Kolhalmi for Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

Give 2 examples where a change in phenotype is NOT the result of a mutation

A

hydrangeas- flower colour depends on the soil pH

Himalayan bunny- have a colour-sensitive allele that turns black when cold

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2
Q

What are 3 characteristics that are often used to distinguish a WT allele?

A

considered to be the norm
more frequent
came first

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3
Q

What is important to remember when looking at the effects of mutations?

A

The effect of a mutation can depend on the conditions under which you observe it

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4
Q

What happens to the sequence on the top strand if there is an inversion?

A

it is now the 3’ sequence of the bottom strand backwards (i.e. 3’ to 5’)

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5
Q

Name 7 types of spontaneous mutations

A
depurination
deamination
X-rays breaking of the backbone
pyrimidine dimers
mistakes during replication
un-equal crossovers
slippage/unstable trinucleotide repeats
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6
Q

How often does DNA polymerase make mistakes? How does it correct some of these mistakes?

A

makes a mistake every 10^6 bp

has proofreading 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity which fixes a lot of these errors

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7
Q

Where does slippage occur? When does it cause insertion? When does it cause deletion?

A

Occurs during runs or repeats
Causes insertion if the new strand slips
Causes deletion if the template strand slips

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8
Q

Name 2 diseases caused by slippage in trinucleotide repeats

A

Huntington’s disease

Fragile X syndrom

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9
Q

Name 5 times of induced mutations (mutagen alters DNA)

A
Base analogs 
Altering a base structure/property (add hydroxyl or methyl, remove amino)
Intercalating agents 
Radiation (X-ray, UV)
Biological agents (transposons, viruses)
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10
Q

What are endogenous mutations? What are 3 things that can cause them?

A
Mutations that occur from the inside
Caused by: 
Nucleotide imbalances
Metabolic processes going wrong
Repair mechanisms going wrong
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11
Q

What cause exogenous mutations?

A

Any chemical that when applied causes changes in DNA

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12
Q

What is a toxin? What is a mutagen?

A

toxins kill you

mutagens change DNA

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13
Q

How often do you get a mutation when repairing an apurinic site?

A

3/4 of the time

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14
Q

What is unequal crossing over?

A

when 2 closely related DNA sequences that are located in two different places on homologous chromosomes recombine during meiosis

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15
Q

Describe Fragile X syndrome

A

Expansions of CGG triplets
premutation alleles have 50-200 repeats
disease causing have more than 200

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16
Q

What does alkyltransferase do?

A

remove mistakenly added methyl and ethyl groups from DNA

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17
Q

What does photolyase do?

A

Repairs thyamine dimers, needs light to function “photo repair”

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18
Q

Describe base excision repair

A

Take out an altered base creating an apurinic or apyrimidal site
Nick the backbone and take out a few nucleotides leaving a gap
DNA polymerase and ligase come in and fix it

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19
Q

Describe nucleotide excision repair

A

Cut in 2 places flanking DNA damage and take out then repair

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20
Q

Describe methyl-directed mismatch repair

A

Bacteria methylate adeneines on the parent strand so that they can recognize which member of a mismatched pair is the right one

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21
Q

What kind of repair systems use error-prone DNA polymerases?

A

SOS repair systems

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22
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

amino acid changes

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23
Q

What is a null allele? Amorphic?

A

Null alleles means no protein is produced

Amorphic is a specific type of null allele where the protein is too deformed to function

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24
Q

If you are heterozygous for a null or amorphic allele what is your phenotype?

A

Still WT because you have enough WT protein to function

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25
Q

What is an example of a null allele?

A

Agamous Arabidopsis thaliana

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26
Q

What is a hypomorphic allele? What is the heterozygous phenotype?

A

Hypomorphic means reduced WT protein synthesis or that the produced protein has a weak function
Heterozygous phenotype is still WT

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27
Q

Explain the null and hypomorphic alleles in the eyeless gene in Drosophilia. What genes have similar function in humans? Mice?

A

null allele has no eyes
hypomorphic has small eyes
Mice have pax6 gene
Humans have aniridia gene

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28
Q

Does a null allele always mean that the structure i.e. legs are not produced?

A

No it just means the null version of this allele, there could be more than one gene involved in making the structure

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29
Q

Describe the null and hypomorphic alleles for a particular gene involved in Drosophilia leg and wing development

A

Hypomorphic give reduced wings and normal legs

Null gives reduced wings and legs

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30
Q

What is an example of incomplete dominance alleles?

A

colour of snapdragon flowers
r0 is null, produces no pigment
r50 loss of function, 50% of normal pigment
R is full red pigment produced

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31
Q

What is haplo-insufficiency?

A

one WT allele is not sufficient for a WT phenotype

this is a property of the WT allele NOT the mutant allele

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32
Q

What do mutants that are dominant loss of function mutations reveal?

A

dosage-sensitive genes

haplo-insufficient alleles

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33
Q

Give an example of a dominant loss of function allele?

A

T locus in mice for tails

heterozygotes have a short tail because one WT allele isn’t enough for a WT phenotype

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34
Q

If an organism is heterozygous for a dominant loss of function allele what is the phenotype?

A

mutant phenotype because it is haply-insufficient

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35
Q

What are antimorphic alleles?

A

dominant negative loss of function alleles

they block or interfere with the WT allele function

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36
Q

Give an example of a dominant negative loss of function allele? (antimorphic)

A

transcription factor homeodimer example

if you’re heterozygous you only have 1/3 functional protein and therefore have a mutant phenotype

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37
Q

What is a hypermorphic allele? What phenotype do heterozygotes usually have?

A

Increased protein synthesis or a protein with higher activity (WT amount of higher activity protein)
Heterozygotes have mutant phenotype

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38
Q

Give an example of a hypermorphic allele

A

Possum allele in mice
Heterozygotes have behavioural changes, they can’t turn over when on their backs and they get whole body immobilization when the scruff of their neck is pinched

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39
Q

What is a neomorphic allele?

A

When a mutation causes an allele to have a new function i.e. change what an enzyme does

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40
Q

What is ectopic expression?

A

Special type of neomorphic allele which results in a protein being expressed somewhere in normally isn’t

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41
Q

Give an example of ectopic expression

A

Antennapedia gene in Drosophilia

legs expressed out of the head

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42
Q

What can you adjust in a restriction digest to get what you want?

A

the time
how much enzyme
how long the recognition sequence is

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43
Q

What is a smear in reference to gel electrophoresis?

A

when your gel has so many fragments that you don’t see distinct bands just a smear along the whole lane

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44
Q

How would you make a restriction map?

A

Do 3 restriction digests with 2 different enzymes, once each and one with both

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45
Q

What 3 things does a vector usually have?

A

origin of replication
selectable marker
multiple restriction sites

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46
Q

How long are the primers usually used in PCR?

A

18-25 nucleotides

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47
Q

Distinguish between template and target DNA for PCR

A

template is what you start with i.e. might be the whole genome, while target is what you want to amplify

48
Q

What are the temperatures used in PCR?

A

94 degrees
then 50-60 degrees
then 72 degrees

49
Q

After how many rounds of PCR do you have millions of copies of the DNA you wanted? What can you amplify?

A

33

can amplify any sequence, known or unknown as long as you have enough info to make primers

50
Q

Describe how the genomic libraries made from shearing and restriction digests differ

A

restriction digest will give all fragments of approximately the same size and equally represented
shearing gives many random fragments of different sizes that will overlap (almost equally represented)

51
Q

What is the difference between a Southern and Northern blot?

A

Southern uses DNA as a template

Northern uses RNA as a template

52
Q

What do you soak a hybridization gel in before blotting it? Why?

A

alkali solution

to separate the DNA strands

53
Q

List the general characteristics of primers

A
small (18-25bp)
are extended
used for amplification
anneal 
are not labelled 
you buy them
54
Q

List the general characteristics of probes

A
usually large (100s of bp)
are not extended
are not used for amplification
anneal
need to be labelled 
you make them
55
Q

What is a chromatogram with reference to DNA sequencing?

A

what you get when you run a sequence with fluorescetly labelled ddNTPs all in one lane

56
Q

What size fragments are polyacrylamide gels used for in gel electrophoresis? Agarose?

A

Polyacrylamide are for smaller fragments

Agarose are for larger fragments

57
Q

What is positional cloning?

A

Finding a gene sequence based on its phenotype

58
Q

What information did they have before cloning the gene that causes Hemophilia A?

A

X-linked
recessive
a single gene

59
Q

What is fibrinogen? What is fibrin? What cross links fibrin?

A

fibrinogen is a soluble glycoprotein that gets cleaved by a serine protease into fibrin which is insoluble
fibrin is cross-linked by factor 8 to help form blood clots

60
Q

What is a degenerate?

A

a mixture of oligonucleotides (probes) which have different sequences. representing all the possibilities of the sequence you’re looking for
(radioactively labeled)

61
Q

What is a colony hybridization?

A

take a genomic library and imprint on a fresh plate and a nitrocellulose membrane
break open the cells to release DNA
probe the membrane using the degenerate you have to find the plasmid contains the insert sequence you want

62
Q

How long is the gene coding for factor 8? How many exons?

A

186kb

26 exons

63
Q

What was known before cloning the gene causing CF?

A

that it was autosomal and recessive

64
Q

What is a linkage map?

A

use markers with a known location and look to see which of the known loci is co-segregating with the known phenotype

65
Q

What do you do when you have mapped close to a known sequence?

A

chromosome walking or jumping (or both)

66
Q

Explain chromosome walking

A

make a probe which is complementary to the area that you know near your GOI and probe the genetic library, hybridize and sequence the insert of the clone with the corresponding insert then make a new probe with this new info (can sequence insert bc you know the sequence of the vector) and probe again to find the next one
do this over and over until you get to the sequence you want

67
Q

Explain chromosome jumping

A

take DNA and cut it using a restriction enzyme once in a known sequence and once in an unknown sequence
ligate it into a circle
sequence the unknown end then use another probe (with new info) to do it over and over

68
Q

What is chromosome walking not good for?

A

repetitive sequences that are present in more than one place in the genome, chromosome jumping works better for this

69
Q

After narrowing it down to just a few genes (i.e. you can’t figure out exactly which it is using chromosome walking and jumping) how do you figure out which gene is the one you want?

A

you know all of the sequences and open reading frames so you can make primers for each of the genes
sequence the genes from healthy and disease phenotypes and compare which gene has the mutations

70
Q

What does the CF gene code for?

A

and ATP-binding cassette in a Cl- transport channel

71
Q

What is mutated in the agamous Arabidopsis plant?

A

transcription factor that is involved in regulation for development
(only one bp change!!)

72
Q

What was the first sex-linked mutation discovered in Drossphilia?

A

white eye mutation

73
Q

Describe the Brachyury mutation is Mus musculus (mouse)

A

Heterozygotes have a short tail, sacral vertebrae are also affected
Homozygous for the mutation are lethal at around day 10 of development

74
Q

Describe the nude mutation is Mus musculus

A

these mice lack a thymus and therefore cannot produce T cells because the FOXN1 gene has been disrupted
they are unable to mount most types of immune responses

75
Q

What are a few early mutations discovered for C elegans?

A

short, long and dumpy

76
Q

How does EMS alter DNA? What does it cause?

A

Alkylating agent, has an ethyl group that can be transferred to the O on C6 of guanines
G can no longer make an H-bond at this spot so it pairs with T instead of C
Results in a GC to AT transition

77
Q

Give 2 reasons EMS is easy to use

A

it is soluble in water and cells will take it up easily

78
Q

When using EMS how many mutants will you get for everyone 1000 individuals?

A

one

79
Q

What are complementation assays used for?

A

to determine if 2 mutants with the same phenotype have mutations in the same gene

80
Q

If 2 mutants with the same phenotype have mutations in the same gene what will happen when you do a complementation assay?

A

all of the offspring will be mutants because they are basically homozygous for a non-functional allele
this is NO COMPLEMENTATION

81
Q

If 2 mutants with the same phenotype have mutations in different genes what will happen when you do a complementation assay?

A

all of the offspring will be WT because they are heterozygous for each gene (assuming the mutations are recessive)
the gene COMPLEMENT each other

82
Q

What are some problems with using EMS to induce mutations?

A

Mutations are random
There is no selection
Often more than one mutation per mutant
Difficult to track the mutations

83
Q

Who discovered transposons?

A

Barbara McClintock

84
Q

Name 3 ways in which transposons used for inducing mutations have been modified

A

they can only jump once
they have a selectable marker
the plasmid cannot replicate inside the host

85
Q

Why is transposon mutagenesis faster than EMS? Are mutants more frequent?

A

the frequency is about the same but you can select for only the mutants so you don’t have to screen all of the individuals
You also can use molecular tools instead of just phenotypic analysis because you have a KNOWN piece of DNA that can be tracked
You can also correlate the phenotype and genetic basis much quicker

86
Q

How can you figure out how many transposons are in a mutant line?

A

gel electrophoresis and Southern blot

87
Q

How do you identify which gene the transposon has jumped into?

A

design primers complementary to the transposon and sequence outwards on either side

88
Q

How would you look for a mutation in a specific gene after transposon mutagenesis?

A

You need the sequence info for the GOI
You can then do PCR with a gene-specific and transposon-specific primer
If they are close enough you will get a PCR product of the gene you want, will have a band when run on a gel

89
Q

What is a problem with transposon mutagenesis?

A

The insertions are random

90
Q

What do replacement constructs use as a mediating step?

A

recombination

91
Q

What do you need to know before you make a replacement construct?

A

the sequence of the gene you want to destroy

92
Q

How do you destroy your GOI for a targeted knockout?

A

insert a selectable marker in the middle of the GOI, this allows it to be trackable and non-functional

93
Q

Explain the steps of a targeted knockout

A

Amplify the destroyed gene using PCR and clone into a plasmid
Transform the plasmid into the host
Some organisms will undergo recombination (needs to be 2 crossovers) and exchange the DNA
Select for these organisms

94
Q

How long do homologous sequences need to be for replacement constructs in S cerevisae? What about in mice?

A

40bp for S cerevisae

kbs for mice!

95
Q

What is a polymorphic locus?

A

A locus with 2 or more alleles that are present in more than 1% of the population

96
Q

What are the alleles of a polymorphic locus called?

A

genetic variations

97
Q

What can be different in individuals (humans) other than SNPs? How much can the length of the genome vary in healthy individuals?

A

can also be insertions and deletions that are 2-37 896 bp long
the overall length can vary by 1%

98
Q

Name the 5 classes of polymorphic loci

A
SNPs
Insertions and deletions (InDels or DIPs)
SSRs
CNPs
Complex variants (everything else)
99
Q

What are the most common genetic variation? How do they come about?

A

SNPs

They can be spontaneous i.e. replication or induced i.e. mutagens

100
Q

Name 3 ways to detect SNPs. Which one of these will work for any SNP?

A

1) Southern blot analysis of restriction site altering SNPs
2) PCR analysis of restriction site altering SNPa
3) Allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
Only (3) will work for any SNP

101
Q

Describe how to find a restriction site altering SNP using a Southern blot

A

need 3 restriction sites
take 2 different alleles and cut the DNA using a restriction enzyme, the one with the altered restriction site won’t be cut in that place
make a probe that recognizes a spot between the cut sites
do a Southern blot
the allele that wasn’t cut will be longer

102
Q

Describe how to find a restriction site altering SNP using PCR

A

need a single restriction site and the sequence on either side to make primers for it
do PCR
then do a restriction digest (one allele won’t be cut)
run on a gel
the allele with the SNP will only have one fragment

103
Q

What is an example cause by an SNP?

A

sickle cell anemia

one bp change in an MstII site

104
Q

Describe the effect of temperature on primer annealing

A

the higher the temperature, the closer match the primer and sequence need to be
ie a perfect match will anneal at higher temperatures than a probe with a mismatch

105
Q

How does temperature affect probes during hybridization of a Southern blot?

A

similar to primers

as temperature increases the probe needs to be a closer match

106
Q

Describe how you would detect an SNP using an allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization

A

need to make a SHORT probe (about 20bp)
it will anneal to a perfect match at high temperatures, but will denature from mismatch
so you can see which alleles have an SNP

107
Q

What are SSRs? What is another name for them?

A

(simple sequence repeats)
they can be runs i.e. AAA or 2 or 3 nucleotide repeats
they are also called microsatellite DNA

108
Q

What are SSRs caused by? Are they highly polymorphic?

A

highly polymorphic in length

caused by slippage in DNA replication etc

109
Q

Name 3 diseases that are associated with SSRs

A

Huntington’s
Fragile X syndrome
Mytonic dystrophy

110
Q

How can you detect differences in SSRs?

A

using PCR
Note: the primers need to be for the OUTSIDE of the repeats not part of them
run on a gel and can see the size differences

111
Q

What SSR is associated with Huntington’s?

A

CAG

112
Q

What are minisatellite DNA?

A

a sub-category of SSRs
they are repeats but are more than 3 nucleotides in length
can be 500-20 000bp
they occur at a small number of different genomic loci and differ between individuals

113
Q

What is used for DNA fingerprinting? How many loci are needed?

A

minisatellite DNA

24 will give a 1/17 billion chance of 2 people having the same

114
Q

What is the difference between microsatellite DNA and minisatellite DNA?

A

micro is 1-3 nucleotides

mini is 500-20000 nucleotides

115
Q

What are you looking for in DNA fingerprinting?

A

the same repeats in different loci in each person

i.e. you’re looking at a family of minisatellite DNA that has 10-20 members

116
Q

What are CNPS?

A

the deletion or duplication of relatively large blocks of DNA
up to 1Mb without disease