Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

King Air A100 TCAS > King Air A100 > Flashcards

King Air A100 Flashcards

1
Q

EMER Engine Failure in Cruise

A
  1. Identify and verify failed engine
  2. Throttle of bad engine - idle
  3. Propellor lever - feather
  4. Condition Lever - cutoff
  5. Bleed Air - As required
  6. Fuel Pump - Off
  7. Fire Wall valve - Off
  8. Generator - Off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If a bleed air line breaks in flight what will happen?

What should the pilot do in response?

A
  1. Increase in ITT
  2. Decrease in Torque
  3. Increase in N1

Secure engine if conditions permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How much weight is allowed in:

  1. The rear baggage compartment
  2. Couch
  3. Drawers
  4. On top of rear drink cabinet
A
  1. 410 lbs rear baggage
  2. 340 lbs on couch
  3. 30 lbs/drawers under couch
  4. 100 lbs on to of cabinet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the limiter unit do?

A

Limits the:

  1. Controls starting parameters
  2. reverse thrust
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does does the TSLM light stand for?

A

Turbine Start limiter module

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If no ITT rise within 12 secs what should the pilot do?

A
  1. Cut off condition lever
  2. Allow 30 secs delay to drain fuel clear engine.
  3. In case of 3 unsuccessful starts fuel must be drained from drainage container.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Engine restarting is permitted up to ______ ft and up to ________ kts.

A

13,123 ft and 162 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Severe icing is indicated by:

A
  1. Airspeed loss greater than 20 kts
  2. Decrease in rate of climb to 300 fpm
  3. Accumulation of ice on spinner more than normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

EMER: Engine fire on ground

A
  1. Condition lever cutoff
  2. Fuel firewall valve closed
  3. Starter switch - start only (push up)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

EMER: Engine failure after takeoff

A
  1. Power max allowable
  2. Prop - Full Increase
  3. Airspeed - maintain speed at engine failure until obstacles are cleared
  4. Gear Up
  5. Identify/verify/Feather
  6. Airspeed - Vxse - 113 kts
  7. Flaps up
  8. Clean up
  9. Maintain at least blue line - 120 kts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the minimum weather requirements at an alternate airport?

A

Alternate with one approach - add 400 feet and 1 mile to minimums
Alternate with 2 approaches - add 200 ft and 1/2 mile to the highest of the two approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is an alternate airport required?

A
  1. Forecast one hour before to one hour after landing time if the ceiling is (135.223):
    a. at least 1500 ft above the lowest circling approach or
    b. if no circling approach at least 1500 ft above the lowest published minimum or 2000 ft above the airport, whichever is higher
    c. Visibility at least 3 miles or 2 miles above the lowest applicable minimums - whichever is greater for the instrument approach to be used at the destination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

EMER: What is the emergency descent procedure?

A
  1. Power levers - idle
  2. Propellor - full increase RPM
  3. Wing flaps - Approach only
  4. Landing Gear - Extend
  5. Airspeed - 156 kts maximum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

EMER: Engine failure below rotation speed

A
  1. Power - IDLE
  2. Brake
    If it looks like aircraft will go off end of rnwy:
  3. Engine reverse if needed
  4. Condition levers to CUTOFF
  5. Firewall valves - OFF
  6. Electrical power - OFF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe electrical power distribution

A

Memorize the picture of power distribution in manual or picture on phone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the quantity of fuel below which you cannot takeoff?

A

265 lbs/side or in the yellow arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are emergency squawk codes?

A

7500 -hijacking
7600 - no radio
7700 - emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many starts are allowed on the Walter engines?

A

Five
2 minutes cooling time between each start
60 minutes after 5th attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A100 fuel capacity

  1. Wings
  2. Aux Tanks
A
  1. Wing - 388 useable gallons (2600 lbs)

2. Aux - 82 useable gallons (550 lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A100 dimensions

A

Wingspan - 46 ft
Length - 40 ft
Top of Horizontal Stab - 15 ft
Main Gear - 13 ft wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
Max Torque
Shaft Horse Power
Max ITT
Max RPM
Max overshoot RPM
Oil Pressure
Oil Temperature
A

Torque - 1716 ft pounds
SHP - 680
Max ITT - 710
Max RPM - 1900 normal/ 2080 Takeoff - 2140 max overshoot during acceleration

Oil Pressure - 26 - 39 psi
Oil Temperature - 20 - 35 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many fuel pumps are on the A100 with Walter engines and where are they?

A

Four on each side - (8 total)

  1. engine driven
  2. standy - electrical
  3. jet pump from auxiliary tank
  4. main electric pump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If ITT light illuminates what should be done after reducing power?

A

Controlling fuse must be replaced and logbook entry made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

From which tank is fuel crossed when needed?

A

From one nacelle tank to the opposite nacelle tank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Altitude limitation

A

25,000ft - set by Walter engine manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

EMER: Crossfeed if left engine is inop

A
  1. Left standby pump on
  2. Right aux transfer switch off
  3. Crossfeed - open

This will push fuel from left tank to right tank

27
Q

Generator Amps

Current Limiter Amps

A

Generators are 250 amps (only allowed a .9 load or 225 amps)

325 amp current limiters

28
Q

What is the altitude limit if a stand pump is on?

A

18,000ft

29
Q

How does the pilot turn on the emergency circuit?

A
  1. Throttle - IDLE
  2. Condition lever - ON
  3. Isolate Valve Switch - ON
  4. N1 Minimum - 60% with condition lever
30
Q

Operational Speeds

  1. Vmc - Velocity of minimum control
  2. Stall Speed Flaps and Gear Retraced
  3. Stall Speed Gear and Flaps Extended
  4. Vx
  5. Vxse
  6. Vy
  7. Vyse
A
  1. Vmc - 85 kts
  2. Stall Clean - 90 its
  3. Stall Speed - Dirty - 75 its
  4. Vx- 100 kts
  5. Vxse -113
  6. Vy - 120 kts
  7. Vyse - 120 kts
31
Q 
Operational Speeds
Vmo - Max operating Speed
Vfa - flaps approach
Vfe - flaps landing (full)
Va - Maneuvering Speed
Vge - Gear extended
        - Gear in transit up speed
Max Crosswind
A 
Vmc - 226 kts
Vfa - 182 kts
Vfe - 140 kts
Va - 170 kts
Vge - gear extended - 156 kts
        - gear in transit up - 146 kts
Max Crosswind - 25 kts
32
Q

Flight load limits

A
  1. 27 positive

1. 31 negative

33
Q 
Weights
Max Takeoff
Max Landing
Max ramp
Zero Fuel Weight
A

Max Takeoff - 11,500 lbs
Max Landing - 11,210 lbs
Max Ramp - 11,568 lbs
Zero Fuel Weight - 9600

34
Q

What is the airspeed for emergency gear extension?

A

120 kts or less

35
Q

What happens to the max operating speed about 15,500 ft?

A

It must be reduced 4 kts for every 1000 feet above 15,500

36
Q

EMER: Electric Smoke or Fire

A
  1. Master (gang bar) - DOWN
  2. Oxygen - ON
  3. Oxygen Masks - PUT ON
  4. All electrical switches - OFF
  5. Battery and generator switch - ON
  6. Essential Electric Equipment - ON
  7. Oxygen - AS REQUIRED
37
Q

What is the maximum speed for the autopilot?

What is the minimum allowable altitude for the autopilot?

A

226 kts

200 ft on approach
1000 ft in cruise

38
Q

If the emergency fuel control unit is activated what items are no longer operational?

How is the Emergency fuel circuit cancelled?

A
  1. ELU - engine limiter system
  2. The fuel control unit
  3. automatic starting unit
  4. minimum fuel flow metering valve for inflight idle

Power lever in idle position and then turn ISO switch back to normal position

39
Q

EMER: Engine failure in flight

A
  1. Throttle on affected engine - IDLE
  2. Prop on affected engine - FEATHER
  3. Condition Lever - CUTOFF
  4. Fuel fire wall valve - CUTOFF
  5. Bleed air - AS REQUIRED
  6. Clean up - fuel pump off
    - generator off
  7. Electrical load - MONITOR
40
Q

At what temperature does Walter say that flight ops are prohibited?

A

37 degrees centigrade

41
Q

EMER: Single Engine Landing

A
  1. Propellor RPM - FULL INCREASE

2. Approach Speed - INCREASE 10 KTS

42
Q

What is the normal operating amperage of the prop deice system?

A

18 to 24 amps

43
Q

EMER: Landing gear emergency extension

A
  1. Airspeed - 120 kts
  2. Landing Gear Relay - PULL
  3. Landing Gear Handle - DOWN
  4. Emergency engage handle - LIFT and TURN
  5. Emergency gear lever - PUMP UNTIL 3 GREEN LIGHTS
  6. Gear cannot be retracted manually.
44
Q

What kind of engine is on the A100?

Which Props?

A

Walter M601E-11A

Avia V510

45
Q

What happens on the panel annunciator system if a system requires the immediate attention of the pilot?

A

The annunciator will flash until the pilot pushes the annunciator button. This will stop the flashing but the light will remain illuminated until the problem is resolved.

46
Q

When using the emergency fuel circuit can the reverse system be used?

A

No, the propellors cannot be put into reverse because there is no limiting system to control engine speeds/parameters.

47
Q

What systems use bleed air on the Walter engine?

A
  1. Bearing labyrinth seals
  2. Cooling of engine parts
  3. Compressor control/surging
  4. Airframe services (heating/presurization)
  5. FCU control
  6. Starter/generator cooling
48
Q

How long is the starting cycle?

A

20 seconds

49
Q

Auxiliary tanks must not be filled unless the main tanks are _________

A

Full

50
Q

What is maximum cabin pressure differential?

A

4.7 psi

51
Q

If either the main or the stands trim systems are inoperative the flight is __________

A

Prohibited

52
Q

What is the minimum airspeed for flight in icing conditions?

A

140 kts

53
Q

Can the a flight be initiated at night into icing conditions with only one of the two ice lights operational?

A

No, both ice lights must be operational for night time flight into icing conditions.

54
Q

Starting should not be attempted with less than _______ volts.

A

20 volts

55
Q

What are the recommended climb speeds?

A

SL - 10,000 ft - 150 kts

10,000 - 20,000 ft - 130 kts

56
Q

At what temperature is it possible to damage the deice boots if they are used?

A

-40 and below

57
Q

What are the maximum recommended airspeeds at the following temps in order for the windshield heating to remain effective:

  1. -13 to -17
  2. -18 to -23
A
  1. -13 to -17 = no greater than 150 kts

2. -18 to -24 = no greater than 135 kts

58
Q

When should engine anti-ice be used?

A

Visible moisture and +5 C and below

59
Q

What is the normal amperage reading for the lip boot deice system check?

A

14 to 18 amps

60
Q

What is the normal amperage usage for the propellor deice boots?

A

18 to 24 amps

61
Q

What would the oxygen gauge pressure read if the oxygen bottle was full at 0˚ C?

A

1700 psi

62
Q

How is the pressurization system checked?

A
  1. Bleed air valves open
  2. Set altitude dial 500 ft below field altitude
  3. Press the test switch
  4. Look for a descent indication on the Cabin altitude indicator dial.
63
Q

If generator light goes on indicating a failed generator what should the pilot do?

A
  1. Generator switch off then on

2. If generator does not reset then turn it off and monitor the load which should not exceed .9 on load meter.

64
Q

At what temperature should the engine be preheated?

A

-20˚ C or -4˚ F

King Air A100 TCAS (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions