Key Things to memorise for PH4117 Flashcards

1
Q

Despite a highly regulated environment around the development, supply and safe use of medicines in the UK, medicines mismanagement and drug misuse constitute a growing and significant population-wide concern with respect to patient health and well-being.

Explain what is meant by adverse drug reactions (ADRs) and medication errors, and their risk to patient health and wellbeing. Briefly explain the different routes by which medication safety incidents are reported and highlighted for corrective action in England and Wales.

A

Previous reporting of medication errors and other patient safety incidents were previously reported to the National Reporting and Learning System (NRLS), now replaced following NHS patient safety strategy review in 2019 (1). (PSSR)

For NHS England, ‘Learning from Patient Safety Events’ (LFPSE) is the now centralised NHS-wide digital platform for reporting patient safety events (1). The Patient Safety Incident Response (PSIRF) Framework was established for management of serious patient safety incidents (1). National patient safety alerts (NPSA) issued following clinical review, requiring national action (with compliance monitored via Care Quality Commission). (1)

For NHS Wales, parallel systems for local reporting of patient harm and near misses (via Once for Wales Concerns management system). (1) Nationally reported incidents (e.g., unexpected/avoidable deaths or serious harm, never events etc) reported to NHS Wales Delivery Unit. (1) Alerts and notices issued, with monitoring of compliance under remit of NHS Wales Delivery Unit. (1)

Adverse drug reactions (ADRs) – response to medicine that is noxious or unintended, resulting not only from authorised use at normal doses (1); but also from medication errors and uses outside of marketing authorisation, including misuse, off-label use and abuse of medicine (1). ADRs are reported by healthcare professionals or patients to the MHRA (UK Medicines and Healthcare Regulatory Agency) Yellow Card scheme (1). Following review, MHRA will then issue safety communications as required (1). These communications can take the form of regular drug safety updates, specific safety warnings; and alerts and product recall if appropriate (1)

Medication errors - Incident in which there has been an error in the process of prescribing, dispensing, preparing, administering, monitoring or providing medicines advice (1), regardless of whether any harm occurred (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Recent media coverage has highlighted the alarming global rise in cases of sepsis. It is now estimated that one in five deaths around the world is caused by the condition, with an estimated 49 million cases and 11 million deaths from sepsis each year. It is responsible for more deaths than breast, bowel and prostate cancer combined. Reports have highlighted the greatest burden of disease in low- and middle-income countries, however wealthier nations are also dealing with a growing sepsis caseload.

(a) Briefly outline what is meant by sepsis and discuss the possible causes for the increasing disease burden in recent years (8 marks).

A

(a) Definition of sepsis (2 marks) - the body’s extreme response to an infection (a life-threatening medical emergency). Sepsis happens when an infection you already have triggers an exaggerated immunological response / chain reaction throughout your body. Without timely treatment, sepsis can rapidly lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death. [Must mention infection AND immune response to get 2 marks].

Reasons for increasing disease burden (up to 6 marks)

· More data from LMICs - majority of cases still occur in these countries (1 mark)
· LMIC – poorer access to clean water, good sanitation, vaccinations, and healthcare services (1 mark)
· Better recognition of the condition leads to increased number of diagnoses (1 mark)
· Improved recording of sepsis as cause of death (1 mark)
· Ever-growing problem of antimicrobial resistance (1 mark)
· More people living with a sub-optimal immune state e.g., ageing population, immunocompromised as result of other medical conditions (1 mark)
· Sepsis survivors have higher risk of contracting other infections within a few months of recovery, including COVID-19 (1 mark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the symptoms that an adult patient would likely present with, to enable the diagnosis of sepsis (3 marks)? When recording a patients’ observations on a NEWS chart, what score should make you ‘think sepsis’?

A

(b) Likely symptoms (3 marks)
· Slurred speech (1/2 mark)
· Extreme shivering or muscle pain (1/2 mark)
· Passing no urine in a day (1/2 mark)
· Severe breathlessness (1/2 mark)
· Skin mottled or discoloured (1/2 mark)
· Patient feeling like they are going to die (1/2 mark)
NEWS score of ≥3 – think sepsis (1 mark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Outline the current treatment protocol for sepsis (4 marks)

A

· Current treatment relies on the Sepsis 6 pathway (1 mark)
· Administer high flow oxygen if needed (1 mark)
· Give broad spectrum antibiotics (1 mark)
· Give iv fluids (1 mark)
· Provide vasopressors and /or other organ support as required (1 mark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Certain population groups are more susceptible to developing sepsis. For the three groups below, explain why they are considered at-risk groups for developing the condition (4 marks).
· A woman who is pregnant or who has delivered / lost a baby in the last 6 weeks.
· A child younger than 1 or a person over the age of 65.
· Someone with diabetes.

A

Pregnancy or post-partum: caesarean section (surgery), ruptured membranes (once waters break, risk of infection increases), infection following vaginal delivery, mastitis (1/2 mark for any of these up to 1 mark).

Extremes of age: very young have an under-developed immune system (1/2 mark) and may not have yet received full schedule of vaccinations (1/2 mark). Older people are thought to suffer from immune senescence (less efficient immune system) (1/2 mark), more likely to be suffering from chronic illness that increases risk of infection (e.g., COPD, diabetes, renal disease) (1/2 mark) (maximum mark = 2).

Diabetes: wounds / cuts are less likely to heal efficiently, immune abnormalities reported in diabetic patient, less efficient at fighting infections (1/2 mark for any of these up to 1 mark).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Early intervention with intravenous antibiotics is vital in cases of suspected or confirmed cases of sepsis. Briefly discuss the factors surrounding the choice of antibiotics and reasons for IV dosing as the preferred delivery route (5 marks)

A

Choice of antibiotics (3 marks), from:
· Microbiological diagnosis (lab or PoC).
· Initially broad spectrum as don’t want to delay treatment but should narrow as results become available.
· Nature of infection (site, likely organism, resistance patterns).
· Patient factors (allergies, renal/hepatic function, pregnancy, immunosuppressed).

Reasons for iv (2 marks)
· Decreased gastric and s/c absorption.
· Rapid onset of action – direct delivery by iv.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What key points should be considered in an expert witness case?

A
  • Side effects relevant to the case
  • Recency of the drug use, e.g. SSRI recently started, means increased risk of side effects such as depressive thoughts, suicidal thoughts etc.
  • Quantity of medication taken and comparison to the recommended single dose and daily dose
  • Benzodiazepine short-term - usually 2-4 weeks

If they have taken other substances such as alcohol - Things to note with alcohol:
- Over recommended 14 units?
- How long since ingestion (half life 4 - 5 hours) and time of incident.
- side effects of alcohol: increased sedation, Violence, including homicide, suicide, sexual assault, Increased risk of falls, and anxiety. (all generally increase with higher consumption)
- Combined sedative effect with their medication? - depressant effect of both drugs on the CNS
- Do they have alcohol tolerance? (regular drinker?) - 14 units would still be excessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What extra information is useful for an expert witness case ?

A
  • Blood levels of alcohol and drug taken as only have their word to go on for consumption. With this information could work out how much of each was in his system at time of incident (2 marks).
  • Breathalyser results to rule out the involvement of alcohol (2 marks).
    OR
  • Information on drinking habits (regular drinker or not) needed to draw conclusions on tolerance and likely state of intoxication at time of incident (2 marks).
    OR
  • Information on height, weight and food consumption needed as these affect alcohol intoxication (2 marks).
  • If not mentioned - Need information on how long he had been taking medication to establish if they knew it could make them sleepy (2 marks)
  • If not mentioned, does the person have other medical conditions or take any other over-the-counter or prescribed medication as these could have influenced how they felt (2 marks)
  • if not mentioned, the prescribed dosage of the medication to work out the tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When would you deprescribe medication?
Pain medication, antidepressants, blood pressure, inhalers, tamsulosin, contraception, laxatives etc

A
  • Pain medications (paracetamol and oramorph and fentanyl): continue to control pain throughout patient journey. Acceptable to state paracetamol and morphine up until patient can no longer swallow then switch to subcutaneous. Also, acceptable to say fentanyl continued until rapidly changing pain requirements then switch to subcutaneous.
  • Sertraline: Should NOT be stopped until patient can no longer take medications orally. Patient should still be actively treated for depression.
  • Donepezil: Should NOT be stopped until patient can no longer take medications orally. Patient should still be actively treated for dementia. Acceptable to state that should not be stopped because of potential withdrawal effects (hallucinations, symptom deterioration).
  • Tamsulosin: Should NOT be stopped until patient can no longer take medications orally. Patient should still be actively treated for urinary retention.
  • Salbutamol and beclomethasone: context dependent, award mark if reasonable rationale provided, EITHER: Should NOT be deprescribed and should be continued with help of a spacer (or nebuliser) if necessary for as long as possible to control symptoms. OR: could justify stopping if patient is poorly adherent.
  • Ramipril – context dependent, award mark if reasonable rationale provided. EITHER: Do NOT stop until patient becomes bed bound and natural blood pressure will decrease towards later stages of end of life. OR: Appropriate to stop at that point but not whilst high blood pressure is still present.

Contraception - Not needed in palliative care as it wouldn’t be possible to deliver a healthy baby, so it can be stopped. Discuss with patient.

Laxative - Senna or lactulose - should be continued – patient will need laxative cover due to opioid analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What medications are found in anticipatory medicines boxes and why?

A
  • Cyclizine/metoclopramide (antiemetic) - nausea and vomiting

Cyclizine and metoclopramide not given together it cancels each other out

  • Midazolam (Benzodiazepine)/ haloperidol (antipsychotic), usually given to treat agitation

levomepromazine (antipsychotic) - Severe agitation, nausea and vomiting

  • Hysocine hydrobromide/Glycopyrronium (Antimuscarinics) - usually for chest secretions

morphine/diamorphine for pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a patient is buying medication online (suspected opioids), how should you advise them? (partner is concerned about them)

A

Non-judgemental approach, establish facts as far as possible before providing advice to try to minimise harm to patient (1)
Offer the opportunity for the patient to visit the pharmacy for advice directly [1], and the opportunity for medicines review and general check-up (pharmacy or GP surgery). [1]

Take a non-judgemental approach, establish facts as far as possible before providing advice to try to minimise harm to patient [1].
Highlight to customer the potential lack of reliability with respect to identity, purity, and dose (non-regulated supply chain), if purchased through certain online or other non-licensed (dealer) routes [1].

Suggest conversation with husband (ideally through pharmacy) to try to verify origin and reliability of online supply route [1]; supplemented by drug testing through local confidential and free drug testing service, e.g. Wedinos [1].

Sensitively encourage husband to seek medical check-up on physical and mental health, explaining dangers of combining two ‘depressant’ category drugs together (opioids and alcohol). [1]
Signpost to local drug and alcohol services (online information and in-person), again conversation with patient that there is nothing to be ashamed of [1].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are key points to consider regarding DNAR?

A

One mark awarded for a definition of consent: the process of a fully informed patient giving permission for medical treatment without coercion.

One mark awarded for a definition of capacity: a patient is deemed to have capacity if they can fully understand the information given to them about the treatment.

One mark awarded for stating that if patient was deemed not to have capacity, then family would be required to sign the DNAR form (no marks awarded if the student assumes that patient would not have capacity due to dementia/illness).

One mark awarded for stating that if patient was deemed to have capacity, then he could sign the DNAR form.

Shouldn’t legally give opinion to patient.

  • Ethically – The patient has ultimate control over her own life and therefore whilst considered to have capacity to make health decisions she can refuse to sign the form if she wishes regardless of the husbands wishes.
  • Encouragement of family conversations and speaking to both the husband and wife together – advocating for the patient centred approach.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the general risks of surgery?

A

o Bleeding (haemorrhage)
o Shock
o Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
o Death
o Wound site pain
o Infection
o Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)/Pulmonary embolism (PE)
o Anaphylaxis (to peri-operative medicines like anaesthetic)
o Nausea and vomiting
o Urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Exam Question:
In a separate incident within your community pharmacy, a member of the public approaches and asks for advice. He explains that he has recently developed acne on his face and back and asks for advice on treatment.
You engage a conversation. The male explains there have also been issues with passing urine and heart rate “fluttering”.
The male looks to be around 35-40 years old, physically large with developed musculature, clearly a gym user!
What actions/advice would you take/give?

A

The indications are the male may be a steroid user [1]
It may be appropriate to clarify this – “are you using steroids?”. This question needs to be handled sensitively, as steroid use has been linked to increased loss of temper, aggression, and impatience. The conversation may be best undertaken in plain sight. [1]
Explain that steroid use is not a criminal offence, although supplying is. [1]

Referral to a needle exchange scheme may be appropriate – if this information is available in the pharmacy. [1]

Referral to a drug support scheme may be appropriate – if this information is available in the pharmacy. This needs to be handled sensitively – steroid users don’t consider themselves drug users. [1]

Further advice and links are available from the UK Anti-Doping (UKAD) or NHS website, or UKAD/WADA for anti-doping advice if a high-level sports performer (unlikely) [1]

Offer treatment for the acne (e.g. adapalene plus benzoyl peroxide, or similar). [1]

Offer advice/treatment for heart ‘fluttering’ (arrthythmias), e.g. beta blocker (such as esmolol hydrochloride) or calcium channel blocker (such as diltiazem hydrochloride). Or refer onwards for specialist assessment depending on severity of symptoms. (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are common Pre-operative considerations?

A

Common important pre-operative considerations

  • Appropriate pre-operative investigations
    - Blood tests, imaging, specialist
  • Starvation
    - 2,6 Rule or 2-4-6 Rule in children
  • Thromboprophylaxis
    - always considered for hospital patients
    - Medicinal: Low molecular weight heparins
    - Mechanical: Stockings or mechanical stimulation - cause blood to circulate more quickly.

Antibiotic prophylaxis
- Antimicrobial stewardship
- How long do antibiotics need to be maintained for etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are potential sources of information required when thinking of supplying an emergency supply to a patient?

A

o NHS Choices, which will have information about the other pharmacy’s opening times
OR
NHS Find a Pharmacy
o The pharmacy’s Patient Medication Record (if any)
o The NHS Summary Care Record (consent must be sought to access this)
o The man’s GP (although noting that the GP surgery is likely to be closed)
o The Drug Action Team (or equivalent) responsible for the man’s drug misuse service (although noting that the office is likely to be closed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why do we need to supply anticipatory medication?

A
  • Hard to get hold of medication fast and easily
  • Make sure patients’ symptoms are properly treated
  • It Saves loves ones from having to leave and find medication it’s there already
  • Advanced planning
  • Difficult to see patient suffer if there is a delay on medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you think are the barriers to deprescribing?

A
  • Limited time available and lack of clarity over whose ‘job’ it is to deprescribe.
  • Possible concerns around stopping a medications that were initiated by a specialist.
  • Uncertainty about the ongoing benefits of a medication.
  • Concern over drug withdrawal effects and possible worsening of symptoms
  • Uncertainty on the timing of deprescribing discussions when prognosis and goals of care may be unclear.
  • Concern that the patient, family members, or healthcare professionals may see deprescribing as a sign of ‘giving up hope’.
  • Unwillingness or reluctance from the patients to change their medications.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List five reasons to consider deprescribing in the palliative patient towards the end of life

A
  • Reduced adverse events
  • Prioritisation of the most essential medications
  • Reduced tablet burden
  • Reduced costs
  • Enhanced quality of life.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the symptoms of Opiate Toxicity

A

· Drowsiness
· Pin point pupils
· Twitching
· Respiratory depression
· Confusion
· Hallucinations (may not be obvious)
· Itch
· Nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are Severe sepsis and septic shock defined as?

A

Severe Sepsis: sepsis with the dysfunction of one or more organ systems
Renal failure for example

Septic Shock: is the final stage where hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is chronic pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with, or resembling that associated with, actual or potential tissue damage.
n Pain that persists or recurs for more than 3 months- pain after the normal healing process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the risk factors for a patient becoming infected whilst undergoing a surgical procedure?

A

surgical - inexperience, length of treatment, ineffective scrubbing technique
patient - extremes of body weight, smoking, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why would i be suitably qualified as an expert witness ?

A
  • Academic qualifications (1 mark): One of: 1st degree, MSc, Ph.D.
  • Professional qualifications (1 mark): membership of GPhC and other professional bodies
  • Work Experience (2 marks): Current job, years of experience, other relevant experience
  • Expert witness experience (1 mark): Amount of experience as an expert witness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

discuss which factors should be
assessed when formulating an end-of-life care plan

A
  • Address the spiritual needs of the patient and the family
  • The availability of anticipatory or just-in-case medications and the community administration chart to give the medications against
  • Deprescribing unnecessary medications
  • Understand and address the psychological needs of the patient (and family) (provide counselling etc)
  • Understand the package of care required if necessary for the patient to go home
  • Provide links to family support networks.
  • Access to Macmillan nurses/palliative care teams
  • Address the oral hygiene needs of the patient through their palliative care journey.
  • Ensure a patient-centred approach to the patient’s end-of-life pathway.
  • Communication of the care plan to the patient and the patient’s family. Sensitivity in communication, empathetic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why are anticpatory boxes used in the later stages of palliative care?

A
  • Access to medications out of hours.
  • Prevent patient distress/ symptom control
  • Prevent family having to travel to find medications, prevent family distress at watching patient in distress, not spending final moments with patient.
  • Less stress and more useful for district nurse’s time.
  • Allows a psychological safety net for patient when leaving hospital – they know medications are there ready for when they need them.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Compare and contrast the differences in approach towards the development and supply of new psychoactive substances (‘street’ drugs) and conventional medicinal products. Include in your answer discussion relating to quality control/quality assurance around drug efficacy and safety; drug purity, labelling and consumer information; dosing and frequency of consumption; and the risk of adverse effects on health and wellbeing.

A

QA/QC around efficacy and safety: NPS: little evidence of efficacy/safety testing within experimental models (in vitro/in vivo) prior to human consumption, user ‘experiences’ widely shared online (1). Medicines: a rigorous process of efficacy/safety testing in multiple experimental models (in vitro/ in vivo) according to medicine regulator mandates (1).
Drug purity, labelling, consumer information: NPS: little control of drug purity, common to see drug mixtures or agents ‘cut’ with cheap bulking agents. Poor and inadequate labelling is common, even mislabelling; and consumer misinformation or sparse information on consumption (1). Medicines: rigour in bulk synthesis and formulation to GMP/GLP standards, including stability and impurity profiling (1).
Dosing/frequency of consumption: NPS: Dosing and dosing frequency is largely guesswork based on anecdotal online information or users’ experimentation; slow onset of psychoactive effect or too high starting dose increases likelihood of overdose with potential for long-term major organ toxicity or injury through accident (1). Medicines: rigorous dose range experiments in animal models prior to establishing a cautious efficacious starting dose for the patient (1).
Risk of adverse effects on health and wellbeing: NPS: Taking psychoactive substances of unknown toxicity, manufactured with poor quality control and often in combinations, heightens risk of overdose and consumer harm, as well as risk of dependency/addiction (1). Medicines: side effects alerts monitored closely during clinical development and beyond, with reporting to regulatory authorities (e.g. yellow card scheme in UK) (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

c) Outline the pros and cons of developing a drug as a single enantiomer from a patient and regulatory standpoint

A

Pros of single enantiomer: Biological target is chiral, so one enantiomer expected to be more active than the other – optimise efficacy for an enantiomerically pure compound (1). ‘Inactive’ isomer might also present additional toxicity to patient (1). Cons of single enantiomer: Likely to be more expensive to synthesise and/or purify in single enantiomer form (1). If other enantiomer is equally efficacious and safe, why waste time and money developing single stereoisomer compound (1). Note drug regulator makes ultimate decision based on preclinical/clinical data (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

f) In the US, where the initial drug approval was obtained via the FDA, the cost of sotorasib is around US$17,900 (around £13,600) per patient per month. Sotorasib is currently protected by compound patent filings, with an expected US expiry date in 2038. Given that the US drug price far exceeds the cost of drug manufacture, formulation and distribution, outline reasons for the high drug price, and the pros and cons of such a high price point. Include in your answer consideration of how a commercial focus for drug development and product pricing might impact on availability of sotorasib to patients from low and middle-income countries.

A

(f) High cost of research and development over many years of pre-clinical and clinical development (including cost of drug failures) (2). Need to recoup development costs whilst drug on patent (max 16 yrs exclusivity in US) (1). Once patent expires, generic competition on open market leads to dramatic fall in price of drug (1). Pros – incentivising large future investment in new innovative therapeutic products with improved patient outcomes versus standard of care within disease sub-types (1). Cons – exclusion of patients with unmet medical need on the basis of the ability to pay (either via healthcare provider or individually), disadvantaging LMICs (2).
[other potential mark for recognising that non-US countries like UK/NHS negotiate with manufacturers to make patented drugs available at lower price as a bulk purchaser (1)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(b) Briefly compare and contrast the quality assurance processes associated with the development and production of recreational stimulants such as BMPEA, and therapeutic medicinal products approved by regulators such as the U.K. Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

A

 Often developed over many years by user experimentation; lack of scientific rigour
(anecdotal evidence/reports) on determination of psychoactive properties and toxicological
side effects (2 marks).
Characterised by inter-batch variability (at least lack of control) over identity, purity, stability
and side effect profile (2 marks).
Regulated therapeutic products:

 Development takes years of pre-clinical (GLP studies)/clinical profiling on patient groups -
full efficacy and safety profiling to ensure product outperforms current market standards
within disease setting (2 marks).
Validated (GMP) scaled-up method of API manufacture, with consistent purity/impurity
profile and predictable stability (2 marks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

black triangle drugs what does the triangle indicate and when is it assigned?

A

Report all suspected ADRs for new drugs(marked ▼) - even if not serious
The black triangle indicates a medicine is being intensively monitored.

-new drugs
-new combinations of drugs
-novel routes or delivery systems for drugs
-significant new indications for drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

aids to help medicine taking

A

Multicompartment aids
Pill crusher
Blister popper
Tablet cutter
Pill timers/alarms
Eye drop holders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

why is polypharmacy a concern?

A

More medicines, more potential for adverse effects
Some adverse effects can lead to hospital admission
Drug interactions especially with complex medicines
Drug drug interactions
Drug disease interactions
Relationship between polypharmacy and frailty
Increased risk of falls
Complicated medicine regimes can cause adherence problems
Increased cost of medicines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

deprescribing definition

A

“deprescribing is the planned and supervised process of dose reduction or stopping of medication that might be causing harm, or no longer be of benefit. Deprescribing is part of good prescribing- backing off when doses are too high, or stopping medications that are no longer needed.”

35
Q

how do we know when people need palliative care?

A

Surprise question- would it be a surprise if this patient dies in the next 6 months?
Assess patient, family and dependents, including children, for support and palliative care needs
Review treatment and medication priorities
Consider patient for general practice palliative care register
Consider advance care plan discussions with family

36
Q

The dangers of assuming that just because something is derived from a plant, it must be
safe to consume
the importance of regulating dosage, since the product does not state clearly the
amount of BMPEA in each capsule

A
  • Quite common for products in an unregulated online market to not provide dosage advice (1 mark). There will be large interindividual differences in tolerance or onset of toxic side-effects, dependant on the user’s age, sex, genetics, health status, previous use of stimulants acting on similar pathways within the brain etc (3 marks).
37
Q

Briefly compare and contrast the quality assurance processes associated with the development and production of recreational stimulants such as BMPEA, and therapeutic medicinal products approved by regulators such as the U.K. Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

A

Natural product-based recreational substances:
* Often developed over many years by user experimentation; lack of scientific rigour (anecdotal evidence/reports) on determination of psychoactive properties and toxicological side effects (2 marks).
Characterised by inter-batch variability (at least lack of control) over identity, purity, stability and side effect profile (2 marks).
Regulated therapeutic products:
* Development takes years of pre-clinical (GLP studies)/clinical profiling on patient groups - full efficacy and safety profiling to ensure product outperforms current market standards within disease setting (2 marks).
Validated (GMP) scaled-up method of API manufacture, with consistent purity/impurity profile and predictable stability (2 marks).

38
Q

The product guidance states that the capsules should not be taken by children (<18 years of age) and are recommended to be consumed three times each day. Given that there seems to be very little published research around BMPEA, why might this guidance be of further concern

A
  • BMPEA is given as the first listed active (main) ingredient, but without knowing the dose within each tablet, this is a dangerous and risky situation for the consumer (1 mark). It is unlikely that BMPEA has not been through rigorous clinical studies, which would be required to assess the drug half-life in adults (1 mark) and mitigate against the risk of drug accumulation (with resulting dose dependent toxicity) through repeat dosing, if the drug is not cleared within a few hours (1 mark). Dosing three times per day would be unwise unless repeat dosing has been carried out over a prolonged period (e.g. 30 days) in animal models (usually rodent and non-rodent). The advice to not use in children is a wise precaution, given that clinical testing in this setting is unlikely to have occurred (1 mark). There will be inter-individual differences in drug metabolism/clearance, impacting on the effectiveness of the medicine (if metabolised too quickly), as well as drug accumulation effects on repeat dosing if metabolism/clearance too slow (1 mark).
39
Q

) Explain what it means to have a genetic risk factor as you can tell Angus isn’t very clear about this

A
  • There is a genetic mutation in a particular gene which is associated with an increased risk of getting Type II diabetes (1 mark).
  • This gene could have been inherited from his father (1 mark) or alternatively he could have inherited a non-mutated gene if it is only on one chromosome and he received the normal chromosome (1 mark).
  • It is probably a dominant mutation if inherited as there are a large number of relatives with the disease (1 mark).
  • However, it appears likely that it is only on one chromosome as not all his paternal relatives have the condition (1 mark).
    General use of non-technical language given Angus is a farmer and clarity of explanation (1 mark)
40
Q

Provide an explanation of sepsis to help reassure Mrs Jenkins that her husband is likely to be just suffering from a simple cold. This should include a description of the warning signs and symptoms for sepsis

A
  • Definition of sepsis (1 mark) – “Sepsis is a life threatening condition that arises when the body’s dysregulated immune response to an infection injures its own tissues and organs” Need to mention both immune response and infection to get 1 mark
  • Reassurance – incidence / likelihood argument: ~ 150,000 people in UK each year are affected by sepsis – it is a rare complication of infection (1 mark), as Mr Jenkins is otherwise fit and well, he doesn’t sit within any of the ‘at risk’ patient groups (1 mark)
  • Warning signs / symptoms - Slurred speech or confusion, Extreme shivering or muscle pain, Passing no urine (in a day), Severe breathlessness, It feels like you’re going to die, Skin mottled or discoloured (0.5 mark for each correct answer)
41
Q

In pre-hospital and secondary care settings, the National Early Warning Score (NEWS), is one tool used to identify those patients who may have / be at risk of developing sepsis. What six physiological parameters are recorded on a NEWS chart and how do these feed in to the sepsis-screening tool (4 marks)? If sepsis is suspected, the ‘sepsis six’ pathway should be initiated within 1 hour. What six processes should be initiated / performed under the ‘sepsis six’ umbrella (3 marks)?

A
  • Six parameters: Respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, temperature, blood pressure, heart rate and level of consciousness (0.5 mark for each parameter, maximum of 3 marks) (no mark for blood glucose as doesn’t contribute to score).
  • NEWS above threshold and suspected infection – think sepsis (1 mark)
  • Sepsis six: Administer oxygen, take blood cultures, give IV antibiotics, give fluid resuscitation, check serum lactate levels, measure urine output (0.5 mark for each, maximum of 3 marks)
42
Q

Describe how sepsis alters (i) absorption, (ii) distribution, (iii) metabolism, and (iv) excretion and, for each of (i) to (iv), the advice you would give to the company with regard to the rational design of a new antibiotic taking the altered pharmacokinetics into consideration

A
  • Absorption – decreased gastric and s/c absorption (GI system is non-essential and therefore often the first organ system to be shut down by the body, disseminated intravascular coagulation means reduce blood flow/supply to smaller vessels / peripheral system). (1 mark)
  • This coupled with the desire for a rapid onset of action means company will need to formulate drug for administration via IV route. (1 mark)
  • Distribution – Volume of distribution is higher in sepsis patients as a consequence of fluid resuscitation. (1 mark) (This can be problematic if antibiotic is particularly hydrophilic (e.g. beta-lactams / aminoglycosides). Lipophilic antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones / macrolides are less affected.)
  • Company therefore need to consider relative hydrophilicity / lipophilicity of molecules they are synthesising. (1 mark)
  • Metabolism – hepatic metabolism often altered / impaired, with phase 1 (CYP mediated) mechanisms being greatly affected by failure of the hepatic system. (1 mark)
  • Need to consider likely route of metabolism for new drug. (1 mark)
  • Excretion – significant changes often seen in renal function / urine output in sepsis patients. (1 mark) Want to rapidly achieve a therapeutic concentration without causing toxicity so will need to consider loading vs. maintenance dose. Dosing regime will depend on clearance rates (1 marks)
43
Q

As we head towards a post-antibiotic era, provide ONE other potential therapeutic strategy that could be employed in the fight against sepsis. Provide justification for your approach including mechanism of action and therapeutic effect

A
  • Target any of coagulation, pro-inflammatory immune response, compensatory anti-inflammatory/ immunosuppressive response. (1 mark)
  • Justification must be provided with reference to a proposed mechanism of action / therapeutic effect. (3 marks)

Monoclonal antibodies may provide benefits through two major strategies: (a) monoclonal antibodies targeting the pathogen and its components, and (b) mAbs targeting inflammatory signaling may directly suppress the production of inflammatory mediators

44
Q

Explanation on why an opioid like fentanyl is available as a transdermal patch?

A
  • Answer covers the key physico-chemical properties of fentanyl that makes it suitable for skin permeation, i.e. MW<500; Log P 1-4; Melting Point<200 deg C, Potent dose; Reasonable half-life’ non-irritating. Answer could also refer to the convenience and appropriateness of a patch format for treating chronic pain.
45
Q

Explanation on whether there should be any concerns given the age of Mr James (elderly) on a fentanyl patch

A
  • Elderly patients may have reduced clearance and a prolonged half-life so they should be observed carefully for signs of fentanyl toxicity and the dose reduced if necessary (there are lower dose patches available as shown above) (1). However, fentanyl is less reliant on renal clearance (metabolized in liver to inactive metabolites) and so there may not be too many concerns (1).
46
Q

Briefly explain why the development of new antibiotics is currently an important topic in healthcare

A

Five correct and relevant points, answer could include: Rise of AMR (1), reason why e.g. inappropriate or over-prescribing (1), no new treatments for many years (1), comment on consequences if nothing done (all drugs ineffective) (1), mention of O’Neill report or Dame Sally Davies (1) showing Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is a significant and increasing threat to public health globallyetc.

47
Q

iCure has applied for patent protection for methamphenicol, but to ensure their financial position they are considering a ‘chiral switch’ for a second generation of this drug. Explain why this strategy could be applied to methamphenicol and briefly outline the advantages and disadvantages associated with a chiral switch

A

Why? 3 marks, e.g. one of: has a chiral center (1) currently racemate (1) could mimic single enantiomer of chloram (1). Total 3 for advantages / disadvantages but must be at least one of each. E.g. one enantiomer will be more active (probably) (1), make more novel – new patent, more effective BUT evergreening / high expense of production etc

A chiral switch is a chiral drug that has already approved as racemate but has been re-developed as a single enantiomer

48
Q

Challenges faced with the end of life care

A
  • Polypharmacy with multiple changes and multi-agency involvement
  • Prescribing cascades
  • Unlicenced use of licenced medication
  • Poor compliance
  • OOH access and crises
  • Bereavement and medicines disposal
49
Q

what are the 7 pillars of clinical governance

A

audit
clinical effectiveness
risk management
patient involvement
education and training
info management
staff management

50
Q

Risk management

A

*The process of making and carrying out decisions that will minimise the adverse effects of accidental losses on an organisation.
*Aim is to protect the safety and welfare of patients, visitors and staff.

*Proactive
*Failure Modes Effects Analysis

*Reactive
*Root Cause Analysis

51
Q

Root Cause Analysis and its process

A

a structured investigation that aims to identify the true cause of a problem and the actions necessary to eliminate it.

*Gathering information about an incident
*Mapping information
*Identifying problems
*Analysing problems for contributory factors
*Determining root causes
*Developing recommendations and implementing solutions

52
Q

ways wrong with taking drugs in sport

A

health
immoral
not natural
against the rules
unfair

53
Q

techniques used the identify a substance

A

NMR
time of flight
Mass spec

54
Q

What do stimulants do?

A

Stimulants are a class of drugs that increase activity in the central nervous system and the body, leading to increased alertness, attention, and energy. They achieve these effects by enhancing the effects of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, particularly dopamine and norepinephrine.

Many stimulants activate the sympathetic nervous system, which triggers the “fight or flight” response, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels.

55
Q

How would you do a patient centered approach to polypharmacy?

A

Assess patient
*Define context and overall goals
*Identify medicines and potential risks
*Assess risk and benefits
*Agree on actions to stop , continue , start
*Communicate actions
*Monitor and adjust

56
Q

Pros and cons of carers only being able to get meds from Monitored Dosage Systems (MDS)

A

Cons
*Not all oral doses can be packages
*Antibiotics for a few days won’t be in MDS
*When required meds where do they go
*Stability of meds

Pros

*Saves time for carers
*If it’s the only way the careers will give meds is mean the patient will get meds

57
Q

Pharmacovigilance

A

The study of the safety of medications once on the market

58
Q

Role of Preclinical Testing:

A

Preclinical testing is a critical phase in the development of new medical treatments, including drugs, biologics, and medical devices. It serves several essential roles in ensuring that these new interventions are safe and effective before they are tested in humans. Here are the key roles of preclinical testing:

Safety Assessment:

Toxicology Studies: Preclinical testing involves extensive toxicology studies to identify any potential toxic effects of a new compound. This includes acute, subacute, and chronic toxicity testing, which helps determine safe dosage ranges and identify target organs that may be at risk.
Carcinogenicity and Genotoxicity: Tests are conducted to assess whether the new compound has the potential to cause cancer or genetic mutations, which is crucial for long-term safety.
Pharmacokinetics (PK) and Pharmacodynamics (PD):

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion (ADME): Preclinical testing studies how the drug is absorbed, distributed throughout the body, metabolized, and excreted. This helps in understanding the drug’s behavior in the body and predicting its interactions and side effects.
Mechanism of Action: Preclinical studies help elucidate the biological mechanism through which the drug exerts its effects, providing insight into how it works and its potential therapeutic benefits.
Efficacy Evaluation:

In Vitro Studies: These studies are conducted using cells or tissues in a controlled laboratory environment to determine if the drug has the desired biological activity.
In Vivo Studies: Animal models are used to evaluate the efficacy of the drug in a living organism, which helps in understanding its therapeutic potential and side effects in a more complex biological system.
Dose Range Finding:

Preclinical studies help establish the appropriate dosage ranges for initial human trials by identifying the maximum tolerated dose and the effective dose range. This is crucial for designing safe and effective clinical trials.
Formulation Development:

During preclinical testing, different formulations of the drug are tested to determine the most effective way to deliver the drug (e.g., oral, intravenous, topical), ensuring optimal bioavailability and stability.
Regulatory Compliance:

Preclinical testing generates the data required for regulatory submissions. Agencies like the FDA, EMA, and other global regulatory bodies require comprehensive preclinical data to approve the initiation of clinical trials in humans.
Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) Standards: Preclinical studies must adhere to GLP standards to ensure the reliability, quality, and integrity of the data collected.
Risk Assessment:

Preclinical testing helps identify potential risks and adverse effects, enabling researchers to design clinical trials that minimize risks to human subjects. This includes determining potential drug-drug interactions and contraindications.
Ethical Considerations:

By thoroughly testing new treatments in preclinical models, researchers can minimize the risks to human participants in clinical trials. This aligns with ethical principles of minimizing harm and maximizing benefits in medical research.

59
Q

Factors to be considered in assessing human risk for drug development:

A

*Organ, tissue, cell type affected
*Seriousness and reversibility of the lesion
*Plasma concentrations at no adverse effect dose and active dose (safety margin)
*Observations in different animal species (role of metabolism)
*Previous experience with related compounds
*Mechanism of toxic response
*Intended patient population
*Availability of biomarker for patient monitoring

60
Q

patient considerations surrounding surgery - smoker

A

Wound healing, intra and post
operative breathing problems,
pneumonia, increased risk of small
and large vessel disease
- DVT
- Cardiovascular
- intra-operative breathing problems
- Post -operative chest infection

61
Q

patient considerations surrounding surgery - extremes of BMI

A
  • associated medical conditions, temperature regulation, anaesthetic considerations, surgical considerations
    · extreme body sizes make it hard to get to parts of the body - lung not ventilated and breathing tube gone too far in
62
Q

general post- op problems immediate, early and late

A

Immediate
primary haemorrhage
shock
low urine

Early
secondary haemorrhage
DVT
Pneumonia

Late
bowel obstruction
recurrence of reason for surgery

63
Q

vurchows triad - risk factors for DVT

A

venous stasis - immobility , af
Stasis refers to the slowing or pooling of blood flow

trauma (damage to the inner lining of blood vessels which can trigger the clotting process) - hypertension , smoking , injury

hypercoagubility - dehydration , pregnancy (Elevated levels of clotting factors) , inherited

64
Q

What do stimulants, narcotic analgesics and anabolic agents do in sports?

A

improve reaction time and slow fatigue

Narcotic analgesics able to train and compete despite pain and injury - inject into eyes boxing

muscle grow larger can speed recovery from hard training

65
Q

Lack of quality control or rigorous testing within a unregulated market can lead to:

A

*Variability in identity, dose and purity for a given drug substance, and likely use of drug mixtures and “cutting” agents
*Large inter-individual differences in tolerance or onset of effects/side-effects (depending on user’s age, sex, genetics, health status, previous use of stimulants acting on similar pathways within the brain etc)
rely on friends saying how much to take and the effects which can cause overdoses
It can lead to Ineffective Treatment: Medications may not provide the intended therapeutic benefit if they are not tested rigorously for efficacy. This can result in disease progression or failure to manage symptoms effectively.
False Claims: Unregulated markets may promote drugs with exaggerated or false claims of efficacy, misleading patients and healthcare providers.

66
Q

What are the Principles of Prescribing in the Elderly?

A

*Avoid prescribing prior to diagnosis
*Start with a low dose and titrate slowly
*Avoid starting 2 agents at the same time
*Reach therapeutic dose before switching or adding agents
*Consider non-pharmacologic agents

67
Q

What can go wrong with discharge information?i.e. GP to GP, Hospital to home, home to care home?

A

Discharge communication
* Unintentional changes
* Intentional changes
* Misunderstandings
* Inaccurate information
* Unclear information
* Wrong information

68
Q

how are preclinical studies Strictly regulated environments?

A

Good Laboratory Practices
*All animal experimentation is subject to ‘ethical review’ and is conducted under licence from the Home Office and subject to frequent, random inspections
Animal Welfare: Regulations also govern the use of animals in preclinical testing to ensure humane treatment and the application of the 3Rs (Replacement, Reduction, Refinement).
*Toxicology reports are assessed by government regulatory agencies to approve clinical studies and, ultimately, grant a licence to market

69
Q

Why is it useful to predict toxicologies and how do you go about doing it?

A

Useful to be able to predict toxicity in advance: avoid late withdraw
of drug from clinical trials / the market.
 Prediction is HARD, an imperfect science (LD50 long gone)
* Binding assays (‘wet screening’)
* Off-target in silico screening (e.g. virtual kinase libraries)
* Metabolomics (including urine analysis)
* Consideration of structural alerts

70
Q

Can supplements be used in sport and what is informed sport?

A

Supplements are not banned themselves but may
contain banned substances.
* Seen to be effective – little empirical
evidence
Informed Sport is a global testing and supplement certification programme which provides assurance to athletes that products carrying the Informed Sport mark have been tested for prohibited substances and manufactured to high-quality standards.

71
Q

What is the SIRS criteria for Sepsis?

A

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome
* Heart rate > 90 beats/minute
* Respiratory rate > 20 breaths/minute
* Temperature < 36.0 or > 38.3°C
* Blood glucose > 7.7 mmol/L
* White blood cell count < 4 or > 12 x 109 / L

  • Acutely altered mental state
    • e.g. confusion, slurring of speech
72
Q

Describe the processes of preclinical testing

A

In Vitro Studies - testing the new drug in a controlled laboratory environment, often using cell cultures. These studies are aimed at understanding the drug’s biological activity, mechanism of action, and potential efficacy.

In Vivo animal studies: Following successful in vitro tests, the drug is tested in animals to evaluate its pharmacokinetics (how the drug moves through the body), pharmacodynamics (the effects of the drug on the body), toxicity, and efficacy in a more complex biological system.

Pharmacological Studies
Purpose: These studies further investigate the drug’s mechanism of action and therapeutic potential in more detail, often using animal models of disease.

Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) Compliance
Purpose: Ensuring that all preclinical studies adhere to GLP standards, which are a set of principles intended to assure the quality and integrity of non-clinical laboratory studies.

73
Q

Which of the pre-clinical stages does silicon modelling fit into?

A

In silico modeling, which involves computer-based simulations and predictions, fits into several stages of preclinical testing. Its integration into the preclinical process enhances efficiency and reduces reliance on traditional in vitro and in vivo methods

In silico modeling is used to predict the binding affinity of drug candidates to their target proteins
In silico models can predict how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted (ADME) in animal models

74
Q

Define medication errors

A

Medication errors - Incident in which there has been an error in the process of prescribing, dispensing, preparing, administering, monitoring or providing medicines advice (1), regardless of whether any harm occurred (1).

75
Q

What is public health?

A

The art and science of preventing disease, promoting health and prolonging life with the organised effort of society

76
Q

HOW TO SPOT SEPSIS IN CHILDREN

A

Is breathing very fast
Has a ‘fit’ or convulsion
Looks mottled, bluish, or pale
Has a rash that does not fade when you press it
Is very lethargic or difficult to wake
Feels abnormally cold to touch

A child under 5 may have sepsis if he or she:

Is not feeding
Is vomiting repeatedly
Has not passed urine for 12 hours

77
Q

In your role as a hospital
pharmacist and as part of the multi-disciplinary team, discuss which factors should be
assessed when formulating an end-of-life care plan for Sarah for her to go home.

A

 Address the spiritual needs of the patient and the family
 The availability of anticipatory or just in case medications and the community
administration chart to give the medications against
 Deprescribing unnecessary medications
 Understand and address the psychological needs of the patient (and family) (provide
counselling etc)
 Understand the package of care required if necessary for the patient to go home
 Provide links to family support networks.
 Access to Macmillan nurses/palliative care teams
 Address the oral hygiene needs of the patient through their palliative care journey.
 Ensure a patient centred approach to the patients end of life pathway.
 Communication of the care plan to the patient and the patients’ family. Sensitivity in
communication, empathetic

78
Q

Sarah’s husband Dean arrives at your community pharmacy on Friday afternoon
in visible distress. He hands over a prescription for anticipatory medications for end of
life. Which medications would you expect to see in a just-in-case box (anticipatory
medications) and why are such boxes used in the later stages of palliative care?

A

2 marks for drugs, & up to 4 marks for suitable reasons for anticipatory prescribing.
Drugs in anticipatory boxes:
(Accept drug group or specific drug name)
Opioid analgesic – Morphine/Diamorphine
Antiemetic – Cyclizine
Agitation/anxiety/restlessness (&/or) – Midazolam (Benzodiazapine)
Excess secretions (“death rattle”) – Hysocine hydrobromide (Antimuscarinics)
Reasons for anticipatory prescribing:
 Access to medications out of hours.
 Prevent patient distress/ symptom control
 Prevent family having to travel to find medications, prevent family distress at watching
patient in distress, not spending final moments with patient.
 Less stress and more useful for district nurse’s time.
 Allows a psychological safety net for patient when leaving hospital – they know
medications are there ready for when they need them.

79
Q

Dean mentions that Macmillan nurses have been to visit Sarah and had a
conversation about signing a community DNAR (do not attempt resuscitation) form.
He states that Sarah adamantly refused to sign the DNAR as she felt she would be
‘giving up’ if she did. Dean explains that he feels a DNAR would be a good thing for
Sarah as he does not wish to see his wife in distress or put through any unnecessary
pain at the end of her life for a resuscitation attempt that he sees as futile. He asks for
your opinion on signing the form and asks you to speak to Sarah and try to persuade
her that signing the DNAR would be the right thing to do. How would you respond to
this? (In your answer consider the legal, ethical and professional implications of your
response)

A

 Legally shouldn’t be persuading or giving a personal opinion to a patient. Trying to
persuade could be seen as coercion of the patient.
 Ethically – The patient has ultimate control over her own life and therefore whilst
considered to have capacity to make health decisions she can refuse to sign the form if she
wishes regardless of the husbands wishes. Students may address the ability to have capacity
to make health decisions and what this implies to the scenario.
 Professional – Need to be seen within good standards and trustworthy – students should
be considering how they deal with the request sensitively and empathetically whilst not
voicing their own personal opinion.
 Sign posting to other support, Macmillan or palliative care nurses or any other suitable
resources for reassurance and support.
 Encouragement of family conversations and speaking to both the husband and wife
together – advocating for the patient centred approach

80
Q

What do Aromatic nitro groups cause (NH2, NO2)?

A

Nitro (1). Aromatic NO2 well known toxicity (1). Enzymic metabolism (1) to nitroso (1) irreversible
protein binding (1)

81
Q

What do Quinones, michael acceptors and halides do?

A

React with nucleophiles!
Quinone - causes liver damage

82
Q

What do carboxylic acids do?

A
  • Toxicology of carboxylic acids hard to predict
  • Idiosyncratic drug toxicity (IDT) often blamed on carboxylic acid groups
  • Mechanism believed to be formation of acyl glucuronides that are
    chemically stable and reach high plasma concentrations….
  • ….then irreversibly transfer glucuronide to proteins and nucleic acids
  • Some evidence that increased plasma half life of acyl glucuronides =
    greater risk of IDT
83
Q

State FOUR sanctions available to the GPhC Fitness to Practise Committee (FTP) if a
finding of current ‘impaired fitness to practise’ is made

A

Removal, suspension, warning and conditions

84
Q

In healthcare regulation the term ‘public interest’ is used. There are three limbs associated
with this term. State each of these

A

Protect members of the public
 Maintain public confidence in the profession
 Declare and uphold proper standards of conduct and behaviour