KNS - MBE Questions missed Deck 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Under the FRE, when the jury’s answers accompanying a general verdict are consistent with each other but are inconsistent with the general verdict, what three things may the court do?

A

The court may (i) enter a judgment that is consistent with the ANSWERS, disregarding the general verdict; (ii) instruct the jury to deliberate further regarding its verdict and answers; or (iii) order a new trial.

The court may not enter a judgment in accordance with the verdict itself.

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2
Q

Woman takes care of her brother. Her grandma likes this so tells her if she keeps taking care of him for five years, she will give her her condo in Hawaii. Two years into this, Grandma sells condo and says she won’t be able to give her the condo as a gift like she promised. Woman keeps taking care of brother. Five years after what Grandma originally said, she sues.

the granddaughter brings suit against her grandmother for breach of contract, which of the following will not be relevant to the grandmother’s defense?

A) The contract involved a transfer of an interest in real property.
B) The contract involved services that could not be performed within a year.
C) The grandaughter was caring for her brother before the agreement was entered into.
D) The grandma sold the condo before the end of the five years.

A

D is Correct. That the grandmother sold the condominium before the end of five years is not relevant to a decision to deny the granddaughter a remedy. If there were an enforceable contract requiring the grandmother to turn the condominium over to her granddaughter, and the grandmother sold the condominium to a bona fide purchaser for value, that would cut off the granddaughter’s right to specific performance, but she would still be entitled to a remedy. Thus, the sale does not support a decision to deny the granddaughter a remedy.

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3
Q

Why is A helpful to the grandma?

A) The contract involved a transfer of an interest in real property.

A

(A) is a basis for the court’s decision. The Statute of Frauds makes certain contracts unenforceable unless they are evidenced by a writing signed by the party to be charged and evidencing the material terms of the contract. Among the contracts that are within the Statute are contracts for an interest in real property. Here the contract was oral and it involved a transfer of real property. Thus, it is unenforceable.

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4
Q

Why is B helpful to the Grandma?

A

(B) would support the court’s decision under a similar rationale as A. Contracts which by their terms cannot be performed within one year are within the Statute of Frauds and are unenforceable without a writing, and, again, the contract here was oral and required five years of performance.

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5
Q

Why is C helpful to the Grandma?

C) The grandaughter was caring for her brother before the agreement was entered into.

A

(C) would also support the court’s decision. Where an oral promise is not enforceable under contract law because of the Statute of Frauds and the promisor should foresee that it will induce the promisee to change position in reliance on the oral promise, promissory estoppel may be used to take the contract out of the Statute of Frauds entirely. If the court finds that the grandmother’s promise did not induce the granddaughter to care for her brother (because she was already doing so before the promise was made and after the promise was broken), then the promise is not enforceable under the doctrine of promissory estoppel.

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6
Q

In a medical malpractice action, a surgeon was called as an expert witness by the plaintiff and testified that the surgical procedure utilized by the defendant was so new and experimental as to constitute negligence under the accepted standard of practice in the relevant medical community. On cross-examination by the defendant’s counsel, the surgeon was asked whether Modern Surgical Procedures was a reliable authority in his area of specialty. The surgeon said that it was, and the defense counsel then asked if the surgeon had relied upon the treatise in reaching the conclusion that the defendant was negligent. The surgeon stated that he did not. Defense counsel now proposes to read a passage from the treatise stating that the surgical procedure at issue is widely accepted by responsible medical practitioners. The plaintiff’s counsel objects.

Should the court rule for the plaintiff or the defendant?

A

The court should rule for the defendant and allow the treatise to be read and considered by the jury as substantive evidence. Although the treatise constitutes hearsay because it is an out-of-court statement offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted (that the surgical procedure was accepted), it falls within one of the exceptions to the hearsay rule. Under Federal Rule 803(18), information in treatises can be read into evidence if the treatise is: (i) relied upon by the expert or is called to his attention during cross-examination; and (ii) established as reliable by the witness, another expert, or judicial notice. The treatise itself is not admitted into evidence, but rather the relevant section is read in.

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7
Q

Is exclusivity implied in a requirements contract - AKA I I will buy all the red cheese I require from manufacturer A for two years?

A

Exclusivity is implied in a requirements contract; otherwise the buyer’s promise would be illusory. If the retailer were free to purchase from other suppliers, the promise would be one to buy as much as the retailer chooses. Consideration for a requirements contract exists because the promisor is suffering a legal detriment by parting with the legal right to buy goods he may need from another source. On the other side, the manufacturer has suffered legal detriment by agreeing to sell to the retailer any amount it requires at the stated price. The manufacturer has parted with any discretion in the amount sold to the retailer and its price. Therefore, there is no need to impose an exclusivity requirement on the manufacturer to establish consideration.

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8
Q

What is a public welfare offense?

A

Violating safety laws meant to protect the public is considered a “public welfare offense,” which essentially eliminates the mens rea requirement altogether and imposes strict liability upon those who violate the law, whether wittingly or not.

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9
Q

In an in rem action, how must persons whose interests are known to be affected and whose addresses are known be notified?

A

In an in rem action, persons whose interests are known to be affected and whose addresses are known must be notified at least by ordinary mail.

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10
Q

A local entertainment section of a newspaper published a story on the town’s business district, accompanied by photos of various businesses in the district. A minister who happened to be walking on the sidewalk in front of an adult bookstore when a photo was taken for the story became very upset when he saw it in the newspaper, because the camera angle made it appear that he was exiting the bookstore.

If the minister sues the newspaper for invasion of privacy and establishes the above facts, is he likely to prevail?

A) Yes, because the photo made it appear as if he were exiting an adult bookstore.
B) Yes, because the newspaper made a public disclosure of a private fact.
C) No, because he was on a public sidewalk when the photo was taken.
D) No, because he has not alleged any economic or pecuniary damages.

A

The correct answer is A.

The minister likely will prevail because unauthorized use of his picture that falsely makes him appear to be exiting the adult bookstore would be highly offensive to a reasonable person under the circumstances and constitute a false light invasion of privacy. To establish a prima facie case for invasion of privacy based on publication by defendant of facts placing plaintiff in a false light, the following elements must be proved: (i) publication of facts about plaintiff by defendant placing plaintiff in a false light in the public eye; and (ii) the “false light” must be something that would be highly offensive to a reasonable person under the circumstances. Here, the photo created the false impression that the minister was exiting an adult bookstore. Publication of the photo conveying this false impression of the minister’s conduct would be highly offensive to a reasonable person under the circumstances.

(B) cannot be correct because it is couched in terms of disclosure of private facts about the plaintiff. To establish a prima facie case for invasion of privacy based on public disclosure of private facts about plaintiff, the following elements must be proved: (i) publication or public disclosure by defendant of private information about the plaintiff; and (ii) the matter made public is such that its disclosure would be highly offensive to a reasonable person of ordinary sensibilities. Here, no private facts were disclosed, and therefore an action based on public disclosure of private facts will not succeed.

(C) is incorrect. Because the minister was placed in a false light, it makes no difference that the picture was taken on a public sidewalk. An invasion of privacy based on false light can occur on public property as well as private property.

(D) is incorrect. The absence of economic harm to the minister has no bearing on a privacy action. In an action for invasion of right to privacy, the plaintiff need not plead and prove special damages, providing the elements of a prima facie case are present. In other words, emotional distress and mental anguish are sufficient damages.

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11
Q

Sign fell on customer, store manager is like shoot, we are probably going to get sued, conducts investigation, puts together digital document. PLaintiff sues the store, wants the document. Are they entitled to it?

A) Yes, because the work product doctrine only protects physical items.
B) Yes, because the document was not created at or by the direction of the store’s attorney.
C) No, because the customer likely will not be able to demonstrate substantial need for the document and an inability to obtain the substantially equivalent info by other means without undue hardship.
D) No, because the work product doctrine absolutely precludes discovery of the info.

A

A is wrong because the work product doctrine protects physical and digital items.

B is wrong because the work product doctrine applies to documents prepared by a party or its representative, which includes its agent. The manager was acting as an agent for the store here getting the info in case the store’s lawyers needed it.

D is wrong because a party can discover a document despite the work product doctrine if it can show a substantial need for the document and an inability to obtain the information in an alternative way without undue hardship.

Therefore, C is correct.

The manager’s report is protected work product because it was made in anticipation of litigation, so the customer will be able to obtain a copy of the digital document only if she can show a substantial need for the document and an inability to obtain the information in an alternative way without undue hardship. Here, such a showing will be difficult to make under the given facts. The store manager is available to be deposed (and in fact has been deposed), and all of the employees interviewed are still employed by the store. Thus, it appears that the customer will be able to obtain the facts contained in the document by alternative means, meaning that the customer likely will not be able to show substantial need or undue hardship.

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12
Q

A plaintiff sued a defendant for personal injuries sustained when the plaintiff slipped and fell on the floor in the defendant’s office. The plaintiff called a witness to testify that he was on duty in the hospital emergency room when the plaintiff was admitted and that he saw a doctor treat the plaintiff’s skull. As he was getting ready to testify, the witness refreshed his recollection by studying the plaintiff’s copy of the hospital records. These records had not been admitted into evidence.

Is the witness’s testimony concerning the treatment admissible?

A) Yes, as evidence of the extent of plaintiff’s injury.
B) Yes, as past recollection recorded.
C) No, because it is not the best evidence.
D) No, because it is based on hearsay not within any exception.

A

D is wrong because ANYTHING (even hearsay statements) can be used by a witness to refresh his recollection.

C is wrong because the best evidence rule applies when a party is trying to prove the contents of a writing. Here, the witness’s testimony is about what he saw, not about the contents of the record.

B is wrong because a past recollection recorded is a memorandum or other record that is actually read into evidence. Here, the witness is not reading from the records as he testifies, and the record is not being introduced. In addition, a proper foundation has not been laid for the introduction of the records as a past recollection recorded.

A is correct because it relates to his firsthand observations and is otherwise admissible. Before or while testifying, a witness may use any writing or thing for the purpose of refreshing his present recollection. He usually may not read from the writing while he actually testifies, since the writing is not authenticated, is not in evidence, and may be used solely to refresh his recollection. Here, the witness properly refreshed his recollection before testifying.

Takeaway - it is VERY BROAD what can be used to refresh a witness’s recollection.

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13
Q

What are nominal damages?

A

A trivial sum of money awarded to a plaintiff whose legal right has been technically violated but who has not established that they are entitled to compensatory damages because there was no accompanying loss or harm.

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14
Q

A landowner’s backyard, landscaped with expensive flowers and shrubs, was adjacent to a golf course. While a golfer was playing on the course, a thunderstorm suddenly came up. The golfer was returning to the clubhouse in his golf cart when lightning struck a tree. The tree began to fall in the golfer’s direction. To avoid being hit, the golfer steered his cart onto the landowner’s property. The cart caused damage to the landowner’s expensive plantings in her garden.

In an action by the landowner against the golfer to recover damages for the harm to her plantings, what is the likely result?

A) The landowner will prevail, because, although occassioned by necessity, the golfer’s entry onto the landowners property was for the golfer’s benefit.
B) the landowner will prevail, for nominal damages only, because the golfer was privileged to enter the landholder’s property.

A

Answer A is correct. An action undertaken to protect the actor’s person or property may be privileged under the private necessity doctrine, but the privilege is qualified—the actor must pay for any injury he causes. The golfer is privileged to enter onto the property of another in an emergency to avoid substantial harm, but he is liable to the landowner for any damage caused to the property.

Answer B is incorrect. Even though the golfer was privileged to enter onto the property and is therefore not liable for nominal damages in trespass, he is liable for any damages he actually causes to the property.

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15
Q

A seller entered into a written contract to sell his factory to a manufacturer. Before the closing date, the manufacturer found an alternate site that was better suited to her business. The manufacturer notified the seller that she would not be going through with the closing. The seller sued the manufacturer for specific performance.

Which fact, if true, would cause the court to rule in favor of the manufacturer?

A) The factory does not comply with the city building code.
B) The factory violates the setback of the zoning ordinance by one foot.

A

The correct answer is B. If the factory violates the setback allowance in the zoning ordinance, the seller cannot successfully sue for specific performance because title is unmarketable.

Generally, zoning restrictions do not affect the marketability of title, but an existing violation of a zoning ordinance does render title unmarketable.

(A) is incorrect because it is generally held that the violation of subdivision, housing, or building codes does not constitute an encumbrance on title. Zoning is treated differently.

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16
Q

A foreign correspondent, a United States citizen, has lived in England for many years. Prior to living in England, he resided in State A. However, he no longer maintains any home in the United States and has few contacts there. The reporter falsely wrote that the plaintiff, a citizen of State B, stole a Greek artifact from a foreign museum. The plaintiff sued the reporter for libel in federal court in State B, one of the states where the false story was published. The plaintiff claimed damages of $500,000. The reporter was properly served while on a brief trip to State B. The reporter moves to dismiss for lack of subject matter jurisdiction.

Will the reporter’s motion be granted?

A) No, because the reporter is considered to be a citizen of state A.
B) No, because the reporter committed a tort in state B and is subject to jurisdiction in state B.
C) Yes, because the reporter is not a citizen of any state and he is not an alien.

A

(B) is incorrect. Although the reporter may be subject to jurisdiction in state court in State B (assuming statutory authorization of jurisdiction plus constitutionality of the exercise of such jurisdiction), jurisdiction in federal court would not be authorized by statute because the requirements for diversity jurisdiction or federal question jurisdiction are not met.

A is correct - The reporter’s motion will be granted. A United States citizen domiciled abroad is not a citizen of any state and is not an alien, and thus cannot be sued on the basis of diversity jurisdiction. The reporter appears not to be a citizen of any state.

17
Q

In a trial, proof that a written notice of a defective condition was sent by the plaintiff and received by the defendant is an essential element of the plaintiff’s case. The plaintiff gave the defendant a notice to produce the original document, and the defendant failed to respond. The plaintiff’s attorney introduced evidence from which a jury could find that the letter containing the notice was mailed, postage prepaid and addressed to the defendant. The defendant introduced no evidence whatsoever concerning his receipt of the letter.

How should the trial judge proceed?

B) Instruct the jury it is up to them to decide if the defendant actually received the letter, and if it finds that the letter was mailed, that there is a presumption present which shifts the burden of persuasion on this issue to defendant.
C) Instruct the jury that if they find that the letter was mailed, they must find that the defendant received it.

A

(C) is correct. A presumption is a rule that requires that a particular inference be drawn from an ascertained set of facts. It is a form of substitute proof or evidentiary shortcut, in that proof of the presumed fact is rendered unnecessary once evidence has been introduced of the basic fact that gives rise to the presumption. In this case, the basic fact is that the letter was properly mailed. The presumed fact is that the defendant received the letter. If the jury finds the basic fact and no evidence is introduced on the presumed fact, they must find the presumed fact.

Answer choice B is not correct. A jury must find a presumed fact, if it finds a basic fact and no evidence is introduced on the presumed fact.

18
Q

A student activist suggested to her boyfriend that they put a drug in the sugar bowls at their college cafeteria so that students would become sick and the activist’s antinuclear group could claim that toxic emissions from a nearby nuclear power plant were the cause. The boyfriend told the student that people could become very ill, or even die, if they consumed too large a quantity of the drug. The student promised that they would only put a small amount of the drug in each bowl and asked the boyfriend to get the drug from his chemistry lab during his chemistry class, which he did. After class, the boyfriend gave the bottle to the student. Before the boyfriend awoke the next day, the student went to the cafeteria and put small quantities of the drug in several sugar bowls. She accidentally put a much larger amount in the sugar bowl at one table. Four persons who sat at that table became extremely ill, and one of the four eventually died.

In a jurisdiction applying the common law, how will the boyfriend be liable for the death of the student?

A) As an accessory before the fact.
B) As a principal in the first degree.
C) As a principal in the second degree.
D) As an accessory after the fact.

A

A is Correct. The boyfriend is an accessory before the fact, and thus subject to the same penalty as the student. In a jurisdiction applying the common law, an accessory before the fact is someone who provides assistance before the crime is committed but who is not actually or constructively present during the commission of the crime. Here, the boyfriend stole the drug from the chemistry lab but was not present when the student laced the cafeteria’s sugar bowls with the drug. Thus, the boyfriend is an accessory before the fact.

(B) is incorrect because a principal in the first degree actually perpetrates the crime, and here the boyfriend did not physically place the drugs in the sugar bowls.

(C) is incorrect because a principal in the second degree must be actually or constructively present during the commission of the crime, and here the boyfriend was not present during the commission of the crime.

(D) is incorrect because the boyfriend’s aid was before, not after, the fact. An accessory after the fact is one who helps the perpetrator elude capture; the boyfriend’s conduct does not fit this description. Furthermore, accessories after the fact typically are not held liable for the principal crime. Aiding one to escape prosecution or apprehension generally is a separate crime.

19
Q

What does the general welfare clause do?

A

General Welfare Clause gives Congress the power to spend for the general welfare,

20
Q

A landlord entered into a written residential lease with a tenant on June 1. The premises consist of a single-family house and surrounding land. The tenant paid the first and last months’ rent at the time the lease was signed. The lease term was for one year, commencing July 1. At the time the lease was signed, the premises were occupied by a writer under a lease expiring on June 30. The writer remained in possession after his lease expired, leaving only after being evicted on August 15.

What is the tenant’s best theory for a cause of action against the landlord for failure to deliver possession on or before July 1?

A

The tenant’s best theory is that the landlord breached the covenant of quiet enjoyment. A covenant of quiet enjoyment is implied in every lease. The tenant paid rent for a term commencing July 1 and had a right to possession on that date. The landlord breached that covenant by permitting a person with a greater possessory right (e.g., a hold-over tenant at sufferance who has not yet been evicted) to deny possession to the tenant, who had a right to it.

21
Q

A defendant was tried in state court for criminal fraud. The jury found the defendant guilty. A state statute provided that a judge could increase the sentence for fraud by up to five years beyond the statutory maximum if the judge found the existence of certain aggravating factors. Based on evidence presented to the jury that found the defendant guilty, the trial judge found that sufficient aggravating factors existed and imposed a sentence on the defendant for five years longer than the statutory maximum.

The defense attorney objected to the sentence. The judge overruled the objection and the defendant appealed his sentence to an appropriate appellate court.

How should the appellate court rule?

A) For the state, because the statute gave the defendant fair warning that the sentence could be increased.
B) For the state, because the jury determined guilt.
C) For the defendant, because the jury did not determine whether the aggravating factors existed.
D) For the defendant, because the special rules for capital offenses do not apply here.

A

(C) is correct. The Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to a jury trial. When a defendant elects a jury trial, he has a right to have the jury determine all the facts. If the substantive law provides that a sentence may be enhanced beyond the statutory maximum only upon a finding of certain facts (other than prior convictions), those facts must be found to exist by the jury. A determination of their existence by a judge is a denial of the Sixth Amendment right to a jury trial.

(A) is incorrect; fair warning of the possible sentence enhancement for purposes of due process is irrelevant to upholding the defendant’s Sixth Amendment right to a jury.

(B) is incorrect, because a jury must determine any fact needed to find guilt or to impose an additional sentence.

(D) is incorrect; though there are special rules for capital offenses, that issue is irrelevant to the facts presented here.

22
Q

A husband and wife were going through a nasty divorce. The wife hired a private detective to spy on her husband. The detective followed the husband to a hotel, where he saw the husband meet a woman and go into her hotel room. The detective checked into the adjoining room, placed an electronic listening device on the wall, and listened to and recorded the activities of the husband and the woman in the next room. He did nothing with the information he gathered, however, because the wife’s retainer check to the detective bounced. Both adultery and electronic eavesdropping are crimes under state law.

If the husband sues the detective for invasion of privacy, what is the likely result? Will the husband win or lose? Why?

A

The husband will win because he had an expectation of privacy in the woman’s hotel room.

The detective is liable for the type of invasion of privacy of intrusion upon the plaintiff’s private affairs or seclusion. The husband could reasonably expect that what he did in the woman’s hotel room would be free from intrusion. The detective violated the husband’s seclusion by listening to the activities in the room. This intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable person.

Note - it doesn’t matter that this info wasn’t published, still an invasion of privacy.

the viability of this cause of action does not depend on publication by the defendant; the interest protected by this type of invasion of privacy is the plaintiff’s right to be let alone, rather than his interest in not having the information disseminated.

23
Q

Does a restrictive covenant run with the land?

A

A restrictive covenant runs with the land.

A covenant at law will run with the land and be enforceable against subsequent grantees if: (i) the contracting parties intended it to run; (ii) there is privity of estate between the original promisor and promisee (horizontal privity), as well as between the promisor and his successor (vertical privity); (iii) the covenant touches and concerns the property; and (iv) the burdened party has notice of the covenant.

24
Q

When is joinder of parties proper?

A

Parties may be joined as defendants whenever:

(i) some claim is made by each plaintiff and against each defendant relating to or arising out of the same series of occurrences or transactions;

and

(ii) there is a question of fact or law common to all the parties.

25
Q

If there is proper joinder, does a federal court still also need SMJ?

A

Even if joinder were proper, the court would still need subject matter jurisdiction over both claims

26
Q

How do you commence an independent action in equity to set aside a judgment? In what situations is that okay?

A

a party commencing the independent action must show that (i) the judgment against the party should not, in equity and good conscience, be enforced; (ii) the party has a good defense to the claim which gave rise to the judgment; (iii) the opposing party’s fraud, accident, or mistake prevented the party from obtaining the benefit of its defense; (iv) the party’s fault or negligence did not contribute to the judgment; and (v) the party does not have an adequate remedy at law.

27
Q

Must the original writing always be produced under the best evidence rule?

A

Under the best evidence rule, in proving the terms of a writing, where the terms are material, the original writing must be produced. Secondary evidence of the writing, such as oral testimony regarding the writing’s contents, is permitted only after it has been shown that the original is unavailable for some reason other than serious misconduct of the proponent.

28
Q

How do you establish a prima facie case in products liability based on strict liability in tort. What four elements must be proved?

A

To establish a prima facie case in products liability based on strict liability in tort, the following elements must be proved: (i) the defendant is a commercial supplier (ii) that produced or sold a product that was defective when it left the defendant’s control (iii) that actually and proximately caused (iv) damage to the plaintiff’s person or property. To establish the second element, the plaintiff need prove only that the product in fact is so defective as to be “unreasonably dangerous.”

29
Q

A company let an employee borrow one of its company cars for a cross-country vacation trip which the employee had planned for his family. While driving through a remote stretch of farmland, the employee decided to see how much power the car really had, and was driving in excess of 90 m.p.h. when he came to a curve. He applied the brakes and attempted to slow down, but the car went across the double line and struck head-on a minivan coming in the opposite direction. The driver of the minivan was killed in the accident and the minivan was destroyed.

A “permissive use” statute is in effect making the bailor of an automobile liable for personal injury, death, or property damage caused by any person operating the automobile with his consent, up to a maximum of $25,000. The jurisdiction follows traditional contribution rules.

If the driver’s estate files suit against the company pursuant to the “permissive use” statute, and recovers the full $25,000, what rights, if any, would the company have against the employee?

A) None
B) The company may obtain contribution from the employee for up to 12,500
C) The company may obtain indemnity against the employee for the full $25,000.

A

C is correct.

The company may obtain indemnity from the employee. One who is held liable for damages caused by another simply because of his relationship to that person may seek indemnification from the person whose conduct actually caused the damage.

The company has been held liable for the damages caused by the employee solely because it loaned a car to the employee. Such vicarious liability (imposed pursuant to the permissive use statute) being imposed on the company will entitle it to be indemnified by the employee, whose conduct actually caused the damage. Thus, the entire loss will be shifted from the company to the employee.

(B) is incorrect because contribution is a device whereby responsibility is apportioned among those who are at fault. Contribution allows any defendant required to pay more than his share of damages to have a claim against any other jointly liable parties for the excess.

The company is not really at fault in bringing about the harm here. Rather, the company can only be held liable by virtue of the permissive use statute. There is no responsibility to be apportioned here; instead, the entire loss should be shifted from the company to the person who actually caused the damage. Thus, indemnity is available, and contribution is not the appropriate remedy.

30
Q

Growers of potatoes in the state recently began spraying a pesticide onto their crops to prevent the spread of a pest that can destroy young potato plants. The pesticide is manufactured exclusively by one company at its plant. When the plant is producing the pesticide it emits a fine, sticky, harmless mist as a byproduct. The mist often drifts over a farmer’s property, which is adjacent to the company’s plant. Although the company uses the best technology available, it is unable to prevent the release of the mist. The farmer brings suit against the company on the theory of private nuisance to enjoin the production of the pesticide at the company’s plant.

Which of the following facts, if established, will be most helpful to the company’s defense?

A) The company commenced the manufacture of the pesticide at its plant three years before the farmer acquired his land.
B) The pesticide is the only type of pesticide that can safely and effectively kill the pest, which, if not controlled, would destroy the state’s potato crop, its principal product.

A

B is correct!

The importance of the pesticide to a critical crop is most helpful to the company.

A private nuisance action requires a showing that the defendant’s interference with the use and enjoyment of the plaintiff’s property was unreasonable.
- To be characterized as unreasonable, the severity of the inflicted injury must outweigh the utility of the defendant’s conduct.

Here, the fact that the pesticide is the only means of preventing destruction of the state’s principal agricultural product would be the most persuasive additional fact for the company’s defense.

(A) is incorrect because “coming to the nuisance” is generally not a good defense to a nuisance action. A purchaser of land is entitled to reasonable use or enjoyment of the land to the same extent as any other owner as long as the land was purchased in good faith and not for the sole purpose of a harassing lawsuit.

31
Q

A husband and wife owned a condominium as joint tenants with a right of survivorship. They rented the condominium to third parties. The wife managed the condominium, collecting the rents and paying the expenses. Profits were placed in their joint marital bank account. The husband later deeded his interest in the condominium to his son and then divorced the wife. The wife continued to manage the condominium after the divorce, except that she now deposited the profits in her own account. When the son requested an accounting for the rent from the condominium, the wife refused. The wife continued to collect the rents for 21 years after the divorce without further objection from the son. When the wife died, the son sued the wife’s estate to establish an interest in the condominium.

If the son loses, what will be the likely reason?

A

The most likely reason the son will lose - The wife obtained the son’s interest by adverse possession. Although it is difficult for a co-tenant to adversely possess against other co-tenants, a co-tenant can establish title by adverse possession if her possession is hostile to other co-tenants. To satisfy this requirement, she must either physically oust them from the property or constructively oust by informing them that she is asserting exclusive control over the property. The wife’s express refusal to account for rents that she was collecting, half of which belonged to the son, amounted to a constructive ouster of the son and started the running of the statute of limitations for adverse possession. This adverse possession ripened into title 20 years later.

32
Q

Estoppel means that a party is prevented by his own earlier acts or representations from claiming a right, inconsistent with his previous position, to the detriment of the other party who was entitled to rely on such conduct and has so relied.

A

AKA estoppel has to do with the party who is suing - the acts of that party themselves.