Knowmedge - GI Flashcards
1
Q
If a patient with inflammatory bowel disease is found to have dysplasia on colonoscopy, what is the best next step in management?
A
Proctocolectomy
2
Q
Which extra-intestinal manifestions can mirror inflammatory bowel disease?
A
Arthritis and Erythema Nodosum
3
Q
What 2 steps should be performed after patients undergo cholecystectomy and still complain of right upper quadrant pain?
A
Liver function tests and a Right upper quadrant (RUQ) ultrasound
4
Q
What is the pattern of dysphagia with mechanical causes?
A
Solids initially and can progress to liquids later
5
Q
What is the most common cause of death in patients with hemochromatosis?
A
Liver cirrhosis
6
Q
OCPs are associated with which hepatic pathology?
A
Hepatic adenoma
7
Q
What should be checked in individuals with refractory hypothyroidism, despite being compliant on medication?
A
Celiac panel
8
Q
What are treatment options for achalasia?
A
Pneumatic dilatation or Surgical myotomy or Botulinum toxin
9
Q
Patients with hepatitis C who have undergone a liver transplant and have never been treated for HCV are at an increased risk of what diagnosis immediately after surgery?
A
Recurrent HCV infection immediately after surgery
10
Q
Cigarette smoking is associated with which type of esophageal cancer?
A
Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus
11
Q
What are the red flag symptoms that should be ruled out before a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome is made?
A
Unintentional weight loss, fevers, nocturnal symptoms, and blood in the stool
12
Q
HbSAg is positive. Which hepatitis B marker will indicate chronicity or carrier state of infection?
A
HB core IgG being positive
13
Q
What are 5 major causes of elevated Transferrin saturation?
A
Hemochromatosis, Excessive alcohol use, Fatty liver disease, Neoplasm, Hepatitis C infection
14
Q
How long does 6-mercaptopurine usually take to exert an effect?
In benign postoperative cholestasis, is direct bilirubin elevation greater or indirect bilirubin elevation?
A
Direct biliru
Three months
bin elevation
15
Q
What is the next step for patients presenting with uncontrolled reflux symptoms (despite medical therapy) and progressive dysphagia?
A
What is the next step for patients presenting with uncontrolled reflux symptoms (despite medical therapy) and progressive dysphagia?
16
Q
What is the class of anti-hypertensive medications used to treat Raynaud’s phenomenom?
A
Calcium channel blockers
17
Q
What is the oral antihypertensive of choice in patients presenting with hypertension & Raynaud’s syndrome?
A
Calcium channel blockers
18
Q
What is the gold standard for diagnosing small intestinal bacterial overgrowth?
A
Endoscopy with jejunal aspirate
19
Q
If the transaminase level is greater than what number is a non-alcohol process at play?
A
AST > 500 U/L
20
Q
What are the most and 2nd most common tumors of the liver?
A
Hepatic hemangioma is the most common tumor of the liver. Focal nodular hyperplasia is the second most common tumor of the liver.
21
Q
What anti-hypertensive treatment can be used in the treatment of diffuse esophageal spasm (DES)?
A
Calcium channel blockers
22
Q
Which is NOT an indication for repeat colonoscopy in 3 years: 2 Adenomas, Polyp size >1cm, High grade dysplasia, or Villous component?
A
Which is NOT an indication for repeat colonoscopy in 3 years: 2 Adenomas, Polyp size >1cm, High grade dysplasia, or Villous component?
23
Q
What prophylactic antibiotic is recommended for infective endocarditis patients undergoing GI or GU procedures?
A
No prophylactic antibiotic is recommended for patients undergoing GI or GU procedures
24
Q
What test can be performed to confirm eradication of Helicobacter pylori?
A
Stool antigen or Urea breath test (not H. pylori serology)
25
What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure in US?
Acetaminophen toxicity
26
Which cancer are patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) at greater risk of developing?
Cholangiocarcinoma
27
How long does 6-mercaptopurine usually take to exert an effect?
Three months
28
If symptoms persist after 6 weeks of proton pump inhibitor therapy in a patient suspected of having GERD but without alarm symptoms, what is the appropriate next step?
If symptoms persist after 6 weeks of proton pump inhibitor therapy in a patient suspected of having GERD but without alarm symptoms, what is the appropriate next step?
29
At what portal vein pressure does clinically significant portal hypertension occur?
HVPG is ≥10
30
What broad spectrum antibiotic can cause discoloration of teeth in children?
Doxycycline
31
Cryoglobulinemia can be associated with what hepatitis infection?
Hepatitis C infection
32
Patient is found to have positive antibodies to soluble liver antigen (SLA). What condition does this patient likely have?
Autoimmune hepatitis (which also has anti-smooth muscle antibodies)
33
How can chronic pancreatitis lead to gastric varices?
Chronic pancreatitis can lead to inflammation of the nearby splenic vein leading to thrombosis, which subsequently causes portal hypertension and gastric varices.
34
Is H. pylori infection more often associated with gastric or duodenal ulcers?
Duodenal ulcers
35
Patient has hepatitis C and is being treated with IFN therapy. LFTs are re-checked and are worsening. What undiagnosed condition does the patient also likely have?
Autoimmune hepatitis
36
What medication is best used to manage pain associated with chronic pancreatitis?
Pain medication begins with nonopioids (like acetaminophen, ibuprofen, or both).
If nonopioids do not relieve pain, mild opioids (like codeine) are given.
If mild opioids do not relieve pain, strong opioids (like morphine) are given.
- See more at: http://www.pancreasfoundation.org/patient-information/chronic-pancreatitis/chronic-pancreatitis-pain-management-and-treatment/#sthash.PsyxYJcP.dpuf
37
What part of the stomach is usally excluded in Type A chronic gastritis?
Antrum of stomach
Type A gastritis primarily affects the body/fundus of the stomach, and is more common with pernicious anemia.
Type B gastritis (most common overall) primarily affects the antrum, and is more common with H. pylori infection.
38
Along with percutaneous drainage as a treatment for infected pancreatic necrosis, which antibiotic is most commonly recommended?
Imipenem or other carbapenem
39
What complication of pancreatitis is related to the interference of ductal function and is asymptomatic in the majority of patients?
Pseudocysts
40
The hepatitis A vaccine is an inactivated virus that is given in two doses usually separated by ___ months.
41
Post bariatric surgery, which of the following likely indicates an anastomotic leak: Fever, Leukocytosis, Heart rate greater than 120/min or Abdominal tenderness?
HR greater than 120/minute
42
What is the preferred treatment for Giardiasis?
Metronidazole orally three times daily for 5-7 days
What is the most common cause of drug induced liver failure in US?
43
What is the most common cause of drug induced liver failure in US?
Acetatinophen
44
Which antibody test is often associated with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?
AMA (Anti-Mitochondrial Antibody)
45
What gene mutation is associated in patients who have Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)?
APC germline mutation
46
The transferrin saturation is a sensitive test for hemochromatosis in the setting of elevated transaminase levels. Transferrin saturation greater than \_\_\_\_% is suggestive of hemochromatosis.
The transferrin saturation is a sensitive test for hemochromatosis in the setting of elevated transaminase levels. Transferrin saturation greater than 45% is suggestive of hemochromatosis.
47
What is the most common composition of salivary gland stones?
Calcium phosphate
48
How much reduction of hepatitis C viral load should be seen at 12 weeks to continue treatment?
2 log reduction. If this occurs, chances of sustained viral response is high. If not, chances of sustained viral response is low.
49
True or False: Leukocytosis is commonly seen with diverticulitis
True; On laboratory studies, more than half of patients with diverticulitis have leukocytosis.
50
If metastasis is ruled out in a patient with esophageal cancer, what is the next step?
Endoscopic ultrasound to assess for local spread
51
When should a screening coloscopy be repeated in a patient with a polyp having a tubular component on biopsy?
5 years
52
What pill characteristics are at increased risk of causing pill-induced esophagitis?
Larger, round-shaped, and extended-release formulations
53
What tests may be performed if ultrasound is normal but there is high suspicion that a patient has choledocholithiasis?
MRCP, ERCP, or Endoscopic ultrasound
54
Name three reasons to start antibiotic prophylaxis in cirrhotic patients.
History of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis, Esophageal varices, and Ascites protein level less than 1 gram/dl
55
Thumbprinting is characteristically seen on a kidney-ureter-bladder xray in what condition?
Ischemic colitis
56
Pancreatic necrosis should be considered in patients with pancreatitis not improving within what timeframe?
Five or more days
57
What is the most common location of colonic diverticula ?
Sigmoid colon
58
Skip lesions are seen in which form of inflammatory bowel disease?
Crohn's disease
59
Young patients who have intermittent dysphagia to solid foods such as bread or meats are likely to have what condition?
Schatzki or lower esophageal ring
60
How is Mallory-Weiss tear managed?
61
How do you differentiate chronic hepatitis B infection from the carrier state?
62
What are the top two causes of pancreatitis in the United States?
#1 Alcoholism #2 Gallstones
63
Patient less than 40 is found to have numerous fundus gastric polyps. What syndrome needs to be ruled out in this patient?
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis Syndrome
64
What are common signs and symptoms seen in esophageal cancer?
Signs and symptoms of esophageal cancer include dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), odynophagia (painful swallowing), weight loss, cough or hoarseness.
65
Patient is found to have a 8mm villous adenoma in the transverse colon. When should a colonosopy be repeated?
3 years from now. Any polyp that is 1cm or greater or is a villous adenoma should have a repeat colonosopy in 3 years
66
Patient has a condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) fails to relax. What is the likely condition and the initial diagnostic test to perform?
Condition is achalasia and the initial diagnostic test is a barium swallow, which will show "bird beak" sign.
67
Where is hepatitis E endemic?
Mexico, the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia
68
Treatment of MALT requires eradication of what organism?
Heliobacter Pylori (H. pylori)
69
What is the treatment for MILD factor VIII deficiency?
Desmopressin
70
Achalasia can be associated with what disease?
Chagas Disease
71
What is the most common clinical presentation of autoimmune pancreatitis?
Painless, obstructive jaundice is the most common clinical presentation of autoimmune pancreatitis.
72
A young patient has chronic, unresponsive iron deficiency anemia and bulky, foul smelling stools. What is the likely diagnosis?
Celiac Disease or Hookwork Infection
73
What does the PMN or WBC count in the ascites fluid need to be in order to diagnose SBP?
74
What is the weak point from where protrusion of mucosa takes place in diverticulosis?
75
Of the three major forms of hepatitis, which does not currently have a vaccine against it?
76
In alcoholic hepatitis, which is greater: AST or ALT and by what ratio?
AST in a 2:1 ratio or greater
77
Patient with chronic diarrhea that does not improve with fasting is found to have a high stool osmolar gap. What is the likely diagnosis?
Laxative abuse
78
Rectal bleeding is a common symptom in (Diverticulitis or Diverticulosis?)
79
What is the most likely diagnosis in diabetic patient with diarrhea, weight loss, flatulence and vitamin A, D, B12 deficiencies?
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
80
What is the prefered treatment for microscopic colitis?
81
What demographic is most commonly affected by primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC): young males, young females, middle-aged males, middle-aged females, elderly males, elderly females?
Middle-aged females
82
Decreased or absent glucoronyl transferase level in the liver--often resulting from infection, trauma, stress, starvation, or surgical procedures--indicates what condition?
Gilbert syndrome
83
If a small bowel biopsy cannot be performed, what is another way to diagnose Whipple's disease?
CSF fluid analysis with PCR
84
How are the vitamin B12, vitamin D, and folate levels affected in bacterial overgrowth syndrome?
Vitamin B12 low, Vitamin D low, Folate high (due to production by bacteria)
85
What type of a diet is recommended for patients with chronic pancreatitis?
Patient is HCV RNA+, Upcoming travel to endemic area, Patient with chronic liver disease, Male patients who have sex with men, Users of illicit drugs, Patients with blood clotting disorders
86
What medication that can worsen depression is also contraindicated in autoimmune hepatitis?
87
Approximately what percentage of patients with gallstones will develop cholangiocarcinoma?
1-3%
88
Bluish discoloration around the umbilicus in pancreatitis patients is known as what sign?
89
Which hepatitis infection can't exist on its own and requires active hepatitis B infection?
90
With what condition are anti-mitochondrial antibodies often associated?
91
What type of triglycerides may be recommended in the diet for a patient with chronic pancreatitis?
92
Which type of glomerulonephritis is common in patients with hepatitis B?
Membranous glomerulonephritis
93
What are the extrahepatic manifestations of hepatitis B infection?
Serum sickness like syndrome, glomerulonephritis, polyarthritis, polyarteritis nodosa, dermatologic manifestations (bullous pemphigoid, lichen planus, Gianotti-Crosti syndrome), cryoglobulinemia, neurological manifestations like Guillian Barre syndrome, psychological conditions like depression & psychosis
94
Which is LEAST likely a risk factor for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus: Uncontrolled GERD, Smoking, or Obesity?
Smoking. This increases chances of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus.
95
What kind of anemia are patients with celiac disease at an increased risk of developing and why?
96
What are indications for receiving Hepatitis A vaccine?
Patient is HCV RNA+, Upcoming travel to endemic area, Patient with chronic liver disease, Male patients who have sex with men, Users of illicit drugs, Patients with blood clotting disorders
97
What is the treatment of choice in patients with hemochromatosis?
Phlebotomy
98
When should we consider iron chelation therapy for patients with hemochromatosis?
In patients who cannot be managed with phlebotomy, and in anemic patients who have hemochromatosis from overtransfusion (eg. Thalassemia)
99
Which gender is more at risk of progression of hepatitis C infection to cirrhosis?
Male gender
100
Which genetic abnormality is associated with Wilson's disease?
ATP7B
101
What is the definition of Transferrin saturation?
Ratio of serum iron and total iron binding capacity, multiplied by 100
102
What is the AST:ALT ratio typically in alcoholic hepatitis?
Greater than 2:1
103
Prior to performing pneumatic dilatation for achalasia, what needs to be performed?
EGD for biopsy to rule out lymphoma or cancer (Pseudoachalasia)
104
What on labwork may be an earlier inidcator of Vitamin B12 deficiency than a low B12 level?
Elevated methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels
105
What marker is associated with ovarian cancer?
Cancer antigen (CA) 125
106
What are 5 main scenarios in which a surgery referral should be considered in a patient with diverticulitis?
Recurrent bouts of diverticulitis, CT abdomen reveals obstruction, Abscess formation, Fistula, or Perforation
107
Which is LEAST likely when a patient has a SAAG of 2.1 g/dL: Liver cirrhosis, Budd-Chiari Syndrome, or Nephrotic syndrome?
Nephrotic syndrome
108
What does anti-Hepatitis A virus IgG (+) indicate?
109
What advantage does ERCP have over MRCP in patients with choledocholithiasis?
ERCP allows removal of the stone
110
Which antiretroviral is associated with nephrolithiasis?
111
Post-gastrectomy patients experiencing diarrhea, bloating, nausea and tachycardia after eating most likely have what condition?
Dumping syndrome
112
Which would NOT require a repeat colonoscopy in 3 years: Greater than three adenomas, Villous morphology, or Tubular morphology?
Tubular morphology would not require repeat colonoscopy in 3 years.
113
Blood transfusion occurring before what year can be a risk factor for hepatitis C?
Blood transfusion prior to 1992
114
What are some common symptoms seen in diverticulitis?
● Lower left sided abdominal pain (often severe and sudden)
● Fever
● Change in bowel habits
● Constipation
● Diarrhea
● Bloating
115
What is the best diagnostic modality to order when diverticulitis is suspected?
CT scan of the abdomen with IV contrast
116
What is the best initial test to diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
Ascitic fluid neutrophil count (\> 250 neutrophils)
117
What is the mechanism by which patients with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome develop steatorrhea?
118
Which agent is not used in the management of Ulcerative Colitis: Mesalamine, Methotrexate, Corticosteroids, or 6-MP?
Methotrexate can be used for Crohn's Disease but does not work for Ulcerative Colitis
119
What class of anti-depressant medication used to treat urge incontinencecan also cause constipation?
Tricyclic antidepressants
120
What are the 4 main conditions that can result from compromised blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract?
Ischemic colitis, Acute mesenteric ischemia, Chronic mesenteric ischemia and Mesenteric vein thrombosis
121
In patients with short bowel syndrome, what causes greasy and foul-smelling stools?
Bile acid malabsorption
122
When should colonoscopies be initiated for colorectal cancer screening in patients with ulcerative colitis?
Surveillance begins eight years after diagnosis
123
Enteral feedng for patients with severe acute pancreatitis consists of a tube that passes what anatomical landmark?
The Ligament of Treitz, avoiding pancreatic stimulation
124
Which is LEAST likely to be seen in Wilson Disease: Elevated aminotransferases, Decreased ceruloplasmin, Increased alkaline phosphate, or Hemolytic anemia?
Increased alkaline phosphate is least likely to be seen. The alkaline phosphatase level is generally either normal or decreased.
125
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ years after diagnosis of ulcerative colitis, patients should have a colonoscopy done every ____ to _____ years.
Eight years after diagnosis of disease, it is recommended the patient get a colonoscopy every one to two years
126
What malignancy are patients with celiac disease at an increased risk of developing?
Lymphoma
127
What is an effective medication with low side effect profile used against Crohn's disease?
Mesalamine
128
What is the likely diagnosis when foamy macrophages on a Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain of small bowel biopsy?
Tropheryma whipplei infection causing Whipple's disease
129
Not being vaccinated against which organism is a risk factor for parotitis?
Mumps virus
130
What is the likely diagnosis in a patient who has long standing history of GERD and dysphagia to solids first and liquids later?
Esophageal stricture
131
True or False: Patients with hemochromatosis can develop arthropathy involving the 2nd and 3rd DIP joints
False; The arthropathy that you can see in hemochromatosis involves the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints.
132
Patient found to have 3 adenomas on colonoscopy. When should repeat test be performed?
3 years
133
Patient has Kayser-Fleischer rings. What would you expect serum copper, ceruloplasmin, and urine copper levels to be? (High, low or unchanged)
KF rings = Wilson's disease. Low serum copper, Low ceruloplasmin, and High urinary copper.
134
What condition should be considered if a patient with primary sclerosing cholangitis develops clinical signs of decompensation?
Cholangiocarcinoma
135
Patient has bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Colonscopy shows superficial ulcerations with crypt abscesses. Likely diagnosis?
Ulcerative colitis
136
The genetic form of hemochromatosis has an autosomal recessive inhertiance pattern and is due to _____ and ______ mutations in the HFE gene.
The genetic form of hemochromatosis has an autosomal recessive inhertiance pattern and is due to C282Y and H63D mutations in the HFE gene.
137
What is the most common screening test for Wilson Disease?
Serum ceruloplasmin levels (these levels will be decreased)
138
Hypertensive patient has esophageal varices. Of the following, which medication can be used: Nadolol, Lisinopril, or Verapamil?
Nadolol
139
In which gender is eosinophilic esophagitis more common?
Male
140
What lab test is the hallmark of autoimmune hepatitis?
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
141
What does HBsAg(+) indicate and in what 3 states is it positive?
Infection. It will be positive in Acute hepatitis, Chronic hepatitis, Carrier state.
142
How often should colonoscopies be performed in patients with colorectal cancer?
Every 1-2 years
143
Which hepatitis is the only one to be DNA-based?
Hepatitis B is a DNA-based virus. Hepatitis A, hepatitis C, hepatitis D, and hepatitis E are all RNA-based viruses.
144
Which of the following is not a known cause of pancreatitis: Azathioprine, Steroids, Gallstones or TG level of 450mg/dL?
145
Anti-soluble liver antigen, anti-smooth muscle or anti-LKM can be associated with what condition?
Autoimmune hepatitis
146
What do you expecte on labs in Wilson's disease: (High/low) Ceruloplasmin, (High/low) Urine copper?
Low ceruloplasmin, High urine copper
147
How do you differentiate HDV coinfection & superinfection?
Both conditions will have anti HDV antibodies but in addition coinfection will have anti-HBc IgM antibody while superinfection will have anti-HBc IgG antibody.
148
What marker is used to check for the recurrence of colon carcinoma?
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
149
True or False: Any female with a hepatic adenoma who is pregnant or is seeking pregnancy should have the adenoma resected.
True; Hepatic adenoma can cause intraperitoneal bleeding especially in females seeking pregnancy or who are pregnant.
150
Which is incorrect for autoimmune hepatitis: Affects younger women, Anti-smooth muscle antibodies can be positive, Can progress to cirrhosis, or Responds well to IFN?
Responds well To IFN
151
Middle aged female is found to have positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the best management for this condition at this time?
Ursodeoxycholic acid (Ursodiol)
152
What 3 main molecules cause the secretion of gastric acid from parietal cells?
Acetylcholine, Gastrin, and Histamine
153
HbsAg (+), Hbc Ab IgG (+) and HbeAg (+). How can this be interpreted?
Chronic hepatitis B infection in replicative state
154
What type of diet should be tried in post-gastrectomy patients with diarrhea, bloating, nausea and tachycardia after eating?
Trial of high fat and protein diet (with low carbohydrates) and several small meals, which will delay gastric emptying
155
Which condition that is a risk factor for parotitis is associated with antibodies to SSA (Ro) and antibodies to SSB (La)?
Sjogren's syndrome
156
What is the staging system used to classify perforated diverticulitis?
Hinchey classification system
157
When should colonoscopy be performed after an episode of diverticulitis?
4 to 6 weeks later
158
What stain is used to detect fecal fat?
Sudan stain
159
Definitive diagnosis of a Mallory-Weiss tear is made by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Definitive diagnosis of a Mallory-Weiss tear is made by Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)
160
Diet containing what sugar-like compounds can cause diarrhea?
High sorbitol or fructose diet
161
A clue to upper GI bleed would be an abnormally high BUN:creatinine ratio greater than \_\_\_:\_\_\_.
30:1
162
Ascitic fluid containing polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) greater than this number indicates spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)?
Greater than 250/mm3
163
What do you expect the urine anion gap to be in cases of diarrhea (positive or negative)?
**Negative urine anion gap**
Usually the most important unmeasured ion in urine is NH4+ since it is the most important form of acid excretion by the kidney.[4] Urine NH4+ is difficult to measure directly, but its excretion is usually accompanied by the **anion chloride**. **A negative urine anion gap can be used as evidence of increased NH4+ excretion.** In a metabolic acidosis without a serum anion gap:
A positive urine anion gap suggests a low urinary NH4+ (e.g. renal tubular acidosis).
A negative urine anion gap suggests a high urinary NH4+ (e.g. diarrhea).
164
What demographic has an increased risk of developing autoimmune hepatitis: Young females, Young males, Middle-aged males, Middle-aged females, Elderly males, Elderly females?
Young females
165
What osmotic agents may be used to treat opioid-induced constipation?
Magnesium hydroxide, Lactulose and Polyethylene glycol
166
What genetic testing is mandatory before starting patient on abacavir?
Before initiating treatment with abacavir, patients should undergo testing for HLA B-5701. If positive, then patients are at increased risk of having life threatening hypersensitivity with abacavir
167
What should be the rate of caloric intake on first day of the refeeding regimen?
10 kcal/kg/day
168
What class of antibiotics can cause Achilles tendon rupture?
Fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin)
169
What is the name of the congenital anomaly in which the pancreatic duct is not one whole entity but forms the ventral and dorsal duct?
Pancreatic divisum
170
In cases of refractory GERD despite lifestyle modifications and high dose proton pump inhibitors, what is the next step?
EGD and Helicobacter pylori testing
171
What electrolyte abnormality most commonly can cause constipation?
Hypercalcemia
172
What would you expect the folate and vitamin B12 levels to be in pts who are diagnosed with bacterial overgrowth?
Increased folate levels, decreased Vitamin B12 levels
173
What is the most common cause of hematochezia in patients greater than 60 years of age?
174
Triglycerides typically need to exceed what level in order to cause pancreatitis?
175
What does anti-Hepatitis A virus IgM (+) indicate?
Acute infection; it typically persists for 2-6 months
176
Which is reserved to manage Crohn's but not ulcerative colitis: Corticosteroids, Adalimumab, or Methotrexate?
Methotrexate
177
Given that endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can sometimes worsen acute pancreatitis, when is it indicated in setting of pancreatitis?
Evidence of common bile duct dilatation
178
What test is ordered before a patient undergoes Nissen fundoplication for the treatment of GERD?
Manometry study to confirm good motility of the esophagus before Nissen is done. If poor motility, achalasia can result.
179
If a patient with ulcerative colitis experiences worsening of symptoms originally controlled on mesalamine now requiring higher steroid doses, what is the best next step in treatment?
180
What procedure can be performed in patients with resectable cancers localized to the head of the pancreas?
Whipple procedure (also known as pancreaticoduodenectomy)
181
What is the specific antibody blood test for celiac disease?
Tissue transglutaminase antibody
182
Post-gallbladder removal, patient has right upper abdominal pain and still has elevated LFTs. What is the next best step in management?
Check manometery studies to rule out sphincter of oddi function
183
Patient being treated with IFN for hepatitis C has reduction in HCV RNA but worsening LFTs. What condition has been overlooked?
Autoimmune hepatitis. IFN therapy can exacerbate autoimmune hepatitis.
184
What is the lesion caused by constant sliding of hiatal hernia leading to erosions of the crest of gastric folds?
Cameron lesion
185
What causes the "Bird's beak" finding on barium swallow and what is the diagnosis?
Dilated esophagus with tapered gastroesophageal junction due to increased lower esophageal sphincter tone; seen in Achalasia
186
Patient with Ulcerative Colitis is found to have elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and total bilirubin levels. What is the likely diagnosis?
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)
187
What symptoms are typically associated with Giardiasis?
Foul-smelling fatty stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea, which can be so profound that weight loss may occur
188
Which of the following medications is least likely to cause pill-induced esophagitis: Tetracycline, Iron supplements, Bisphosphonate, Levothyroxine, Potassium supplements?
Levothyroxine
189
Which antigen is prevalent during replicative phase of hepatitis B in patient sera?
HBeAg
190
How does hypergastrinemia occur in Type A atrophic gastritis?
The low chloride and gastric acid level from the parietal cells cause a feedback mechanism to increase gastrin levels.
191
Which class of antiretrovirals have dyslipidemia as predominant side effects?
Protease inhibitors (although other classes of antiretrovirals can also change lipid profile of patients on HAART)
192
Patient with Crohn's disease is complaining of a new limp. What complication could this be?
Psoas (Iliopsoas) abscess that can occur because of transmural inflammation which occurs with Crohn's Disease
193
When should a colonoscopy be done after a bout of diverticulitis?
About 6 weeks later to prevent perforation of colon
194
Patient has had GERD for 6 weeks on PPI treatment. No alarm features but symptoms are not improving. What is the next best step?
24 hour PH ambulatory monitoring
195
Dysphagia to liquids, difficulty in initiating a swallow, coughing and gagging suggest which anatomical category of dysphagia?
Oropharyngeal dysphagia
196
Any patient with Crohn’s disease and a new limp must be ruled out for what complication?
Psoas (or iliopsoas) muscle abscess
197
What are the drugs used in treatment of HCV infection?
Peg-interferon plus ribavarin, telapravir, bocepravir
198
What does IgG Anti-HBc(+) indicate?
Hepatitis B Chronic infection, Carrier state, or Cleared state
199
What 2 main molecules inhibit the secretion of gastric acid from parietal cells?
Somatostatin and Secretin
200
In Gilbert syndrome, is direct bilirubin elevation greater or indirect bilirubin elevation?
Indirect bilirubin elevation
201
What psych medication category can increase the risk of developing salivary gland stones?
Phenothiazine antipsychotics
202
Which conditions result in a SAAG \< 1.1 g/dl?
Infections (except SBP), Cancer, Nephrotic Syndrome
203
What are the two most common causes of acute mesenteric ischemia?
Superior Mesenteric Artery (SMA) embolism from the left atrium or Ventricular mural thrombi
204
What is the cell metaplasia that occurs in Barrett's esophagus?
Squamous to columnar metaplasia of the esophageal epithelium
205
What liver lesion is characterized on CT or MRI with appearance of anomalous artery as a "central scar"?
206
What conditon would you expect with decreased glucoronyl transferase levels and elevated indirect bilirubin levels?
207
How do you diagnose esophageal rupture?
Gastrografin swallow study
208
Which is the most common HCV genotype prevalent in US?
Genotype 1
209
Which is a motility dysphagia problem: Eosinophilic esophagitis, Strictures, achalasia, or Esophageal cancer?
Achalasia is a motility dysphagia problem. The others are examples of mechanical dysphagia problems.
210
How do gastric and duodenal ulcers differ in terms of their relation to food intake?
211
30,000 units of what enzyme is recommended for patients with chronic pancreatitis?
212
Which of the hepatitis virsuses is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure?
Hepatitis B virus
213
How does alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency present?
Liver disease and emphysema in a young non-smoking patient
214
What is the most common location of angiodysplasia?
Cecum & ascending colon
215
What are the two main side effects associated with amlodipine?
Peripheral edema and headaches
216
What anti-diabetic medication has diarrhea as one of its more common side effects?
Metformin
217
Barium swallow, Manometry, or EGD with biopsy are studies that may be involved in the work up which anatomical category of dysphagia?
Esophageal dysphagia
218
NS3/4A protease inhibitors, when combined with IFN and Ribavarin Rx, can improve the success of what HCV genotype?
HCV genotype 1
219
Oral candidal infection can result from incorrect use of inhaled steroids. How should ptatients starting inhaled steroid therapy be counseled?
Rinse the mouth out well with water after using the inhaler
220
What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with a history of dysphagia to solids and liquids concurrently and with chest pain, especially after drinking cold beverages?
Diffuse esophageal spasm
221
Foamy macrophages on PAS stain on a small bowel biopsy is seen in what condition?
Whipple's Disease
222
Patient with UC is found to have elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels. Likely diagnosis?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
223
What is the best initial test in diagnosis of hemochromatosis?
Transferrin saturation (usually elevated at 45% or more)
224
Which will give a high stool osmolal gap: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, Carcinoid, or Pancreatic insufficiency?
Pancreatic insufficiency is an example of osmotic diarrhea and will give an increased stool osmolal gap
225
On plain film, what area of the colon is most often affected in setting of toxic megacolon from ulcerative colitis?
Transverse colon
226
What are the two main sub-types of microscopic colitis?
Lymphocytic colitis and collagenous colitis
227
How is abdominal pain in irritable bowel syndrome affected by defecation?
Abdominal pain improves with defecation
228
Which conditions present with SAAG \> 1.1 g/dL?
Liver cirrhosis, Portal HTN, Hepatic vein thrombosis, CHF, Constrictive pericarditis
229
In a patient suspected of having gastroparesis, what test should be performed to rule out obstruction?
EGD
230
Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction can be ruled out with what test?
Manometric studies
231
After a night of heavy drinking, patient begins to retch and cough violently before seeing blood in his emesis. Likely diagnosis?
Extreme retching and violent coughing preceding hematemesis is a clue for Mallory-Weiss tear.
232
Which protease inhibitor is not associated with dyslipidemia?
Atazanavir (darunavir also causes only mild changes in lipid profile)
233
Which isn't used to determine eradication of H. pylori after treatment: Urea breath test, Fecal antigen test, or Serological test?
Serological testing
234
In non-alcohol fatty liver disease (NALFD), which transaminase is usually greater?
ALT
235
How is the calcium level changed in cases of pancreatitis leading to multi-organ failure?
236
Which autoantibodies are associated with primary biliary cirrhosis?
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
237
What are some extra-intestinal manifestations that do NOT mirror ulcerative colitis?
Pyoderma gangrenosum, Sacroilitis, and Primary sclerosing cholangitis do not mirror ulcerative colitis. If the ulcerative colitis improves, primary sclerosing cholangitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and sacroilitis will not necessarily improve.
238
What is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy?
Viral hepatitis
239
What is the most likely symptom is patients experiencing VIPoma?
Voluminous, watery diarrhea
240
Any patient experiencing an osmotic diarrhea that persists during fasting periods should be asked what question?
Do you use laxatives and, if so, how frequently?
241
What would you expect the Vitamin B12 and folate level to be in Caribbean tropical sprue?
Vitamin B12 level is decreased and folate will be normal
242
What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure in pregnant women?
Hepatitis E infection
243
How long after Rx for H.pylori should a fecal antigen test or urea breath test be performed to confirm eradication of infection?
4-6 weeks after treatment
244
What is the most important risk factor determining progression of liver disease in a patient of chronic hepatitis C?
Longer duration of illness
245
Diffuse esophageal spasm, systemic sclerosis, and achalasia are examples of which type of dysphagia?
Motility. Dysphagia to solids and liquids concurrently
246
Digestion of which toxin from reef fish can cause for peri-oral parasthesias to occur?
Ciguatera toxin
247
What complication of chronic pancreatitis, seen in about 5-10% of cases can present as postprandial abdominal pain and early satiety?
Duodenum obstruction
248
With bacterial overgrowth, what would you expect the vitamin B12 and folate levels to be (elevated, decreased, normal)?
Increased folate levels, decreased vitamin B12 levels
249
What are alarm features associated with GERD?
Dysphagia, Hematemesis or Unintentional weight loss
250
Globally, which two hepatitis infections can cause fulminant hepatitis?
Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E
251
Long term use of what comonly prescribed medication can cause bacterial overgrowth?
Proton pump inhibitors
252
What are the two most common causes of lower GI bleed in the elderly?
Diverticular bleeding and Angiodysplasia are the most common causes of lower GI bleed in the elderly (age greater than 60 years).
253
What are the indications based on BMI for gastric bypass surgery consideration?
BMI greater than 40kg/m2 or greater than 35kg/m2 with co-morbidities
254
Which is true of chronic mesenteric ischemia: Sitophobia is present, SMA embolus is the main cause, or Lower gastrointestinal bleed is common?
Sitophobia present is true. SMA embolus is the main cause of acute mesenteric ischemia
255
In osmotic diarrhea, what is the stool osmotic gap?
Greater than 100mOsm/kg
256
How is the Hepatitis A virus transmitted?
Fecal-oral route
257
In patients with chronic pancreatitis, how many units of lipase is recommended daily?
258
What is the mainstay of treatment of autoimmune hepatitis?
Glucocorticoid therapy
259
What is Charcot's triad?
Fever, Right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and Jaundice
260
What 3 main surgical procedures can lead to the development of blind loop syndrome?
261
What are the 4 A's associated with Type A non-erosive gastritis?
Autoantibodies, Achlorhydia, Atrophic, Anemia (pernicious)
262
Which hepatitis infection can cause fulminant hepatitis in the third trimester of pregnancy?
Hepatitis E
263
What hepatitis B marker indicates active replication?
HbeAg
264
What is typically seen on biopsy from endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) in patients with autoimmune pancreatitis?
Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate
265
What condition is commonly associated with gnawing abdominal pain after eating, seen more often in smokers and is treated with surgical bypass or angioplasty?
266
What is the best way to differentiate chronic hepatitis B from carrier state of hepatitis B?
267
True or False: Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E are both RNA-based viruses.
268
Watermelon stomach is also known as what condition?
269
Which specific antiviral therapy is contraindicated in patients with autoimmune hepatitis?
270
What two HLA alleles are often seen in patients with celiac disease?
HLA DQ-2 and HLA DQ-8
271
What two antibiotics are often prescribed for uncomplicated diverticulitis?
272
Surgical post operation patient has elevated total bilirubin levels with direct \> indirect and normal alkaline phosphate level. What is the likey diagnosis?
Benign post operative cholestasis that is a result of massive blood transfusion during surgery.
273
When should a colonoscopy be repeated in an individual found to have hyperplastic polyp?
10 years later
274
Which part of the stomach does Type A non-erosive gastritis typically affect?
Usually Type A affects body or fundus of stomach. Type B non-erosive gastritis affects antrum of stomach
275
Which autoantibodies are associated with autoimmune hepatitis?
Anti-smooth muscle antibody, Anti-LKM1, Anti-soluble liver antigen
276
Systemic sclerosis (or scleroderma) causes dysphagia to solids, liquids or both?
It is a motility problem that is expected to cause dysphagia to both solids and liquids.
277
What are major risk factors for esophageal cancer?
Smoking history, excessive alcohol use, obesity, low socioeconomic status, and GERD with or without Barrett esophagus.
278
Which is example of osmotic diarrhea: Celiac disease, ViPoma, ZE syndrome, or carcinoid syndrome?
Celiac disease is an example of osmotic diarrhea. Others are examples of secretory diarrhea
279
What is the difference in likely location within the stomach between Type A and Type B atrophic gastritis?
Type A gastritis primarily affects the body and fundus of the stomach. Type B gastritis primarily affects the antrum.
280
A patient has dysphagia to solids and liquids and chest pain that occurs especially after drinking cold beverages. What is the likely diagnosis?
DIffuse esophageal spasm (DES)
281
ATP7B gene mutation is associated with which condition?
Wilson's Disease
282
What study should be ordered prior to treating achalasia and why?
EGD with biopsy to rule out pseudoachalasia in which lymphoma/other cancer causes obstructive symptoms. Pneumatic dilatation should not be performed; appropriate management is to treat the underlying malignancy.
283
What is the estimated average blood glucose level for a patient with a HGBA1c of 7%?
154 mg/dL
284
Which of the following is an example of secretory diarrhea: Celiac disease, Pancreatic insufficiency, or VIPoma?
VIPoma
285
What type of inheritance is seen in Wilson's disease?
Autosomal recessive
286
What is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis in immunocompetent individuals?
Candia albicans
287
What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure in the US?
Acetaminophen overdose
288
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a risk factor for what type of esophageal cancer?
Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus
289
What is the most common risk factor for the development of cholangiocarcinoma?
Gallstones
290
Porphyria cutanea tarda and cryoglobulinemia can often be associated with what hepatitis infection?
Hepatitis C
291
What medication helps chelate copper in Wilson's disease?
Penicillamine
292
Which of the following is most likely associated with women on OCPs: Hepatic cysts, Focular nodular hyperplasia, Hepatic adenoma, or Hepatic abscess?
Hepatic adenoma
293
Which is the most sensitive indicator of HCV infection?
294
In secretory forms of diarrhea, how does fasting affect the large/frequent bowel movements?
Little/No effect
295
What are 2 major risk factors of acalculous cholecystitis?
Critical illness in the ICU (who often have an underlying infection) and Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) use
296
What is the anatomic landmark which differentiates upper & lower GI bleeds?
Ligament of Treitz
297
What does IgM Anti-HBc(+) indicate?
Acute Hepatitis B infection
298
How is the stool osmotic gap calculated?
What number is it less than in secretory diarrhea?
Stool osmotic gap = 290 - 2 (Stool Potass ium + Stool Sodium).
Value \<50mOsm/kg in secretory diarrhea
299
Which agent used for the treatment of ulcerative colitis should not be used for maintenance?
Steroids
300
Which anaesthetic gas is associated with idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity & high mortality rates?
Halothane
301
What are 4 main classes of medications that can promote reflux symptoms?
Calcium channel blockers, Tricyclic antidepressants, Anti-histamines, and Anti-cholinergics
302
In the stepwise approach to preventing constipation in patients using opioid medications, what is the first medication to try?
Stool softeners (e.g. docusate) with the initiation of the opioid medication
303
For at least how long does an individual need to be in a tropical country to be considered for a diagnosis of tropical sprue?
1 month
304
Mucosal break less than what size is considered an erosion?
Less than 5mm is considered an erosion. Greater than 5mm is considered peptic ulcer
305
What are 2 major complications of choledocholithiasis?
Ascending cholangitis and sepsis
306
If a polyp larger than 1cm or one with a villous component on biopsy is found, when should repeat screening be performed?
3 years
307
What is the treatment of symtpoms resulting from short bowel syndrome?
Medium chain triglycerides and antacids
308
What is the most common indication for liver transplantation in US?
HCV mediated liver cirrhosis
309
What are the potential late complications of gastric bypass surgery?
Anastamosis stricture, Bacterial overgrowth, Marginal ulceration, Incisional hernia, Nutritional deficiencies (including iron and vitamin B12 deficiency)
310
What test helps distinguish a hepatobiliary versus bone cause to an elevated alkaline phosphatase?
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), which is elevated in hepatobiliary and low/normal in bone disease
311
AST is typically less than what value in cases of alcoholic hepatitis?
Less than 500 U/L
312
What is the treatment of autoimmune pancreatitis?
Steroids
313
For localized esophageal cancer, what are treatment options?
For localized esophageal cancer, surgical esophagectomy or chemoradiation with fluorouracil (5-FU), cisplatin and external beam radiotherapy can be used.
314
Which gender presents earlier with hemochromatosis?
Males (menstruation delays onset of liver cirrhosis in females)
315
What is typically used to manage triglyceride-induced pancreatitis?
Insulin drip
316
What vitamin is typically checked when a patient presents with gastrointestinal malabsoprtion?
Vitamin D
317
What is the best way to detect primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
318
Which two extra-intestinal manifestations mirror IBD?
Arthritis and erythema nodosum
319
Which hepatitis B marker indicates active replication?
HBeAg
320
What is the approximate annual rate of hepatocellular carcinoma in cirrhotic patients with hepatitis C?
1-4%, occuring mainly in patients having HCV infection for 30 years or more
321
What is the minimum timeframe of symptoms in irritable bowel syndrome?
Continuous or recurrent for at least three months
322
How is chronic hepatitis differentiated from chronic carrier state?
Chronic hepatitis will have deranged liver function test unlike in case of chronic carrier state
323
What malignancy is a patient at an increased risk for with positive tissue transglutaminse antibodies?
Lymphoma (condition is celiac disease)
324
What are 5 agents involved in ulcerative colitis treatment?
5-ASA, 6-Mercaptopurine, Azathioprine, Infliximab, Steroids
325
What will the folate and vitamin B12 levels be in patients with Caribbean tropical sprue?
Normal folate, decreased vitamin b12 levels
326
How is the diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis made?
EGD reveals a scalloped appearance to the esophagus with ridges or rings. Also, eosinophils in esophageal epithelium on mucosal biopsy
327
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with which condition?
Autoimmune hepatitis
328
In which gender is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) more common?
Male
329
Which hepatitis C treatment medication may exacerbate autoimmune hepatitis?
Interferon
330
What lab test is the hallmark of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)?
Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
331
Distal to what location lowers Gastrointestinal bleeding to occur?
Ligament of Treitz
332
What two antibiotics are most commonly used for the treatment of diverticulitis?
Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole
333
What procedure is considered in resectable pancreatic cancers of the body and tail?
Distal pancreatectomy
334
Discriminant function greater than or equal to what predicts short term mortality as high as 50% in alcoholic patients?
Greater than equal to 32
335
What diagnosis needs to be ruled out when a patient presents with unintentional weight loss, decreased appetite, and progressive dysphagia to solids?
Esophageal cancer
336
What is the appropriate test for diagnosing oropharyngeal dysphagia?
337
What are the two most common HLA markers associated with a condition that has positive antibodies to tissue transglutaminase?
HLA DQ-2 and HLA DQ-8
338
What medication requiring bedside atropine to be present may be used in the treatment of Ogilvie's syndrome?
339
What is the classic presentation of a patient experiencing diffuse esophageal spasm (DES)?
Chest discomfort after drinking cold or carbonated drinks
340
What is the drug of choice for treatment of acetaminophen toxicity?
N-acetylcysteine by replenishing body stores of hepatic glutathione and binding to toxic metabolite
341
What are the potential early complications of gastric bypass surgery?
Anastamosis leak, Bowel obstruction, Hemorrhage, Venous thromboembolism, Wound infection
342
What is the oral antihypertensive of choice in patients presenting with hypertension & esophageal varices?
Beta blockers
343
How do Caribbean tropical sprue and Asian tropical sprue differ on labwork?
344
What is the hepatotoxic metabolite derived from acetaminophen by CytP450 CYP2E1?
N-acetyl-benzoquinone-imine (NAPQI)
345
What is the initial test to be ordered when "Steakhouse syndrome" is suspected?
Barium swallow
346
If sphincter of Oddi dysfunction is confirmed to be causing a patient's symptoms, what is the best next step?
The approach to a patient with suspected sphincter of Oddi dysfunction (SOD) depends upon the patient's clinical presentation as well as the results of laboratory testing and abdominal imaging. In general, only patients fulfilling the Rome III criteria should undergo invasive evaluation for SOD. This decreases the chance of patients being inappropriately subjected to invasive testing for SOD that is associated significant complications (primarily pancreatitis). (See 'Rome III criteria' above and 'Sphincter of Oddi manometry' below.)
To determine if patients fulfill the Rome III criteria, liver tests (transaminases, alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin) and pancreatic enzymes (amylase, lipase) should be checked, and structural abnormalities need to be excluded. Transabdominal ultrasound is typically the initial imaging study obtained for suspected biliary SOD. It can look for structural abnormalities such as gallstones while also providing an estimate of the common bile duct diameter. However, transabdominal ultrasound may not adequately visualize the pancreas because of overlying bowel gas, so alternate imaging techniques, such as magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), may be required for evaluation of the pancreatic duct. Additional testing that may help to rule out structural abnormalities includes abdominal computed tomography, endoscopic ultrasound, and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).
In appropriately selected patients, the diagnosis of SOD is established by sphincter of Oddi manometry (SOM), which is performed during ERCP. Several less invasive methods have also been evaluated for establishing the diagnosis, but none has been shown to approach the diagnostic accuracy of SOM [28,30]. (See 'Sphincter of Oddi manometry' below.)
347
What 2 commonly prescribed antibiotics has been shown to lead to cases of drug-induced pancreatitis?
Metroniadazole, tetracycline, Bactrim
348
Diverticuli can be seen in the context of what 4 main conditions?
- Asymptomatic diverticulosis
- Painful diverticulosis
- Diverticular bleed
- Diverticulitis
349
Patient with heartburn, diarrhea and increased gastrin levels. What is the likely diagnosis?
Zollinger-Ellison
350
What is the procedure of choice in a patient who has obstruction of the common bile duct by a pancreatic mass causing jaundice and abdominal pain?
ERCP with stent placement
351
What would be first line quadruple treatment of H. pylori infection?
Tetracycline, Bismuth, Metronidazole, and Proton pump inhibitor twice daily
352
What is the most common cause of infectious esophagitis?
Candida albicans
353
Any female not seeking pregnancy and having a hepatic adenoma less than \_\_\_cm in diameter can discontinue OCPs and see if the size of adenoma decreases. If the size of the hepatic adenoma is greater than this, what is the best next step?
Any female not seeking pregnancy and having a hepatic adenoma less than 5cm in diameter can discontinue OCPs and see if the size of adenoma decreases. If the size of the hepatic adenoma is greater than 5cm in diameter, resection should be performed.
354
What is the most common side effects of efavirenz?
Dysphoria, abnormal dreams, teratogenicity
355
If esophageal cancer is diagnosed, what is the next step?
CT of the chest and abdomen to rule out metastasis
356
What are the Iron studies like in a patient with hemochromatosis?
Increased iron, increased ferritin, decreased TIBC
357
Which vitamin is administered before initiating treatment in patients at risk of developing refeeding syndrome?
Thiamine
358
In Nissen fundoplication, what part of the stomach is used to wrap around the lower esophageal sphincter to increase its tone?
The fundal portion of the stomach
359
What hepatitis A marker indicates chronic infection?
None. Hepatitis A only has an acute form, no chronic infection seen in hepatitis A
360
How does autoimmune pancreatitis resemble pancreatic cancer?
Both may feature jaundice and CT scan that shows a mass in the pancreas
361
What antibody can be associated in individuals who have Crohn's Disease?
Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCA)
362
What are the 3 main pancreatitis complications for which a CT scan is ordered?
Necrosis, Pseudocyst, or Abscess formation
363
Approximately what percentage of patients with cholangiocarcinoma have gallstones?
65-90%
364
What antibody (and subytpe) is often associated with autoimmune pancreatitis?
IgG4 subytpe
365
What PMN and WBC value in ascitic fluid indicates an SBP infection?
PMN greater than 250/uL and WBC greater than 500/uL
366
Patient has isolated elevated alkaline phosphatase level. What blood test will help distinguish bone from liver pathology?
GGT (Elevated with liver pathology and normal with bone pathology)
367
How do gastric and duodenal ulcers differ based on their most common cause?
Gastric ulcers are generally caused by excessive NSAID use. Duodenal ulcers are generally caused by Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)
368
Which virus--hepatitis B or hepatitis C--has a greater chance of chonicity?
Hepatitis C
369
What conditions is microscopic colitis associated with?
Autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes mellitus and hypothyroidism
370
Which is NOT a likely complication of fulminant hepatic failure: Hyperglycemia, Infection, Cerebral edema or Coagulopathy?
Hyperglycemia
371
Long term use of NSAIDS ________ (increases, decreases, has no effect) on the risk of developing colon cancer.
Decreases
372
Flask shaped ulcers are seen on a colonoscopy in a patient with chronic diarrhea who traveled to a 3rd world country. What is the likely diagnosis?
Amebic colitis
373
With what condition are anti-smooth muscle antibodies often associated?
Autoimmune hepatitis
374
What are the three main symptoms of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)?
Jaundice, Fatigue, and Pruritis
375
What marker is associated with pancreatic cancer?
Cancer antigen (CA) 19-9
376
Why is the folate level increased in patients with bacterial overgrowth syndrome?
Bacterial production of folate
377
What is the most severe complication associated with Ulcerative Colitis?
Toxic Megacolon
378
Which is LEAST likely associated with hepatitis C: Cryoglobulinemia, MPGN, Porphyria cutanea tarda, or Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)?
FSGS (Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis)
379
What condition occurs when submucosal arterioles intermittently protrude into the mucosa to cause UGI bleed?
Dieulafoy lesion
380
What disease are patients with Barrett's esophagus at an increased risk of developing?
Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus
381
Female patient in 3rd trimester develops fulminant hepatitis. Which hepatitis infection is the likely cause?
Hepatitis E
382
What would you expect the vitamin B12 and folate levels to be in patients with bacterial overgrowth?
Low B12 and high folate
383
What is the best next step for any patient with a history of ulcerative colitis having dysplasia on a colonoscopy?
Total proctocolectomy
384
What are folate and vitamin B12levels in bacterial overgrowth syndrome?
Eleveated Folate and decreased Vitamin B12 levels
385
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the formation of outpouchings in the lining of the bowel and can cause rectal bleeding
Diverticulosis
386
What are the autoantibodies found in patient with autoimmune hepatitis?
A number of specific antibodies found in the blood (antinuclear antibody (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (SMA), liver/kidney microsomal antibody (LKM-1, LKM-2, LKM-3), anti soluble liver antigen (SLA/LP) and anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA))
387
What are the 4 main categories of chronic diarrhea?
Secretory, Osmotic, Exudative, Increased motility
388
What condition is associated with positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies?
Primary biliary cirrhosis
389
What is the name of the sign in which RLQ pain is elicited with LLQ palpation in a patient suspected of having appendicitis?
Rovsing sign
390
Blood transfusions before what year are a risk factor for developing hepaitis C?
1992
391
What classification is used to classify hepatic encephalopathy?
West Haven Criteria
392
Which hepatitis infection is the only type that is a DNA virus?
Hepatitis B
393
What are the colonic stimulants that may be used against opioid-induced constipation when all other options fail?
Bisacodyl and Senna
394
Which is the most common electrolyte abnormality in refeeding syndrome?
Hypophosphatemia
395
What does a RIBA (+) test indicate?
The patient had the infection but it spontaneously resolved
396
Of the following, which is a motility problem of dysphagia: Diffuse esophageal spasm, Strictures, Eosinophilic esophagitis, or Schatski rings?
DES (Diffuse esophageal spasm). All others are mechanical problems.
397
What hepatitis infection can cause fulminant hepatitis in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?
Hepatitis E infection
398
What is the best test to diagnose diverticulitis?
CT scan with IV contrast
399
What are 3 main symptoms that patients with bacterial overgrowth syndrome can develop?
Diarrhea, Bloating and Malabsorption
400
Which is LEAST likely to show elevated hepatic copper levels: PSC, PBC, autoimmune hepatitis, or Wilson's Disease?
Autoimmune hepatitis. All other conditions can have elevated hepatic copper levels.
401
A 2004 meta-analysis found that which form of nutrition (enteral or parenteral) is preferable due to a lower mortality rate, including fewer infectious complications?
Enteral feeding
402
Which among the two conditions, superinfection & coinfection of Hepatitis D & Hepatitis B virus, can lead to fulminant liver failure?
Superinfection
403
When should a screening colonoscopy be repeated in a patient with a hyperplastic polyp?
10 years
404
What is the rash that is commonly associated with celiac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis
405
What are the two most common extrahepatic manifestations of hepatitis B?
Polyarteritis nodosa and Membranous nephropathy
406
Which clinical feature is the LEAST common in patients with autoimmune hepatitis: Fatigue, Nausea/vomiting, Jaundice or Pruritis?
Nausea and vomiting is the least likely clinical feature among these choices
407
Barrett's esophagus often occurs in the setting of what chronic condition?
GERD
408
What are some atypical presentations of patients experiencing GERD?
Nocturnal non-productive cough, Hoarseness of voice, Sour taste, or Urge to constantly clear the throat
409
What are the 3 antibody tests specific for autoimmune hepatitis?
A number of specific antibodies found in the blood (antinuclear antibody (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (SMA), liver/kidney microsomal antibody (LKM-1, LKM-2, LKM-3), anti soluble liver antigen (SLA/LP) and anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA))
410
What is the gallbladder wall measurement that defines gallbladder wall edema?
A thickened gallbladder wall measures more than 3 mm, typically has a layered appearance at sonography [1], and at CT frequently contains a hypodense layer of subserosal oedema that mimics pericholecystic fluid [2]
411
What is the best test to rule out pancreatic necrosis?
CT
412
What is the next step in the evaluation of a patient whose pill-induced esophagitis persists despite discontinuation of the medication?
Upper endoscopy to rule out esophageal stricture
413
What are the three main sub-types of IBS?
IBS with constipation (IBS-C), IBS with diarrhea (IBS-D), and IBS with mixed constipation and diarrhea (IBS-M)
414
What is the classic presentation of eosinophilic esophagitis?
Patient with recurrent bouts of dysphagia and food impaction
415
Who is more likely to have microscopic colitis: young female, young male, elderly female, or elderly male?
Elderly females
416
What are the antiretrovirals which can cause pancreatitis?
NRTIs (Didanosine, stavudine, zalcitabine); Ritonavir
417
What test is used to confirm delayed gastric emptying?
Gastric scintigraphy
418
What is the oral antihypertensive of choice in patients presenting with hypertension & diabetes?
ACE inhibitors or ARBs
419
What is the recommendation for initial colonoscopy after inflammatory bowel disease diagnosis and follow up colonoscopies?
8 years after diagnosis and then every 1-2 years
420
HbsAg (+), Hbc Ab IgM (+), HbeAg (+). How can this be interpreted?
Acute hepatitis B infection in replicative state
421
What cholestatic condition is often seen in patients with inflammatory bowel disease?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
422
Which medication class can lead to peptic ulcers independently: Steroids or NSAIDs?
NSAIDs can induce ulcers by themselves but steroids alone are not ulcerogenic. The combination of NSAIDs and steroids are ulcerogenic and can increase the bleeding risk of ulcers significantly.
423
What test must any patient with GERD experiencing alarm features undergo?
EGD with biopsy to rule out adenocarcinoma of the esophagus
424
What advice can be given to campers to prevent the development of Giardiasis?
Either boil, purify, or filter water, rather than drinking it directly from the stream
425
Ranson's Criteria or APACHE score is used for what condition?
Pancreatitis
426
What is the best prognostic indicator in chronic hepatitis C?
Features on liver histology
