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A220 > Knowledge Test > Flashcards

Knowledge Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MTOW for fins 101-124?

A

67,585 KG

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2
Q

What is the MTOW for fins 125-133?

A

69,853 KG

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3
Q

What is the MLW?

A

57,833 KG

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4
Q

What is VFE for Flap 1?

A

230 KIAS

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5
Q

What is VFE for flap 2?

A

210 KIAS

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6
Q

What is the VFE for flap 3?

A

210 KIAS

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7
Q

What is VFE for flap 4?

A

190 KIAS

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8
Q

What is VFE for flap 5?

A

170 KIAS

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9
Q

What is VLO? Extension and Retraction speeds?

A

Extension: 250 KIAS
Retraction: 220 KIAS

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10
Q

What is VLE (extended speed)?

A

250 KIAS

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11
Q

What is VRA, Turbulence penetration speed 10,000’ and below?

A

265 KIAS

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12
Q

What is VRA Turbulence penetration speed above10,000’?

A

280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach, which ever works S lower

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13
Q

What is max windshield wiper operation speed?

A

250 KIAS

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14
Q

What is tire limit speed?

A

195 KTS Ground Speed

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15
Q

What is the maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

10,000’

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16
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

41,000’

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17
Q

What is the maximum temperature approved for takeoff and landing?

A

52.5 C

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18
Q

What is the minimum temperature approved for takeoff and landing?

A

-54 C

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19
Q

At what temperature must Cowl anti-ice be selected ON in the ground with visible moisture present?

A

OAT 10 C or below

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20
Q

At what temperature must the wing anti-ice system be selected ON when visible moisture is present?

A

OAT 5 C or below

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21
Q

At what temperature is Wing anti-ice prohibited in flight?

A

When TAT is above 15 C

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22
Q

Wing anti-ice must be selected OFF above what altitude?

A

35,000’

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23
Q

True or False:

Both the Wing anti-ice and Cowl anti-ice must be selected ON during flight in super cooled water droplets?

A

TRUE but flight in SLD is prohibited

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24
Q

When is engine ice shedding required?

A

When OAT is 3 C or below and visible moisture in any form is present.

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25
Q

How do we perform an engine run-up for ice shedding?

A

Momentarily move thrust to a minimum of 60% N1 and at intervals of not more than 30 min.

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26
Q

What speeds must be corrected when landing Flap 5 in icing conditions?

A

Vref, Vac and Vga

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27
Q

What is the maximum runway Slopes for takeoff and landing?

A

+-2%

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28
Q

What is the maximum pressure differential?

A

8.8 PSID

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29
Q

What is the maximum negative differential pressure?

A

-0.5 PSID

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30
Q

During initial landing (at touchdown) the pressure differential must not exceed……..?

A

1.0 PSID

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31
Q

What is the maximum time doors should be closed with passengers on board and the packs OFF with no ground ventilation?

A

15 minutes

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32
Q

What is the maximum time you can operate without ECS or external cooling when the OAT is above 40 C?

A

30 minutes

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33
Q

What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?

A

400 feet AGL

34
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot?

A

80 feet AGL

35
Q

True or false:

Land 2 and Land 3 (Autoland) can be conducted during single engine operations?

36
Q

What is the required visibility for a CAT II approach in Canada?

A

RVR A: 1200
RVR B: 600
Or charted visibility, which ever is higher.

37
Q

What is the required visibility for a CAT II approach in the US?

A

One RVR: 1400

Two RVR’s reported;
RVR A: 1200
RVR B: 600
RVR C: 300

Or charted visibility, which ever is higher.

Either RVR B or C are required. Both are controlling if both are available.

38
Q

What is the required visibility an DH for a CAT III Land 3 (Fail Passive) approach?

A
  • Greater of charted visibility or 600 RVR.

- Published DH or 50 ft. Which ever is higher.

39
Q

What is the required visibility and DH for a CAT III Land 3 (Fail Operational) approach?

A
  • Charted visibility or RVR 150 ft. Which ever is higher.

- Published DH or if DH not published, minimums left blank, and use AH 100 ft.

40
Q

What is the formula for manual TPL calculation?

A

TPL= LDA - OpLD + 1500

41
Q

If unable to obtain an ATC clearance on a WATRS Oceanic Eastbound Track (000-179 degrees M) for a weather deviation greater than 5nm, what would be you altitude change for a turn LEFT or RIGHT?

A

Left turn: Descend 300 ft

Right Turn: Climb 300 ft

42
Q

If unable to obtain an ATC Clearance on a WATRS oceanic Westbound track (180-359 degrees M) for a weather deviation greater than 5nm. What would be the altitude change for a turn LEFT or RIGHT?

A

Left: Climb 300 ft
Right: Descent 300 ft

43
Q

What is the minimum runway width for a CAT III Autoland?

44
Q

What is the maximum airport pressure altitude for Autoland (Land 2 or Land 3)?

45
Q

What is the maximum altitude with flaps/slats extended?

46
Q

What is the minimum height with flight spoilers manually extended?

47
Q

What is the minimum speed with flight spoilers manually extended?

48
Q

What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the contents of the left and right fuel tanks?

49
Q

What is the maximum total fuel load?

50
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go-around?

A

442 KG per wing

(With the airplane level) and at a maximum airplane climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up.

51
Q

Take-off with bulk fuel temperature indications below ______ is prohibited.

52
Q

What is the maximum bulk fuel temperature for starting and operating?

53
Q

What is the maximum allowable brake temperature for take-off?

54
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature (BTMS) for gear retraction?

A

BTMS value 13 Units

55
Q

For CPDLC.. Is the use of WX DEV TO POS from the ROUTE REQUEST page permitted?

A

No, it is prohibited

56
Q

For CPDLC… is the use of DIVERT TO from the EMERGENCY MESSAGE page in the SETTINGS menu permitted?

A

No, it is prohibited.

57
Q

What are the required equipment for flight in RVSM airspace?

A
  1. Autopilot
  2. Altitude Alerting System
  3. Altitude Reporting Transponder (1)
  4. Air Data Computers (2)
58
Q

For the TLAF system. What must not be exceeded until within 10 degrees of the runway heading?

A
  • Do not exceed 35 KTS Groundspeed

- Do not exceed 55% N1

59
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for an APU start?

60
Q

How many APU starts / start attempts can you do in 1 hour?

A

Maximum of 3

61
Q

How long of a delay must you observe between APU start attempts?

A

Two-delay must be observed

62
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction?

63
Q

What type of engines is the A220 300 equipped with?

A

Pratt & Whitney PurePower PW1524G-3

64
Q

What is the maximum N1 with a oil temperature below -40 C

A

Engine start is prohibited

65
Q

What is the maximum N1 with an oik temperature above -40 C but below -6 C?

66
Q

What is the maximum N1 when the oil temperature is between -6 C and 21 C?

67
Q

What is the maximum N1 when the oil temperature between 21 C and 49 C?

68
Q

What is the maximum N1 when the oil temperature is above 49 C?

69
Q

Currently, what is the maximum N1 above 29,100 ft?

70
Q

Do not engage starter on the ground if indicated N2 RPM exceeds _____?

A

20% RPM N2

71
Q

How long does the engine have to be near idle before shutdown?

72
Q

What is the definition of “Near Idle” with respect to engine shutdown?

A

Up to 40% N1

73
Q

What is the maximum cross wind / tailwind component for engine start / ice shedding?

A

43 KTS crosswind / 18 KTS tailwind

74
Q

What is the maximum allowable oil consumption?

A

0.38 l/hr (0.4 qt/hr)

75
Q

The actioning of what controls require verbal confirmation?

A
  1. Any red or yellow guarded switch
  2. GEN DISC switches
  3. ENG run switches
  4. Thrust levers when actioning a checklist
76
Q

What order should checklists be completed in a non-Normal situation?

A
  1. Warning messages (Red)
  2. Normal checklists (White)
  3. Caution messages (Amber) or non-normal procedures (PROC tile in ECL)
77
Q

What is the wingspan of the A220-300?

78
Q

What is the height from the ground to the tail of the A220-300?

79
Q

What is the length of the A220-300?

80
Q

What is the clearance from the ground to the engine nacelles?

A220 (1 decks)

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