Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Semester 2 PM Exam 8 > Knee Radiology > Flashcards

Knee Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

When is the secondary ossification center present in the distal femur and proximal tibial?

A

at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

at what age in females do the distal femur and proximal tibia fuse/ossify?

A

age 14-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

at what age do the distal femur and proximal tibia fuse/ossify in males?

A

age 16-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

at what age is the secondary ossification center present in the tibial tuberosity?

A

age 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

at what age in males and females does the tibial tuberosity fuse/ossify?

A

age 13-15 in females

age 15-19 in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

at what age is the secondary ossification center of the patella present?

A

age 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when does the patella fuse/ossify?

A

puberty (it is completely cartilage until age 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Routine projections of the knee?

A

AP, lateral, axial/tunnel of intercondylar fossa, axial patellofemoral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AP of knee

A

taken with knee in extension

views distal femur, proximal tibia, fibular head, tibiofemoral joint, trabecular markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lateral of knee

A 
knee position in about 20 degrees of flexion
beam moves medial to lateral
lateral knee closest to film
fabella may be present
bursal may be observable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In a lateral projection of the knee, describe the appearance of the medial and lateral condyles?

A

front aspect = lateral condyle

posterior aspect = medial condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An axial/tunnel intercondylar fossa projection of the knee is done with the knee flexed to what angle?

A

40 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Axial/tunner ICF projection is done with the patient in what position?

A

prone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which direction does the beam move in for the axial/tunnel ICF projection?

A

beam moves posterior to anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The tunnel view is a ____ projection?

A

AP (focuses on intercondylar space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Axial view of Patellofemoral Joint

A

AKA: tangential, sunrise, skyline, merchant’s view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Axial view of Patellofemoral joint focuses on:

A

articular surfaces of femur and patella

knee is flexed to various degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Axial view

A

looks at patella-femoral articulation
film rests on anterior portion of thigh
image of patella and shape of joint surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the congruence angle?

A

the alignment of the patella in the femoral condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The axial view focuses on which two angles?

A

congruence angle and sulcus angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Projections of the lower leg?

A

AP and lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Purpose of AP and lateral projections of lower leg?

A

used to determine the condition/structure of the tibia and fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F the patella is always under compression forces/pressure

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If you suspect an interarticular (tibial spine) fracture, which form of imaging should be used to properly diagnose it?

A

CT scan (xray not precise enough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CT scans are best for assessing what structures?

A

bony elements, fractures, and degenerative processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A CT myelogram is good for assessing which structures?

A

good for spine and complex fractures (uses contrast material)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MRIs are best for assessing what?

A

soft tissue, inflammation, hemorrhage, ligament, cartilage, capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Two cons of MRIs?

A

more expensive and slower than CTs

29
Q

absolute contraindication to MRIs?

A

metal

30
Q

What is an arthrography?

A

the use of contrast within the joint spaces
can be used with plain film radiograph, CT, or MRI
contrast is typically air

31
Q

Arthrographys commonly look for what?

A

tears within the joint capsule

32
Q

Diagnostic Ultrasound

A

2-15 MHz
bundled delivery (1% emission 99% reception)
very operator dependent!!!
does not penetrate bone or transmit through air in lungs
same frequency as therapeutic US

33
Q

diagnostic ultrasound is used to assess which structures?

A

muscle and tendon architecture, fiber degeneration and tears, nerve inflammation

34
Q

A bone scan uses what to image bone?

A

radionuclide

35
Q

a bone scan is considered ____ imaging?

A

functional

36
Q

A bone scan indicates/detects what about bone activity?

A

detects abnormal areas of bone activity

37
Q

SN/SP of a bone scan

A

highly sensitive but not specific
will tell you something is wrong, but not specific about what is wrong
stress fractures, neoplasia, etc

38
Q

name the two simplest types of fractures

A

closed and open

39
Q

closed fracture

A

skin and soft tissue are intact

40
Q

open fracture

A

open wound caused by fracture

41
Q

complete fracture

A

all cortices of bone are gone/disrupted. minimum of 2 fracture fragments

42
Q

incomplete fracture

A

portion of cortices are not disrupted. considered the more stable type of fracture

43
Q

What is alignment naming based off of?

A

named based on distal fragment in relation to proximal fragment. works well for simple, complete fractures

44
Q

the fracture line is named based on what?

A

fracture line named in relationship to the longitudinal axis of the bone

45
Q

comminuted fracture

A

more than 2 fragments

46
Q

longitudinal fracture

A

down, often an incomplete fracture

47
Q

oblique

A

distraction often present ?

48
Q

spiral fracture

A

density issues

49
Q

What are the two types of impaction fractures?

A

depression and compression

50
Q

depression impaction fracture

A

occurs when the harder bone makes contact with a softer bone (commonly occurs at the tibial condyle)

51
Q

compression impaction fracture

A

compressive force on both sides of bone (vertebrae)

52
Q

Epiphyseal (Salter-Harris classification) fractures occur in which age group?

A

kids age 17 or younger whose growth plates have not yet fused

53
Q

Which type of fracture often has fluid buildup in the joint capsule, displacing the fat pad?

A

interarticular fracture. CT will be done if displaced fat pad seen on radiograph.

54
Q

Ottawa rules

A

refer pt for radiograph following a trauma if:

  • age 55 or older
  • tenderness at fibular head
  • isolated patellar tenderness
  • inability to flex knee to 90
  • inability to bear weight (4 steps) after injury and in ER/PT clinic!!!!!! most critical rule!
55
Q

Pittsburgh rules

A

Refer pt for radiograph following trauma/fall if:

  • age younger than 12 or older than 50
  • inability to walk 4 steps in ER or PT clinic
56
Q

Femoral Shaft Fractures

A
  • life threatening due to bleeding (hypovolemic shock) and fat embolism
  • massive forces required
  • almost always displaced fracture
  • other injuries exist
  • circulation issues
  • severe pain
  • rotation and angular displacement of distal end/segment
57
Q

What is the issue with fat embolisms in femoral shaft fractures?

A

(due to bone marrow released from fracture) causes respiratory arrest – usualy occurs later on in course of care

58
Q

Tibial Plateau Fractures

A
  • Hohl classification system
  • joint instability is common
  • MCL/LCL commonly involved
  • often need CT (or MRI)
  • ACL/PCL can also be involved
59
Q

is the knee stable or unstable in a tibial plateau fracture?

A

unstable!

60
Q

a tibial plateau fracture is considered which type of fracture?

A

depression fracture

61
Q

cause of tibial plateau fracture?

A
  • caused by axial loading with varus or valgus forces, such as fall from a height or collistion w/ bumper of car
  • due to impaction of femoral condyle into tibial plateau
  • unable to bear weight
  • lateral TP fractured more often than medial
  • pt unable to fully extend or flex knee, often presents in slight flexion
62
Q

tibial plateau fracture

A

femoral condyle impacts tibial plateau, shattering it

63
Q

Intercondylar (tibial spine) frctures

A
  • from direct blow to proximal tibia with knee flexed or in rotation
  • hyperextension with varus/valgus stress
  • loss of cruciate ligaments may occur
  • heavy bleeding if ligaments involved
64
Q

Patellar Fractures

A
  • disruption of extensor mechanism
  • occurs as result of indirect force (deceleration from a jump due to eccentric contraction of quads)
  • also caused from direct blow (MVA knee on dashboard) or fall on a flexed knee
  • flexed knee hitting dashboard = classic
  • most require fixation
65
Q

Hemarthrosis

A

blood in joint breaks down cartilage and starts the inflammatory process

66
Q

Hemophilic arthroplasty

A
  • chronic bleeding = hemophilia
  • bleeding won’t show up until 12-24 hrs after PT
  • remove wt-bearing and sent pt to physician if you suspect they are bleeding
67
Q

Interarticular bleeding/diffusion

A

elevation doesn’t work because the joint capsule is a confined space so the fluid has nowhere to go. compression may help the fluid diffuse out of the synovial membrane

68
Q

imagining modality of choice for meniscal injuries?

A

MRI

Semester 2 PM Exam 8 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions