Know This Flashcards

1
Q

Insurance is the _______

A

transfer of risk of loss. The cost of an insured’s loss is transferred over to the insurer and spread among other insureds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Insurable interest must _______

A

exist at the time of application. The policyowner must have insurable interest in the life of the insured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A buyer’s guide provides _______

A

generic information on various types of policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A policy summary provides _______

A

specific information on the policy being issued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Conditional receipt means _______

A

the applicant may be covered as early as the date of the application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Representations are _______

A

statements believed to be true. Insured’s statements on the application are representations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A life insurance producer is _______

A

the company’s field underwriter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An insurance application is the key source underwriters _______

A

use for information about the applicant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Insurers cannot refuse coverage solely on the basis of _______

A

adverse information on an MIB report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The higher the risk, _______

A

the higher the premium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

No premium, _______

A

No coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Term insurance provides the _______

A

greatest amount of coverage for the lowest premium. Term insurance has no cash value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

“Level” in level term insurance refers to _______

A

the death benefit, which does NOT change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Whole life insurance provides _______

A

lifetime (permanent) protection and accumulates cash value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If an insured skips a premium payment on a universal life policy, _______

A

the missing premium may be deducted from the policy’s cash value. The policy will NOT lapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In variable contracts, the policyowner _______

A

bears the investment risk (assets in a separate account).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Premium rates on a joint life policy are determined by _______

A

averaging the ages of both insureds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Joint life = _______; survivorship life = _______

A

Joint life = first to die; survivorship life = second to die (last survivor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Group insurance is written as _______

A

annually renewable term insurance. In group insurance, the master contract is for the employer, and certificates of insurance are for individual insureds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Because annuities are based on _______

A

the life expectancy of an annuitant, the annuitant must be a natural person, regardless of who owns the annuity contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During the accumulation period, _______

A

funds are paid INTO the annuity. During the annuity period, funds are paid OUT to the annuitant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Shorter life expectancy = _______; longer life expectancy = _______

A

Shorter life expectancy = higher benefit; longer life expectancy = lower benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Classification of annuities:

A
  • Premium payment method: single premium vs. periodic
  • When income payments begin: immediate vs. deferred
  • How premiums are invested: fixed vs. variable
  • Disposing of proceeds: pure life, annuity certain, or life refund annuity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An immediate annuity is purchased with _______

A

a single premium. Income payments from a deferred annuity begin sometime after 1 year from the date of purchase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The main use of annuities is to _______
provide retirement income.
26
Entire contract = _______
policy + copy of application + any riders or amendments
27
Absolute assignment is _______
the complete and permanent transfer of ownership rights; collateral assignment is the partial and temporary transfer of rights.
28
Common disaster clause protects _______
the contingent beneficiary.
29
Misstatement of age on the application will _______
result in adjustment of premiums or benefits.
30
Policy loans are ONLY available in _______
policies that have cash value (whole life).
31
Life policy provisions:
1. Entire Contract 2. Payment of Premium 3. Reinstatement 4. Incontestability 5. Misstatement of Age 6. Ownership 7. Assignment 8. Free Look 9. Exclusions
32
Payment of Premium provision
Paid in advance: when, how often, and to whom
33
Reinstatement provision
3 years to reinstate a lapsed policy with proof of insurability
34
Incontestability provision
2 years for the company to contest misstatements of the application
35
Misstatement of Age provision
Death benefit is adjusted to the amount according to the right age at policy issue
36
Ownership provision
Policyowner has ownership rights
37
Assignment provision
Absolute (all rights) or collateral (partial rights)
38
Free Look provison
Usually 10 days to return the policy for a full refund of premium
39
Exclusions provision
Aviation, hazardous occupation/hobbies, and war or military service; suicide excluded for a specific period of time
40
Waiver of premium rider waives _______
the premium for a total disability after a waiting period.
41
Accelerated benefit = _______
early payment of part of death benefit to the insured from the insurer for qualifying medical expenses.
42
Types of riders and their available riders:
1. Disability Riders: - Waiver of Premium - Waiver of Cost of Insurance - Payor Benefit - Accelerated Death Benefit 2. Riders Affecting Death Benefit: - Accelerated Death Benefit - Accidental Death or AD&D - Guaranteed Insurability
43
Nonforfeiture options are triggered by _______
policy surrender or lapse.
44
Extended term is the _______
automatic nonforfeiture option: same face amount, shorter term of coverage.
45
Dividends are a _______
return of excess premiums; therefore, not taxable when paid to the policyowner.
46
Settlement options are triggered by _______
the insured’s death or age 100.
47
Under life-income (straight life) settlement option, _______
the recipient cannot outlive the benefit payments.
48
Option types and their available options:
1. Nonforfeiture Options - Reduced Paid-up - Extended Term (automatic) - Cash surrender value 2. Dividend Options - Cash payment - Reduction of Premium - Accumulation at Interest - Paid-up Additions (automatic) - Paid-up Insurance - One-year Term 3. Settlement Options - Cash payment (automatic) - Life Income - Interest Only - Fixed Period - Fixed Amount
49
Waiver of Cost of Insurance
in Universal Life policies: waives the cost of insurance in the event of the insured's disability
50
Disability income
waives the premium and pays monthly income. Amount paid is based on a percentage of the face amount.
51
Insuring clause:
1. Parties to the contract 2. Premium to be paid 3. Length of coverage 4. Amount of death benefit
52
Grace period
The period of time after the premium due date that the policyowner has to pay the premium before the policy lapses
53
Incontestability does NOT apply to _______
nonpayment of premiums or misstatements of age, gender or identity
54
If the insurer finds a misstatement of age later on after the insured passed away, the beneficiary _______
gets a lower death benefit payout
55
The purpose of reinstatement is to _______
restore a lapsed policy
56
The advantage of reinstatement is to _______
retain all the values established at issue age
57
Requirements for reinstatement:
1. Apply within the maximum time limit 2. Pay all back premiums plus interest 3. Provide proof of insurability 4. Repay outstanding loans plus interest
58
Automatic premium loans (APL)
1. Prevents unintentional lapse 2. Automatically taken from cash value at the end of the grace period 3. Will be deducted from death benefit if not repaid 4. Insurer honors immediately
59
Partial surrender or withdrawal
1. Only on universal life policies 2. May be a charge 3. Limits on withdrawal amount 4. Interest may be taxable
60
Payor benefit
Similar to waiver of premium if the payor (parent or guardian) becomes disabled for atleast 6 months. Used in juvenile policies.
61
Accidentally death rider
1. Pays multiple of the face amount 2. Death must occur within 90 days of an accident 3. Principal sum (face amount) for accidental death 4. Capital sum (% of face amount) for dismemberment
62
Guaranteed Insurability
1. No evidence of insurability 2. Additional premium required 3. Purchase additional coverage at specified future dates or events - marriage - birth of child - specified years (e.g., every 3 or 5 years
63
Cash payment dividend options
1. Available in participating policies 2. Not guaranteed 3. Return of excess premiums: not taxable
64
Settlement options (CLIFF)
1. Cash payment (automatic) 2. Life Income 3. Interest Only 4. Fixed-period installments 5. Fixed-amount installments
65
Nonforfeiture Options (REC)
1. Reduced Paid-up 2. Extended Term (automatic) 3. Cash surrender value
66
Dividend Options (CRAPPO)
1. Cash payment 2. Reduction of Premium 3. Accumulation at interest 4. Paid-up Additions (automatic) 5. Paid-up Insurance 6. One-year term
67
The Department of Insurance does NOT _______
set premium rates or establish fines and penalties (those are defined by law)
68
A domicile refers to _______
the location where an insurer is incorporated, not necessarily where the insurer conducts business.
69
Insurance applicants must be notified in _______
writing whenever insurers request investigative consumer reports.
70
Department of Insurance Regulations:
- 5 years; Examination of authorized insurers - 10 days; Notice of hearing - 30 days; Issue the conclusion of a hearing
71
Licensing and Appointment Requirements:
- 18; Age to apply for license - 24 months; Producer licensing period - 12 months; For producer to reinstate a lapsed license without retaking an examination - 15 days; Insurer must file a notice of producer appointment - 30 days; To notify Commissioner of termination of producer appointment - 10 days; To deliver a suspended, revoked or terminated license to the Commissioner - 10 days; To return a license to the Commissioner if state residency is terminated - 180 days; Temporary license period
72
Miscellaneous Producer Regulations:
- 24 hours; CE required biennially for producers - 3 hours; CE hours required in ethics - 6 hours; CE hours that can be carried over to the next licensing period - 12 months; CE extension may be granted by the Commissioner - 3 years; Maintain business records - 30 days; To report a change of address or legal name to the Commissioner - 25%; Maximum allowed commissions from controlled business in a 12-month period
73
Important Dollar Amounts:
- $500; Fine for noncompliance with CE requirements - $1,000; Maximum fine per violation of the Insurance Code - $100-$1,000; Fine for violation of cease and desist order - $5,000; Fine for continuing to act as a producer after losing license - $500; Fine for acting as a producer without obtaining license - $100; Maximum value of inducement before being considered a rebate
74
Insurers cannot advertise protection by _______
the Insurance Guaranty Association.
75
Credit life insurance cannot pay out more _______
than the balance of the debt.
76
The premium mode is _______
the manner or frequency that the policyowner pays the policy premium.
77
Premiums charged for a _______ are lower during the preliminary period and then increase each year until leveling off after the preliminary period. The premium rates are actually equivalent to a standard whole life policy.
graded premium whole life policy
78
Mutual companies are owned by _______, while stock companies are owned by _______.
policyholders stockholders
79
All insurers (domestic, foreign, or alien) must obtain a _______ before transacting insurance within a given state.
certificate of authority
80
Each insurance producer (except for title producers) must complete at least 24 hours of continuing education _______ (every _______). Three of those hours must be in ethics education.
biennially 2 years
81
The Commissioner is _______ at the same time and _______ as other state officials.
elected election
82
Each _______ is responsible for the conduct of insurance within that state.
state
83
Credit life, accident and sickness insurance must be evidenced by an individual policy or a group certificate delivered to the debtor no later than _______ after the insurance term begins.
30 days
84
A _______ is not required for investigation of claims by an insurer which has relocated in another state as specified in O.5. 606 & 1101.
Certificate of Authority
85
A _______ will pay dividends to the owner based upon actual mortality cost, interest earned and costs.
participating insurance policy
86
_______ may or may not have a minimum death benefit, unlike _______ which guarantees a minimum death benefit.
Variable universal life insurance variable whole life insurance
87
When the reduced option is written as "joint and 2/3 survivor," the surviving beneficiary _______
receives 2/3 of what was received when both beneficiaries were alive.
88
The triple indemnity accidental death rider obligates the company to pay three times the face amount of the policy if the insured dies as a result of an accident. The death must be accidental and not contributed to by any other factors and must occur within 90 days of the accident. In this case, since the insured contributed to his own death, the triple indemnity rider is _______, but the beneficiary will still receive the policy's death benefit.
void
89
Guaranteed insurability is a rider that is _______
included at the time of application (or can be added at a later date) which allows the insured to increase the amount of insurance without proving evidence of insurability.
90
An insurance agent is one who is licensed to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance, and is also identified by the term "_______."
insurance producer
91
The replacing insurer must maintain copies of the notice, statement, and notification to the replaced insurer for at least _______.
3 years
92
When settling claims, _______ can come into play.
negotiation
93
Because the cash value in an _______ has to build up faster since the funds are intended to be used while the insured is alive, the premium for an _______ is considerably more expensive than an ordinary straight life policy.
endowment
94
Upon receiving an inquiry from the Commissioner concerning a claim or problem involving premiums, a producer, adjuster, administrator, representative or insurer must provide the Commissioner with an adequate response within _______.
20 calendar days
95
The maximum rate of interest allowed on policy loans is _______
8% per annum.
96
Convertible term insurance gives the _______
policyowner the right to convert the policy to a permanent insurance policy without evidence of insurability.
97
The duties of the Commissioner include filing a report with the Governor _______.
annually
98
A variable universal life insurance policy _______
combines a flexible premium with an investment component that allows for potentially great returns.
99
If a recipient chooses not to receive notes and documents through electronic mail, the effectiveness, validity or enforceability of the documents _______
will not change.
100
Annual premiums are the only modes of payment that do not result in _______
service fee, so the overall payment will be lower.
101
If the loan and interest are not repaid and the insured dies, then it will be _______
subtracted from the death benefit.
102
If the initial premium is not paid with the application, the agent will be required to collect the premium at the time of _______. In this case, the applicant will most likely need to fill out a _______
policy delivery Statement of Good Health.
103
Though producers and agents are considered to be "field underwriters," the final responsibility for risk selection lies with the company's _______.
underwriters
104
Any unanswered questions need to be answered before the policy is issued. If a policy is issued with questions left unanswered, the contract will be interpreted as if the insurer _______
waived its right to have an answer for the question, and will not be able to deny coverage later because of unanswered questions.
105
The Commissioner must give notice for a hearing at least _______
10 days in advance.
106
Fraternal insurers operate on the basis of _______, but they may also _______. Reciprocal insurers are also associations that provide insurance for their members, but they are formed only for the purpose of _______
a lodge or charitable organization sell formal insurance plans for the benefit of their members providing insurance.
107
An Equity Indexed Annuity will grow based upon _______
performance of a recognized index.
108
Insurable interest must exist at the time of the _______
application, but not necessarily at the time of a claim.
109
A rated policy is one issued to _______
a substandard risk.
110
Marital status is not an _______
allowable underwriting factor in life insurance.
111
Straight whole life policies have a level _______
guaranteed face amount and a level premium for the life of the insured.
112
A material misrepresentation is a statement that, if discovered, _______
would alter the underwriting decision of the insurance company.
113
Variable Whole Life insurance is a _______
level fixed premium investment-based product.
114
Renewing late requires the applicant to pay _______
double the licensing fee (O.S. 1425)
115
All individual or group certificates of credit life or health must also include the _______
effective date and termination date of the policy.
116
The term "illustration" means a _______
presentation or depiction that includes nonguaranteed elements of a policy of individual or group life insurance over a period of years.
117
Credit life insurance is a special type of coverage written to insure the life of _______
the debtor and pay off the balance of a loan in the event of the death of the debtor.
118
Survivorship life pays on the _______
last death rather than upon the first death.
119
In joint life policies, the death benefit is paid upon _______
the first death only.
120
If an insured continually uses the automatic premium loan option to pay the policy premium, _______
the policy will terminate when the cash value is reduced to nothing.
121
Universal Life policies allow for policyholders to withdraw a limited portion of the policy's cash value. Each withdrawal, however, is usually charged, and the _______
amount and frequency of withdrawals are usually limited.
122
An underwriter may obtain information on an applicant's hobbies, financial status, and habits by ordering a(n) _______
inspection report