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CQ 2022 > Knowledge Validation > Flashcards

Knowledge Validation Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the Emergency/Parking Brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

To check the brake wear indicators.

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the brake wear indicators?

A

No
Hydraulic 1 and 2 must be pressurized

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3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walk around?

A

Activation of system 1 and 2 hydraulic pumps.

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4
Q

On the external inspection, you notice that the air data smart probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

Turn the ADSP Heater Switch to ON to remove frozen contaminants.

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5
Q

When parked aircraft have been exposed to freezing conditions, moisture can freeze inside the ADSPs and create undesired indications on the ground.

When airspeed indication is present on the PFD’s what messages may be displayed?

A

AFCS FAULT

AT FAIL

AP FAIL

FD FAIL

YD FAIL

APPR 2 NOT AVAIL

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6
Q

When is the ADSP Heater button pushed out?

A

After engine start, after Hydraulic Sys 1 pump is turned off.

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7
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADSPs during preflight.

A

OAT is at or below freezing and water, ice, or snow is present or suspected

On the first flight with temperatures below -18C

Smart Probes frozen

Eroneous airspeed indications present on the PFD with the following EICAS messages:

AFCS FAULT

AT FAIL - AP FAIL - FD FAIL - YD FAIL - APPR 2 NOT AVAIL

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8
Q

Describe preflight of Nose Landing Gear

A

Wheels and Tires - Check condition: flat spots, chord showing, pressure etc.

Check Clear of Ice ***

Uplock Hook - UNLOCKED

Downlock Springs - Check Condition

Strut / Wheel Well / Doors - Condition, No Leaks

Ground Locking Pin - Removed

Landing and Taxi Lights - Condition, Clean and Undamaged

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9
Q

Items with *** indicate what?

A

Items with *** must be accomplished when icing conditions exist or suspected

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10
Q

Describe the preflight of the RAT

A

Rat Safety Lock Pin - Removed

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11
Q

What is the proper preflight of the Engine Inlet

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet.

Ensure there is no damage to T12 sensor and FADEC cooling inlet is clear.

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12
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades?

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate

Check for damage on spinner

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13
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect?

A

3 on each wing

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14
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection

A

Wheels and tires - Condition

Up Lock Hook - unlocked

Down Lock Springs - Condition

Strut / Wheel Wells - Condition and no leaks

Grond Locking Pin - Removed

Break Wear Indicators - Check

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15
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges?

Where is it located?

A

CDL

(Configuration Deviation List)

Located in AFM

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16
Q

What atmospheric conditions require a cold weather preflight inspection?

A

OAT is 5 degrees or less

Wing fuel temperature 0 degrees C or less

conditions conducive to icing exist

RON and may have frozen contaminants

Residual ice from previous flight

Cold soaked aircraft

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17
Q

What checklist is required prior to completing the deice/anti ice process

A

The Before Start Checklist

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18
Q

What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off

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19
Q

Where are the Deice / Anti-Ice communications elements found?

A

They are required

Found in Communication Elements Table

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20
Q

List the required communications elements

A

Type of fluid used

Percentage of fluid

Time of beginning of final step

Deicing complete

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21
Q

When does the final Hold Over Time begin?

A

When the final fluid application commences.

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22
Q

What does the HOT represent?

A

A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for varying precipation intensities

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23
Q

In the HOT table, what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier vs. Lighter precipitation

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24
Q

What should the crew use to determine a HOT

A

Official weather observations

Tables from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensities listed in the official observation

GDPM Precipitation intensities and types

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25
Q

When is a pre-takeoff contamination check required

A

After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions.

Operating in Heavy Snow to ensure wings, control surfacess and critical surfaces are free of contaminants.

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26
Q

Can the pre takeoff contamination check be performed if the deice process was initiated at a location other than the wings?

A

NO

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27
Q

Engine failure procedure says hold STD

What do you do at fix?

A

Hold on inbound course

Standard Turns

Right Turns

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28
Q

What is the landing performance heirarcy

A

RW RCC values when reported

Contaminant type and BA

Most restrictive RCC is used for landing assessment

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29
Q

Are RCCs bidirectional

A

YES

They are evaluated to include displaced thresholds and are measured equally in either direction

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30
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Takeoff and Landing Perforformance Assessment

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31
Q

What is the RCAM

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix

It is the tool used to access and report surface conditions

Maps FICON (field condition) contamination type and depth to a RCC

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32
Q

RCCs are used for?

A

For landing distance calculations

Used for departures to identify the runway third with most limiting contaminant

Used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway friction

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33
Q

RCC of 0 represents what?

A

NIL

Runway immediately closed

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34
Q

Limitations of RCC of 1 and 2

A

An Alternate must be listed

Not required with multiple runways with one runway reporting 3 or higher for every 3rd.

Dispatch requires expected runway to have reported an RCC of 3 or higher

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35
Q

How long are RCC Notams for?

A

RSC Notams are valid for 8 hours

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36
Q

What percentage of the runway surface needs to be covered to be considered contaminated?

A

Greater than 25%

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37
Q

What are RCCs used for?

A

For determining landing performance.

Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant.

Used to determine operating crosswind limitations

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38
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment

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39
Q

What is RCAM

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix

Used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via FICON

Maps contamination type and depth to a RCC

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40
Q

What does RCC represent?

A

The braking action expected for a particular contaminant level

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41
Q

When powering up the aircraft, what is the minimum voltage?

A

22.5 volts

21V -22V consult SOP Safety and Power up table.

Recharge batteries prior to takeoff per the table.

Based on battery temp

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42
Q

Battery voltage is less than 21Volts

A

Report as an irregularity

Do Not Depart

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43
Q

Max Start ITT

A

815 deg C

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44
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

For LR

For LL

A

85,517 lbs ERJ LR

85,098 lbs for ERJ LL

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45
Q

Max Ramp Weight

LR

LL

A

85,870 lbs ERJ LR

85,470 lbs ERJ LL

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46
Q

Max landing weight

A

74,957 lbs

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47
Q

Max Runway Width

A

100 ft.

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48
Q

Min Taxi Width

A

50 ft

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49
Q

Wing Span

A

93 ft 11 in

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50
Q

Aircraft Length

A

103 ft 11 in

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51
Q

Tail Height

A

32 ft 4 in

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52
Q

Turn Radius wheel main to wing tip

Nose Tip

Tail

Nose Wheel

Minimum Turn Width

A

Wing Tip - 58 ft

Nose 52 ft

Tail 57 ft

Nose Wheel 38 ft

Min Turn Width 59 ft 2 in

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53
Q

Max Temp Takeoff and Land

A

ISA + 35 deg C

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54
Q

Min Temp for Takeoff

A

-40 deg C

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55
Q

Max Single Pack Operations

A

31,000 ft

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56
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?

A

After Fire Test and verifying no Fire Fail messages

30 seconds

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57
Q

Can takeoff and landing occur with a Fuel Imbalance Caution message?

A

Yes, as long as it is below 794 lbs.

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58
Q

Minimum Fuel Tank Temperature

A

-37 degrees C

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59
Q

Starter cranking limits attempts 1 and 2?

A

90 seconds

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60
Q

Minimum time between starts 1 and 2

A

10 seconds

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61
Q

How do starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

Max cumulative starter run time is 120 seconds per attempt

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62
Q

During engine start, N1 rotation must be verified by what N2?

A

Positive N1 rotation by 50% N2

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63
Q

Max brake temperature for takeoff

A

Green

64
Q

Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind greater than 25 kts?

A

No, due to comprressor stall possibility

65
Q

After Takeoff, when can the autopilot be engaged?

A

400 ft

66
Q

Turbulent penetration speed?

A

270 KIAS

.76 Mach

Whichever is slower

67
Q

Minimum OAT for APU start and operation?

A

-54 deg C

68
Q

Maximum APU operational altitude?

A

33,000 ft.

69
Q

Maximum crosswind for dry runway?

A

38 kts

70
Q

Maximum crosswind for wet runway?

A

31 kts

71
Q

Maximum gear retraction/extension/operation speed?

A

250 kts

72
Q

Flap setting for CAT II

A

Flap 5 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds

73
Q

Max wiper speed?

A

250 kts

74
Q

Can we use RNAV LP mimimums?

A

NO

75
Q

What is V2

A

Engine Failure Climb Speed

76
Q

Minimum Runway Width?

A

100 ft

77
Q

V tire

A

195 kts

78
Q

Vmo

A

.82 Mach

79
Q

Va

A

240 kts

80
Q

Vle Vlo Vret

A

250 kts

81
Q

Vmin to provide electrical power

A

130 kts

82
Q

Vb above 10,000 ft

A

270 kts / .76 mach

83
Q

V window

A

160 kts

84
Q

Vfe 1

A

230 kts

85
Q

Vfe 2

A

215 kts

86
Q

Vfe 3

A

200 kts

87
Q

Vfe 4/5

A

180 kts

88
Q

Vfull

A

165 kts

89
Q

Max altitude flaps / slats extended

A

20,000 ft

90
Q

Starter Cranking Limts

A

Starts 1 and 2

90 seconds on 10 seconds off

Starts 3 - 5

90 seconds on 5 minutes off

91
Q

Dry motoring cycle limits

A

First attempt

90 seconds on 5 minutes off

2 through 5

30 seconds on 5 minutes off

92
Q

Max Fuel Capacity

A

20,935 lbs

93
Q

Max Fuel Imbalance

A

794 lbs

94
Q

Min Fuel Tank Temp

A

-37 deg C

95
Q

APU Limitations

Minimum temperature

Max temperature

Max Altitude

A

-54 deg C

ISA +35 deg C

30,000 ft

96
Q

If IDG fails in flight and the QRH directs to start APU, what considerations must be made?

A

Max altitude for APU start

30,000 ft

Min temperature for APU start

-54 deg C

97
Q

Once the APU is started, what altitude can one climb to?

A

33,000 ft

98
Q

Max crosswind for dry runway?

A

38 kts

99
Q

Max crosswind for wet runway?

A

31 kts

100
Q

Max wiper speed?

A

250 kts

101
Q

Can we use RNAV LP minima?

A

NO

102
Q

Max cumulative start time in flight?

A

120 seconds

103
Q

During engine start, must see N1 rotation by …. ?

A

50%N2

104
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff

A

Must be in the green

105
Q

What altitude can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?

A

400 ft

106
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed?

A

270 kts / .76 mach

107
Q

Flaps setting for CATII approch

A

Flaps 5

108
Q

Deviations called out by the PM are “recommended”?

A

Mandatory

109
Q

“Glide Path” is a callout required when?

A

> One dot deviation on glide slope

110
Q

On approach what bank angle would be a deviation requiring a call out?

A

> 25 degrees

“Bank Angle”

111
Q

Stabilized Approach Criteria?

A

1500 ft or FAF, whichever occurs first:

Gear down, Flaps 3, 180 kts.

1000 ft: On lateral and vertical profile

Airspeed + 15 kts - 5 kts Vap

Sink Rate no more than 1000 fpm

Fully Configured

500 ft. in the bug and thrust above idle.

112
Q

Battery 1 Overtemp

A

Associated Battery - OFF

Verify QRC

Followed by QRH

113
Q

Max ITT on engine start?

Memory Item for Hot Start

A

815 deg C

Affected Engine Start / Stop Selector: STOP

QRC

QRH (Non Annunciated 1-6)

114
Q

Shortly after takeoff cockpit fills with smoke… What is the memory item?

A

Crew O2: Don / Emergency

Crew Communications: Establish

Pressurization Dump: Push In

115
Q

List the 5 CRM issues that are included in nearly every ASAP report

A

Unable to manage distractions

Inability to recognize task saturation and level

Non-specific WANT briefings that exclude key arrival procedure elements and go-around/missed approach planning

Briefing excludes key components preventing crew from having a shared mental model - especially during visual approaches.

Not holding other crewmembers accountable to the SOPM

116
Q

The FOM lists 4 tools to mitigate distraction.

A

Recognize a state of becoming distracted, verbalize the concern and request help to reduce task saturation and increase awareness.

Use task prioritazation to determine what can be delayed for a later time during lower workload period.

Use good planning during low workload periods to coordinate efficient efforts during high workload periods

First officers maintain a state of readiness to assume delegated responsibilities, as directed by the Captain.

117
Q

Name the common cues of task saturation observed through ASAP, LOSA, and FOQA.

A

Missed checklist items or entire checklists

Missed callouts

Missed configuration changes

Missed ATC read-backs

Abbreviated or omitted WANT briefings

Little or no communication

Lack of FMA correlation to intended mode

118
Q

Min Temperature for APU start and operation

A

-54 deg C

119
Q

When does the PM call out “Sink Rate”

A

When greater than 1000 fpm decent on approach

120
Q

When does the PM call out the deviation “Speed”?

A

Target - 5 kts or any speed less than REF

121
Q

When does the PM call “BANK”

A

On approach when bank angle is greater than 25 deg

122
Q

Max speed above Vref at 1000 ft AFE

A

+15 kts

123
Q

What speed is mandatory at 500 ft AFE

A

Speed in the bug and thrust above idle

124
Q

What is min fuel

A

Fuel status has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, the PIC cannot accept any undue delay

125
Q

When would you declare Emergency Fuel

A

While in flight, when it is determined that the remaining fuel supply results in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel

126
Q

What can cause the FMS landing fuel to be inaccurate?

A

Arrivals with long downwind legs

Wrong runway loaded into FMS

Flying too fast or below filed altitude

Winds aloft don’t match forecast

EFC in hold page is wrong

STAR inaccurate for runway in use

127
Q

Memory Items

A

Smoke Evacuation

Smoke Fire Fumes

Cabin Altitude High

Jammed Control Column Pitch

Jammec Control Wheel Roll

Pitch Trim Runaway

Roll or Yaw Trim Runaway

Steering Runaway

BATT 1 or 2 Overtemp

128
Q

Smoke Evacuation

A

Oxygen Masks: DON / 100%

Crew Communications: Establish

Pressurization Dump: Push In

129
Q

Smoke Fire Fumes Memory Items

A

Oxygen Masks: Don, 100%

Crew Communications Establish

130
Q

Cabin Altitude High Memory Items

A

Oxygen Masks: Don 100%

Crew Communication Establish

131
Q

Jammed Control Column

A

Elevator Disconnect Handle: Pull

132
Q

Jammed Control Wheel - Roll

A

Aileron Disconnect Handle: Pull

133
Q

Pitch Trim Runaway

A

AP / Trim Disc Button: Press and Hold

Pitch Trim Sys 1 and 2 Cutout Buttons: Push In

134
Q

Roll or Yaw Trim Runaway

A

AP / Trim Disconnect Button: Press and Hold

135
Q

Steering Runaway

A

Steer Disconnect Switch: Press

Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder

136
Q

BATT 1 or 2 Overtemp

A

Associated Battery: OFF

137
Q

Engine Abnormal Start

A

Affected Engine Start Stop Selector: Stop

Check QRC

QRH: NAP Engine Abnormal Start

NAP Page 1-6

138
Q

You’re flying at cruise when the AP kicks off and the aircraft pitches up

Pitch Trim Runaway

A

AP Disconnect switch: Press and Hold

Pitch Trim System 1 and 2 cutout buttons: Press

139
Q

You’re flying at cruise when the AP disconnects and the airplane starts yawing and banking to the right. The Yaw Trim on the EICAS is deflecting to the right.

A

AP Disconnect Button: Press and Hold

QRC - QRH NAP 1-16

140
Q

What four principle CRM skills is SkyWest choosing to focus on

A

Communication

Workload Management

Situational Awarness

Saturation Management

141
Q

Lis the 5 CRM issues included in nearly every ASAP report

A

Unable to manage distractions

Inability to recognize task satuation and level

Non-specific WANT briefings that exclude key elements and go around/missed approach planning

Briefing excludes key components preventing crew from having a shared mental model - Especially during visual approach procedures, when to configure etc.

Not holding crewmembers accountable to the SOPM

142
Q

4 tools to mitigate distraction

A

Recognize a state of becoming distracted, verbalize the concern and request help to reduce task satuation and increase awareness

Use task prioritization to determine what can be delayed for a later time during lower workloads

Use good planning during low workload periods to coordinate efficient efforts during high workload periods

First officers maintain a state of readiness to assume delegated responsibilities, as directed by the captain.

143
Q

Does the FOM require briefings to include anticipated distractions along with a plan of how to manage this threat?

A

YES, the captain is responsible to brief anticipated distractions.

144
Q

What is tunneling and how does it contribute to a loss of situational awareness

A

Under stress a pilot may focus on a single flight deck indicator and not notice other indications also relevant to the situation.

145
Q

What CRM skill is severely diminished during tunneling

A

Situational awareness. Vigilance and problem identification lapses and ability to detect and manage threats is reduced.

146
Q

What common errors do pilots make during high workload situations in regard to personal ability?

A

Overestimate peraonal ability to manage the workload and level of satuation. They may not even recognize the level of saturation.

147
Q

Name the common cues of task saturation observed through ASAP, LOSA and FOQA

A

Missed checklist items or entire checklists

Missed callouts

Missed configuration changes

Missed ATC readbacks

Abbreviated or ommitted WANT briefings

Little or no communication

Lack of FMA correlation to intended mode

148
Q

How mahy CRM issues that are included in nearly every ASAP report are a potential result of task satuarion?

A

4 out of 5

149
Q

What Action should be employed when a pilot realizes they are in the yellow?

A

Verbalize the condition.

Follow the TEAM.

Choose an appropriate level of automation, access the criticality of the threat, communicate a plan of action to return to a greel level of saturation.

150
Q

What key component must be included in visual approachy execution when the 10-7 contains EGPWS warning information?

A

Pilots follow the track and descent profile of an instrument approach procedure when conducting a visual approach at night.

151
Q

If ACARS is inop, can a weight and balance be calculated?

Can it be used for departure?

A

YES, by using the Flt View Manifiest applet.

It can be used for departure.

152
Q

Where can instructions for completing a manifest using the applet be found?

A

Flight View User Guide under the EFB iPad tile

153
Q

When a mechanical irregularity is discovered after block out but prior to takeoff, the flight is autorized to continue under what conditions?

A

If there is an approved QRH procedure for the situation, not an inflight procedure.

Depart and enter discrepancy at destination.

Maintenance directed reset procedure or deferral.

PIC reports this immediately to MX and MX deteremins the action.

154
Q
A
155
Q
A

CQ 2022 (6 decks)

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