Key Words Flashcards

Random Key words from OpenAnesthesia

1
Q

What are the clinical presenting signs of venous air embolism?

A
Dysrhythmias: either tachy or brady
Myocardial Ischemia
Circulatory/Cardiovascular collapse
Hypotension
rales, wheezing
hemoptysis
tachypnea
pulmonary edema
Mill WHEEL murmur: constant machine like sound, late sign, heard over precordium
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2
Q

What is the ABG finding in air embolism?

A

ABG can show metabolic ACIDOSIS as a result of hypoxemia

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3
Q

What is the Durant Maneuver

A

treatment for air embolism: place pt in L Lat decubitus and T-berg (may be effective by allowing air to move toward the right ventricular apex, thereby relieving the obstruction of the pulmonary outflow tract

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4
Q

How much is MAC decreased over the age of 40?

A

MAC decreased by 4% per decade over 40 yrs

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5
Q

List some age related changes in pulmonary physiology

A

Age-Related Changes

  • Elasticity decreased (Over distention of alveoli- Decreases alveolar surface area and decreases gas exchange efficiency.)
  • Collapse of smaller airways resulting in increased residual volume and closing capacity.
  • Increase anatomical dead space
  • Increased physiological dead space
  • Increased chest wall rigidity
  • Decreased cough response
  • Decreased maximal breathing capacity
  • Blunted response to hypercapnia/ hypoxia
  • Decreased arterial oxygen tension by 0.35 mm Hg per year- As closing capacity increases small airways start closing at normal tidal breathing causing ventilation perfusion mismatch and decreases PaO2.
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6
Q

Which anesthetic drugs INCREASEintraocular pressure?

A

Succinylcholine (peak at 2-4 mins, resolves by 6 mins)
Ketamine
Nitrous Oxide

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7
Q

Which anesthetic drugs DECREASE intraocular pressure?

A
Opioids 
Volatile Anesthetics
barbiturates, 
lidocaine
Nondepolarizing NMB
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8
Q

What are four compensatory mechanisms in CHRONIC anemia?

A
  • increased cardiac output: (in isovolemic hemodilution from chronic anemia, the hematocrit decreases and reduces SVR through decreased viscosity of blood)
  • Redistribution of cardiac output: (blood flow is redistributed to the tissues with higher extraction ratios (brain and heart), (in a healthy heart coronary blood flow can increase up to 600% of baseline)
  • Increased oxygen extraction: (in times when the hematocrit reaches less than 25%) (The brain and heart already have a high extraction ratio and are unable to increase oxygen delivery by this mechanism)
  • Changes in oxygen-hemoglobin affinity: the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the righ
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9
Q

Describe the innervation of the LARYNX:

A

Sensation:

  • superior laryngeal nerve (supplies sensation to mucosa from the epiglottis to the level of the cords through the internal branch)
  • recurrent laryngeal nerve (supplies sensation to mucosa below the cords)

Motor:
The recurrent laryngeal nerves supply all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle. The cricothyroid muscle is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

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10
Q

What nerves need to be anesthetized for awake fiberoptic intubation?

A
  • Superior laryngeal nerve- (supplies sensation to mucosa from the epiglottis to the level of the cords through the internal branch)
  • recurrent laryngeal nerve (supplies sensation to mucosa below the cords)
  • maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve which supplies sensory innervations to the nasopharynx
  • glossopharyngeal nerve which supplies sensory innervations to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, pharynx, and areas above the epiglottis/vallecula.
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11
Q

What are the autonomic nervous system changes that result from ECT (electroconvulsive therapy)?

A

The initial reaction following application of the electric current is a parasympathetic response resulting in bradydysrhythmias and possibly sinus pause. The parasympathetic response is followed by a sympathetic response associated with tachycardia and hypertension.

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12
Q

How does Lidocaine effect ECT management?

A

Lidocaine, an amide local anesthetic, has been shown to be ineffective in ameliorating the robust sympathetic response associated with ECT. In addition, pre-treatment with lidocaine is also associated with decreased seizure duration and a higher likelihood of patients requiring multiple applications of electric current during a single ECT session to achieve a therapeutic seizure.

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13
Q

Which drugs increase and decrease seizure threshold in ECT?

A

Increases duration: Etomidate

NO change in duration:
Methohexital (Induction agent of choice)
Ketamine

Decreases duration:
Thiopental
Midazolam
Propofol

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14
Q

What are the three manifestations of amniotic fluid embolism?

A

1) acute pulmonary embolism, (2) DIC, and (3) uterine atony.

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15
Q

What is the most commonly abused narcotic by Anesthesiologists?

A

Fentanyl was the most commonly abused narcotic, followed by sufentanil, meperidine, morphine, and oral drugs

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16
Q

What is the “fire triad”?

A

an oxidizer (O2, N2O), ignition source, and fuel (ett, sponges, etoh prep, drapes, masks, nc)

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17
Q

Describe the management of an airway fire:

A

In the case of an airway fire immediately, without hesitation, halt the procedure and remove the tracheal tube. Stop the flow of all airway gases. Remove sponges or any other flammable material from the airway, and pour saline into the airway. Once the fire is extinguished, re-establish ventilation either with the circuit or a self-inflating resuscitation bag. If possible, ventilate with room air. Examine the integrity of tracheal tube to make sure no fragments may have been left in the airway. Consider bronchoscopy (preferably rigid) to assess injury and, especially, to locate and remove tracheal tube fragments and other debris. Assess the patient and then devise a management plan.

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18
Q

How is pain mediated in the first stage of labor?

A

sympathetic nerve fibers (going through the inferior hypogastric plexus on the way to the sympathetic chain) that originate from the T10-L1 segments of the spinal cord (referred to the back as well as abdominal wall).

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19
Q

What is the Effect of Intracardiac Shunts on Anesthetic Induction with IV/Volatile Right to Left and Left to Right?

A

Right to Left (IV): rapid induction (easy to remember - blood bypasses lungs, straight to brain)
Right to Left (volatile): slower induction
Left to Right (IV): slower effect (little)
Left to Right (volatile): faster induction with soluble agents (less pronounced with insoluble agents)

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20
Q

What are the clinical concerns when taking care of a patient with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Systemic Considerations: uveitis, vasculitis, aortic insufficiency, pulmonary fibrosis, restrictive lung disease

General Anesthesia: reduced cervical and TMJ mobility

Regional Anesthesia: osseous ligaments, reduced intravertebral spaces (consider caudal)

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21
Q

How to you treat organophosphate poisoning?

A

Termination of the exposure including removing all soiled clothing. Gently cleanse with soap and water to hydrolyze organophosphate solutions. Irrigate eyes (may help with Morgan lens)

Abc-
Airway control (Intubation may be necessary due to laryngospasm, bronchospasm, bronchorrhea, or seizures) atropine may eliminate the need for intubation. Succinylcholine should be avoided because it is may result in prolonged paralysis.
Torsades de Pointes should be treated in the standard manner. 

Pharmacologic Treatment

Atropine - The endpoint for atropine is dried pulmonary secretions and adequate oxygenation. Tachycardia and mydriasis must not be used to limit or to stop subsequent doses of atropine. The main concern with OP toxicity is respiratory failure from excessive airway secretions.

Pralidoxime - Nucleophilic agent that reactivates the phosphorylated AChE by binding to the OP molecule. Used as an antidote to reverse muscle paralysis resulting from OP AChE pesticide poisoning but is not effective once the OP compound has bound AChE irreversibly (aged). Current recommendation is administration within 48 h of OP poisoning.

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22
Q

A patient with anti phospholipid syndrome should have what lab abnormalities? Are they candidates for epidurals?

A

Increased ptt and positive testing for lupus anticoagulant or anticardiolipin.

Patients have antibodies that interfere with testing but are at increased risk of thrombosis, not bleeding. As long as they are not on anticoagulant therapy, they can receive epidurals

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23
Q

What is the formula for calculation of pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

80*(meanPAP – PCWP)]/CO

Normal pulmonary vascular resistance is 150-250 dynes*sec/cm5

24
Q

Where does the median nerve travel at the elbow? at the wrist?

A
  • the median nerve passes medial to the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa
  • at the wrist, the median nerve runs just lateral to the palmaris longus (PL) between the PL and the flexor carpi radialis (FCR). Of note, 20% of people do not have a PL.
25
Q

Describe the complications associated with aortic cross clamp:

A

If the cross-clamp is suprarenal, can have renal failure, hepatic ischemia and coagulopathy, bowel infarction, and paraplegia. Most consistent response is arterial hypertension above the clamp and hypotension below the clamp. Other consequences of cross clamping include: increased segmental wall motion abnormalities, increased wedge pressure (PCWP) and CVP, increased coronary blood flow, increased mixed VO2 (decreased O2 consumption, decreased O2 extraction), decreased EF, decreased CO, decreased RBF, decreased CO2 production, respiratory alkalosis, and/or metabolic acidosis. Heart rate and stroke work are not necessarily changed.

26
Q

What is the difference between peripheral and central arterial wave forms?

A

Peripheral arterial waveforms have higher systolic pressure, lower diastolic pressure, and wider pulse pressure and the systolic pressure upstroke begins approximately 60 msec later. MAP in the aorta is just slightly greater than MAP in the radial artery

27
Q

What is an ascending bellows and what is its advantage?

A

Ascending bellows rise during expiration and descending bellows fall during expiration. Ascending bellows are safer because if a circuit disconnection occurs, the bellows will not fill.

28
Q

What are the concerns for meds used for post-partum hemmorhage with:
Carbaprost (Hemabate)?
Methergyn?

A

Hemabate use causion in asthma, renal, or hepatic disease, or epilepsy,
methergyn- HTN

29
Q

What are 5 cardinal signs of liver failure?

A

1) altered mental status
2) hypothermia
3) acidosis
4) coagulopathy
5 slow drug metabolism

30
Q

What is the timeline for airway complications post-thyroid surgery?

A
  • opiates
  • Hypocalcemia is the most common cause of airway obstruction 24hrs after thyroidectomy (typically manifests 24 to 48 hrs postop)
  • If recurrent laryngeal nerve damage occurs, it is more likely to be unilateral and present with hoarseness. If both recurrent laryngeal nerves were severed, severe airway obstruction occurs immediately.
  • Hematoma is the most common cause of airway obstruction within 24 hrs of a thyroidectomy.
31
Q

Autonomic hyper-reflexia occurs from lesions at which level? How does this manifest?

A

Anatomy: Spinal cord injury T7 or above
Stimulus: Cutaneous, visceral (bladder), proprioceptive, below the level of the lesion
Etiology: Spinal reflex which is normally inhibited by descending feedback
Result: hypertension followed by overzealous vagal response (brady, heart block, vasodilation)

32
Q

When performing an axillary block, what nerve is spared and how is it blocked after completing the axillary block?

A

A separate block is essential to complete forearm and wrist anesthesia. The musculocutaneous nerve can be blocked by redirecting the needle, after completing the axillary block, superiorly and posteriorly to pierce and inject anesthetic within the coracobrachialis.

33
Q

What is the ventillator and surgical opitmization management for infants with CDH?

A
  • small tidal volumes and pip 80% tolerated if the infant appears comfortable
  • Surgical intervention should be delayed until the ventilator support has been minimized, pre- to post-ductal saturation gradient has decreased, and pulmonary hypertension has minimized as suggested by ECHO
34
Q

What are the effects on CBF and CMRO2 with volatile anesthetics? what is the exception

A
  • dose dependent increase in CBF due to vasodilation (Halothane > Desflurane > Isoflurane > Sevoflurane)
  • CMRO2: Decrease CMR (luxury perfusion, a state where CBF>CMRO2)
  • Exception: nitrous oxide leads to increased CBF and increased CMRO2
35
Q

What is butyrycholinesterase? How is this functionally measured?

A

Butyrylcholinesterase, which is synthesized in liver and is not present at the NMJ, rapidly hydrolizes succinylcholine to succinylmonocholine and choline. (only 10% of administered sux reache NMJ)
-Dibucaine inhibits normal enzyme, if the dibucaine number is low one should suspect an abnormal variant. Dibucaine 70-80= nml, 50-60 heterozygous abn, 20-30 prolonged 4-8 hrs

36
Q

What are EKG changes associated with hypermagnesiemia?

A

EKG changes, including prolonged PR intervals and widened QRS complexes, can develop at serum levels of 5-10 mEq/L

37
Q

How do yo manage a patient with a broncho-pleural fistula with regards to PPV and why?

A

Ventilator management is difficult because PPV may lead to tension pntx and the air leak from the fistula can lead to inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. A chest tube can reduce change of tension ptx. Patients need adequate NPV preoxygenation and then intubation with DLT prior to starting PPV in the good lung.

38
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages with bronchial blockers?

A

Technically simple
Use in difficult / pediatric airways (small size, allow for ventilation during placement)
Can isolate individual segments
Work with SLTs (no tube exchange required)

Disadvantages- more expensive, less reliable

39
Q

What are the cardiovascular responses in surgery that disturbs the brain stem?

A

Surgeries that stimulate the floor of the fourth ventricle (which affects the pons and medulla) or the cerebellopontine angle can result in hypertension, usually in association with bradycardia. T

Other responses may include tachycardia and hypertension, bradycardia and hypotension (particularly after stimulation of the vagus nerve or glossopharyngeal nerve), and ventricular dysrhythmias.

Treatment is to talk to surgeon, using meds to mask response is only used if it is prolonged.

40
Q

How do you measure GCS ?

A

Eye opening: 1- none, 2 - pain only, 3 - verbal command, 4 - spontaneously.

Verbal reponse: 1 - none, 2 - incomprehensible sounds, 3 - inappropriate words, 4 - disoriented and confused, 5 - oriented and appropriate

Motor Reponse: 1 - none (flaccid), 2 - extension to pain, 3 - flexion to pain, 4 - withdraw from pain, 5 - localizes to pain, 6 - obeys commands.

41
Q

What are the 3 ketone bodies synthesized by the liver?

A

acetone, acetoacetic acid, and beta-hydroxybutyric acid

42
Q

What is carcinoid heart disease? What is malignant carcinoid syndrome ? What is the preferred treatment agent?

A

Heart-right heart dz, tricuspid stenosis, pulm stenosis and increased pvr due to serotonin action

Malignant- tumor spreads to liver, vasoactive substances escape hepatic degradation and you see flushing, diarrhea (bad), asthma, hypotension/tachycardia and htn

Treatment- octreotide (somatostatin analog)

43
Q

Describe the following phases in a capnogram waveform? Phase 0, 1, 2, 3, alpha angle, beta angle

A

Phase 0- inspiration
Phase 1- anatomical and apparatus dead space
Phase 2- anatomical dead space and alveolar gas mixture
Phase 3- alveolar gas
Alpha angle- between phase 2 & 3
Beta angle- phase 3 and descending limb

44
Q

What is the formula for svr? Pvr?

A
Svr= 80* (map - cvp)  / c.o.
Pvr = 80 * (cvp - pwcp) / c.o. 

Nml values:
Svr 900-1200 dynes/ cm
Pvr 100-200

45
Q

What are the ECG findings in hypercalcemia? Hypocalcemia?

A

Hyper- shortened st, short qt, flattened t wave, st changes

Hypo- prolonged st, prolonged qt….vt, Torsades, complete heart block

46
Q

Post heart transplant, how does Bradycardia come about? What is the treatment?

A

A transplanted heart is denervated, with time there may be some sympathetic and less often parasympathetic re-innervation. Bradycardia may occur from ischemic injury to sa node, sympathetic demervation or other damage to conduction system.

To increase hr, pacers are required. Do not use indirect sympathetics (ephedrine) or anti-vagolytics (glyco/atropine). Use dire sumpathomimetics (epi, isoprel)

47
Q

What are the revised cardiac risk factors use to calculate cardiac risk?

A

Ischemic peripheral or coronary heart dz, chf, cr > 2, iddm, high risk surgery

48
Q

What are the indications for a pacer? (6)

A

1) Symptomatic bradycardia
2) new bbb
3) second degree type ii av block
4) third degree av block
5) bifasicular block in comatose patient
6) refractory svt

49
Q

What ECG leads have the best sensitivity in detected period mi?

A

V5 75%
V4 61%
II, V4+V5 98%

50
Q

What is beck’s triad?

A

Hypotension, jug venous dissension, muffled heart sounds in Cardiac tamponade

51
Q

Which abg analysis is preferred during cpb in adults?

A

Alpha stat (do not add co2 to regulate ph in cold state)

Phstat may be used in peds

52
Q

How do carotid bodies sense need for respiratory drive?

A

At the bifurcation of int and ext carotid, threshold for increased ventilation from o2 tension (central chemoreceptors from co2), lesser extent ph

B/l cea would impair hypoxia vent drive

53
Q

What is the action and innervation of aortic bodies?

A

Have circulatory effects from cn x innervation and cause bradycardia, htn, adrenal stimulation and bronchoconstriction

54
Q

What happens to NAchR in guillaine barres syndrome and MS?

A

Acetylcholine receptors are upregulated due to demyelination and axonal degeneration…AVOID SUX, look for autonomic dysfunction

55
Q

What is the second most common cause if death during aneurysm clipping?

A

Neurogenic pulmonary edema and respiratory complications