of misidentification

55
Q

Pre-trial identification: Remedies for constitutional violations

A
  • exclusion of witness’ in court identification
  • prosecution can avoid exclusion of ID if the in court ID is based on observations of the suspect other than the unconstitutional lineup, show up, or photo array
    • prosecution can use witness’ opportunity to view D, the certainty of the identification and the specificity of the description provided to police
56
Q

Grand Juries– issue indictments

A

private proceedings
most states don’t use a charging process
KANSAS allows for investigatory inquisitions to aid with creating an information which is a one-person grand jury— no defense counsel may be present

57
Q

Pretrial Detention – standard of proof

A

Government needs probable cause to bind a D over for trial and to detain him in jail before trial

58
Q

Detention hearings

A

a hearing to determine PC– gerstein hearing– is unnecessary to justify pretrial detention if –
- a grand jury has issued an indictment or a magistrate has issued a warrant

59
Q

First appearance

A

soon after arrest, a D must be brought before a magistrate who will advise him of his rights, set bail, and appoint counsel if necessary

    • any D charged with a felony has a right to a preliminary hearing within 10 days of arrest or initial appearance
  • Decisions regarding bail are immediately appealable – bail may be forfeited if the D fails to appear for his trial date.
60
Q

Trial Rights – D responsibilities

A

Defendant must give notice of intent to raise an alibi as a defense at least 7 days before trial, must give notice of intent to raise defense of mental disease or defect 30 days after arraignment

61
Q

Trial Rights - Grady Rule

A

Prosecutor must disclose all material exculpatory evidence to a criminal D
- defense only needs to turn over evidence that it actually intends to use at trial

62
Q

Trial Rights: Judge

A

Judge must have no financial stake in outcome and no actual malice toward D

63
Q

Trial Rights– right to jury trial

A

When the authorized sentence exceeds 6 months

- misdemeanor cases are tried to the court unless the D demands a jury trial

64
Q

Trial Rights: Jury

A

Fewest number of jurors allowed in criminal trial – 6

  • jury verdict must be unanimous only if 6 are used–> if 12 are used, it doesn’t have to be unanimous
  • if felony prosecution –must be 12 jurors UNLESS all parties agree otherwise
  • the pool from which the jury is drawn must represent a cross-section of the community
65
Q

Trial Rights– preemptory strikes

A

both sides permitted to exclude jurors without stating their reasons for doing so but cannot be used by either side to exclude prospective jurors on account of race or gender

66
Q

Trial Rights– face witness

A

D’s right to confront adverse witnesses under the confrontation clause does not apply where face to face confrontation would contravene important public policy concerns

67
Q

Trial rights– rights to an effective assistance of counsel

A

Successful claim requires: counsel’s performance was deficient, and but for the deficiency, the outcome would have been different
– unless there is some colorable argument that the D is not guilty, always deny relief under an ineffective assistance of counsel claim.

68
Q

Trial Rights: Jury Instructions

A

Eyewitness cautionary instruction should be given advising the jury about the factors that should be considered in weighing the credibility of the eyewitness identification

  • when murder is committed during a felon, the prosecution does not have to instruct the jury on all lesser included offenses if the evidence of the underlying felony is strong
  • instructions will be upheld on appeal unless they are clearly erroneous and were the cause of the guilty verdict
69
Q

Guilty Pleas and Plea Bargaining

A

The court taking the plea must find a factual basis for the plea– no guilty plea for drunk drivers if that would let them avoid the mandatory penalty

70
Q

Four requirements of the plea-taking colloquy judge must issue to D:

A

1) nature of charge
2) maximum authorized sentence and any mandatory minimum sentence
3) that D has the right to plead not guilty and proceed to trial
4) by pleading guilty, D is waiving trial and will proceed directly to sentencing

71
Q

D may withdraw a guilty plea after sentencing if:

A
  • problem with plea-taking colloquy
  • there is jurisdictional defect
  • D prevails on ineffective assistance of counsel claim; or
  • prosecutor failed to fulfill his part of the bargain: guilty pleas are treated like contracts
72
Q

Punishment: 8th A prohibitions

A

No criminal punishments that are grossly disproportionate to the seriousness of the offense committed
- death penalty statutes that create an automatic category for the imposition of the death penalty

73
Q

Punishment: Jurors/ Death penalty

A

jurors must be allowed to consider all potentially mitigating evidence in deciding whether to impose the death penalty

74
Q

Can’t impose death penalty against:

A
  • mentally handicapped Ds
  • presently insane Ds
  • minors at the time of the crime – under 18
75
Q

Double Jeopardy— Attaches:

A
  • when jury is sworn in jury trial
  • when first witness is sworn in bench trial
  • when the court unconditionally accepts the guilty plea
  • does NOT apply to civil proceedings
76
Q

Double Jeopardy– same offense requirement

A

must be same offense of jeopardy to apply

  • two offenses are not the same offense if each has an element that the other does not
  • prosecution for a greater offense precludes later prosecution for lesser included offenses – prosecution for lesser included offenses precludes prosecution for the greater offense
77
Q

Double Jeopardy – same sovereign requirement

A

DJ bars retrial for the same offense by the same sovereign only

  • State and fed govt are not same sovereign
  • states and municipalities are within the same sovereign
  • KS DOES NOT follow the separate sovereign doctrine– DJ bars a second prosecution for the same conduct for which the D was prosecuted in a fed district court or a sestet state trial court
78
Q

Four exceptions to DJ– retrial permitted if

A
  • hung jury
  • mistrial for manifest necessity – hospitalization of D in middle of trial
  • retrial after successful appeal
    • state cannot appeal from a judgment of acquittal
  • breach of plea bargain by D
79
Q

5th A privilege against compelled testimony

A

Any natural person may assert the right

  • can be asserted in any proceeding where individual testifies under oath
  • but it must be asserted at the first opportunity or else it is lost forever
  • does not apply to state’s use of our bodies such as blood or urine samples
  • prosecution cannot comment on the use of the right
80
Q

Three ways to eliminate the 5th A privilege

A
  • prosecutorial grant of use and derivative use: prosecution can’t use testimony or anything derived format to convict you– but can be convicted based on evidence obtained prior to grant of immunity
  • D taking the stand– D waives right to plead the 5th as to anything properly within the scope of cross-examination
  • SoL: privilege is unavailable if the SoL has run on the underlying crime because the person could not expose himself to criminal prosecution