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Comp 9 exam > Key Terms > Flashcards

Key Terms Flashcards

1
Q

Labetalol initial dose

A

0.1 - 0.5 mg/kg

5-10 mg

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2
Q

Dobutamine infusion dose

A

0.5 - 20 mcg/kg/min

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3
Q

What type of diuretic is Furosemide?

A

Works on the ascending loop of henle

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4
Q

What is the loading dose for amiodarone?

A

300 mg for cardiac arrest

150 mg for dysrhythmias

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5
Q

Insulin infusion dose

A

0.5 - 3 units / hr

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6
Q

Drugs that must be protected from light (2)

A 
SNP 
Nifedipine (Ca channel blocker)
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7
Q

PMI location

A

5th intercostal space, midclavicular line

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8
Q

Fibrinogin normal values

A

1.5 - 3 g/L

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9
Q

How do you assess tricuspid regurgitation with a PA catheter?

A

CVP in right atrium

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10
Q

What is at risk during left IJV cannulation?

A

Thoracic duct injury

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11
Q

What are physical signs associated with hypocalcemia? (8)

A 
Chvostek's sign
Trousseau's sign 
Hypotension
Mental status changes
Laryngospasm
Dysrhythmias
Long QT interval
Heart block
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12
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

> 25 mmHg

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13
Q

Convert C to Farenheit

A

9/5 C + 32

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14
Q

What is the propofol infusion dose for a TIVA?

A

100-200 mcg/kg/min

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15
Q

What are the side effects of HCTZ? (7)

A 
Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
Orthostatic hypotension
Dysrhythmias
Hypokalemia
Hypovolemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia
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16
Q

What is the maximum flow rate from oxygen flush valve?

A

75 L/min

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17
Q

What is the correct positions for the V5 EKG lead?

A

5th left intercostal, anterior axillary line

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18
Q

What are the side effects of meperidine? (4)

A

Anti-muscarinic
Tachycardia
Seizures
Itching

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19
Q

Vasoactive infusion that can cause tachyphylaxis?

A

SNP

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20
Q

What sympathomimetics have negligible beta-2 action? (2)

A

Norepi

Methoxamine

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21
Q

What is the infusion rate for epi?

A

4-10 mcg/min

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22
Q

What is the S1 heart sound?

A

closure of mitral and trucuspid valves at beginning of systole

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23
Q

How is the liver perfused and oxygenated?

A

Portal vein supplies 75% of blood flow and 25% of O2

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24
Q

What are the contraindications for droperidol? (2)

A

Parkinson’s disease

Prolonged QT interval

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25
Q

Oxygen tension in the heart

A

P02, decr in tension causes local vasodilation in order to maintain contractility and O2 delivery to poorly perfused tissue

26
Q

NTGs mechanism of action

A

Increases NO release from tissues

Upregulated cGMP

27
Q

Why does propofol appear white?

A

Scattering of light from oil droplets

28
Q

What is the time of infusion for vancomycin

A

45 min - 1 hour

29
Q

What is the action of hydromorphone?

A

mu agonist

8x as potent as morphine but shorter acting

30
Q

What is normal bicarbonate level?

A

22-29 mEq/L

31
Q

What can aintree be used for during FFOB? (2)

A

HPOV

intubating stylet for ETT

32
Q

What does COPD look like on flow volume loop?

A

Flattened expiration loop (top portion)

33
Q

What disease is associated with click-murmur?

A

mitral valve prolapse

34
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

unequal pupils

CN 3,4, and 6

35
Q

What is ASA I, II, III, IV?

A 
I: No systemic disturbances
II: Mild to moderate
III: Severe
IV: Life threatening
V: Moribund
VI: Organ donor
36
Q

Bandwidth for EKG for monitoring?

A

0.05 - 150 Hz

37
Q

Where do you listen to the aorta?

A

Right of sternum

2nd interspace

38
Q

Hematocrit definition?

A

% of RBCs in whole blood

39
Q

What does carboxyhemoglobin do to pulse ox?

Methemoglobin?

A

falsely high 90%

falsely high 85%

40
Q

What are peaked waves on EKG indicate?

A

hyperkalemia

41
Q

What is the volume/pressure of O2 cylinder?

A

660 L

2200 psi

42
Q

What is the pressure of N2O cyclinder?

A

745 psi

43
Q

Reference point for CPP monitoring?

A

External auditory meatus

44
Q

Normal A-a on RA?

A

4 + age/4

45
Q

Normal A-a not on RA?

A

FiO2 * 5

46
Q

PAO2 formula

A

FiO2 *(760-47) - (PaCO2/0.8)

47
Q

What drug increases photo sensitivity?

A

Amiodarone

48
Q

What drugs are prone to tachyphylaxis? (4)

A

SNP
Local anesthetic
Ephedrine
Dopamine

49
Q

What are the signs of hypokalemia? (5)

A 
U waves
ST depression
flattened t waves
weakness
prolonged NMB
50
Q

Core temperature can be reliably assessed from what locations even during CPB? (4)

A

Pulmonary artery
Esophagus
Tympanic membrane
Nasopharynx

51
Q

What type of heat transfer is responsible for the majority of heat loss to the environment?

Then, what are the remaining factors from greatest to least?

A

Radiation
Convection
Conduction
Evaporation

52
Q

Most patients lose __-___C in the first hour.

A

1 - 1.5 C

53
Q

What is the initial phase of cooling?

A

redistribution

54
Q

What are the phases of cooling?

A

Initial redistribution
Phase I: Core temperature decreases in 1st hour
Phase II: Heat loss to environment
Phase III: Plateau when heat loss equals heat production (steady state)

55
Q

Perioperative hypothermia results in ___-fold increase in wound infections and ___ day increase in hospital stay.

A

3 fold

2 day

56
Q

What is the thermoregulatory threshold for shivering decreased to for general anesthesia?

A

34.5*C

57
Q

Propofol-nitrous decreases threshold further to ___*C.

A

33

58
Q

What increases risk for hypothermia?

A

Old, short, low pre-op BP

59
Q

What are the consequences of hypothermia? (8)

A 
Increased infection
Mortality
Arrhythmias
Ischemia and angina
Decreased drug metabolism
Decreased platelet function
Decreased activation of clotting cascade
Increased blood loss
60
Q

How much decrease in *C is neuroprotective?

A

1-3

61
Q

What is first to cool and first to rewarm during CPB and not best temperature site?

A

esophageal

62
Q

Do not use warming devices on what areas? (3)

A

Leg warmer during AAA cross clamp
Extremity warmer with tourniquet
Lead warming during CPB

Comp 9 exam (3 decks)

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