Key Information

Question 1

When can an aircraft descend below the LSALT / MSA

Answer 1

Don’t Venture In Too Close
- DME GPS Arrival
- Vectored by Radar
- Instrument Approach
- Thirty miles by day (VMC: clear of cloud, 5km VIS, in sight of ground or water)
- Circling area by night or 5nm on PAPI/VASIS, 7nm on PAPI/VASIS if the runway has an ILS, 10nm if established not below on-slope utilising the ILS
+ On-departure on climb to LSALT

Question 2

What is the scaling of the GPS modes?

Answer 2

Enroute (ENR): 2nm scaling
Terminal (TERM): 1nm scaling (active within 30nm if an approach is loaded in the GPS)
Approach (APP): 0.3 - 0.06nm scaling (active by the FAF and scales down closer to the MAP and only active if an approach is loaded in the GPS)

Question 3

When must a Missed Approach be conducted?

Answer 3

So Not Visual ROFL

• Straight-in landing can not be effected and a circling approach can not be made under the conditions, equal to or better than, those specified for circling
• Not visual when you reach the DA/RA height or MAP
• RAIM warning or loss of RAIM after the IAF
• Outside tolerance during the final segment
• Failure of aid or suspect aid and below MSA
• Lost visual reference during circling

Question 4

How to calculate an adjusted DA/RA or MDA when unable to achieve Missed Approach climb gradient

Answer 4

With all engines operating, CAO 20.7.4 requires aircraft to achieve a 3.2% climb gradient for a missed approach. When considering one engine inoperative situations though, the CAO requirement is just 1%. Use the aircraft’s manuals to determine gradients achievable in the missed approach. When the missed approach climb gradient of 2.5% cannot be achieved, a new MDA or DA can be determined using the following:
n = c - (x / y x c)
n = height to add to published MDA or DA
c = climb height from published MDA or DA to TOC (MAP)
x = actual ROC or % gradient
y = required ROC or % gradient

Question 5

List the required flight instruments for Part 135 Air Transport Operations >5700kg?

Answer 5

AATTCCVVPAAD
- Airspeed w/ Mach no. (Multi-Crew: 2)
- Altimeter x2
- Turn and slip (Multi-Crew: 2)
- Temperature
- Compass (magnetic heading)
- Clock
- Vertical speed (Multi-Crew: 2)
- Vacuum (if gyro instruments)
- Pitot heat
- Alternate static or two dual-flush mounted static ports
- Attitude indicator x3 (standby attitude to operate for 30 minutes after electrical failure
- Directional gyro (stabilised heading) (Multi-Crew: 2)

Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter and Vertical Speed Indicator must be connected to an alternate static source or dual flush mounted static sources.
Turn + Slip Indicator, Artificial Horizon and Directional Gyro must have duplicated power source. The Turn + Slip Indicator may be powered by an independent source.

Autopilot with altitude hold and heading mode. May be inoperative at the beginning of a flight only if conducted in VMC by day.

Windshield wipers.

Question 6

List required lighting for CASR Part 135 Air Transport

Answer 6

Instrument lights
Pilot and passenger compartment lights
Landing lights
Nav lights
Anti-collision lights
Emergency lighting
Torch for each crew member

Question 7

What is required to satisfy a Ramp Check

Answer 7

POH + MR
License + Medical
Flight Plan + Alternates
Weather + NOTAMs
Current Maps and Charts
Weight + Balance

Question 8

When may a pilot descend an aircraft below the circling MDA?

Answer 8

During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot:
- Maintains the aircraft within the circling area
- Maintains a visibility along the intended flight path not less that the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure
- Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment
Then the pilot may:
- By day and when obstacles can be seen: Descend below MDA from any position within the circling area to an altitude that maintains obstacle clearance (OCA) not less than that required for the aircraft performance category.
- By night: From a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg, complete a continuous descent from MDA to the threshold using rates of descent and manoeuvres normal to the aircraft type.
In any case, the aircraft must not descend below obstacle clearance until aligned with the landing runway.

• Circling must have been included in your last IPC
• Must be within the circling area (Cat B: 2.66nm)
• Satisfied you have the required visibility as published on plate
• You have the runway approach environment in sight
• Able to fly the rest of the flight path without excessive rates of descent or erratic manoeuvres
• Maintain visual contact with the runway
• You must not descend until you have intercepted your normal approach path

Question 9

What are the CAT B Approach Speeds?

Answer 9

V(at threshold): 91-120
Initial + Intermediate: 120-180 (140 max if conducting a reversal procedure)
Final: 85-130
Circling: 135
Missed Approach: 150

Question 10

What are the Holding speeds?

Answer 10

Up to and including FL140: 230 (170 if approach is limited to Cat A+B aircraft)
FL140-FL200: 240
Above FL200: 265

Question 11

What are the Holding times?

Answer 11

Up to and including FL140: 1 minute

Above FL140: 1.5 minutes

Question 12

What are the categories of aircraft?

Answer 12

• aeroplane
• helicopter
• powered-lift aircraft
• gyroplane
• airship

Question 13

What are the classes of aircraft?

Answer 13

• single-engine aeroplane
• multi-engine aeroplane
• single-engine helicopter
• single-engine gyroplane
• airship

Question 14

What is the validity of an IPC?

Answer 14

An instrument proficiency check is valid:
- From the month the holder passes the flight test to the end of the 12th month after the month in which the holder passes the flight test, or,
- For the period during which the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation in the relevant aircraft.
If the holder successfully completes an instrument proficiency check for the relevant aircraft within 3 months before the validity of the existing check expires, then the instrument proficiency check is valid to the end of the 12th month after the validity of the existing check.

Question 15

Privileges and Limitations of an Instrument Rating

Answer 15

Privileges
The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft:
(a) under the IFR; or
(b) at night under the VFR.

Limitations
The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to:
- conduct an instrument approach only if that aircraft is equipped for that kind of operation;
- pilot an aircraft in a single-pilot operation under the IFR only if, at some time in the past, the holder has passed an instrument rating flight test in a single-pilot aircraft or has completed an instrument proficiency check in a single-pilot aircraft;
- conduct a circling approach under the IFR only if:
* the holder passed the instrument rating flight test within the previous 12 months and that flight test included a circling approach; or
* the holder’s most recent instrument proficiency check (or operator’s proficiency check that covers IFR operations and is conducted by a flight examiner who holds an instrument rating flight test endorsement) included a circling approach; or
* the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an operation that includes circling approaches;
- conduct an instrument approach only if that holder has completed training in the conduct of that instrument approach and has demonstrated competence to CASA or an examiner.

Question 16

Recent Experience Requirements

Answer 16

To fly under the IFR: Must have conducted at least three instrument approach operations within the previous 90 days.
To pilot an aircraft of a particular category: Must have conducted at least one instrument approach operation in an aircraft of the same category within the previous 90 days.
2D approach: Must have conducted at least one 2D instrument approach within the previous 90 days.
3D approach: Must have conducted at least one 3D instrument approach within the previous 90 days.
Azimuth guidance: Must have conducted at least one 2D instrument approach using azimuth guidance within the previous 90 days.
Course deviation indicator: Must have conducted at least one instrument approach using a CDI within the previous 90 days.
All of the above recent experience requirements are considered to be met if the holder:
- the holder has successfully completed an operator proficiency check that covers IFR operations within the previous 3 months; or
- the holder is successfully participating in an operator’s training and checking system for an IFR operation.
Single Pilot Recency:
(1) The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft under the IFR in a single-pilot operation only if the holder has conducted a flight or simulated flight under the IFR in a single-pilot operation within the previous 6 months.
(2) For subregulation (1), the flight or simulated flight must:
(a) have a duration of at least one hour; and
(b) include at least one instrument approach or simulated instrument approach.

Question 17

CASR Part 135 MOS Chapter 11 – Altitude alerting equipment and assigned altitude indicator

Answer 17

Must be fitted to:
- piston-engine or unpressurised turbine aircraft operating in controlled airspace above FL150.
- pressurised turbine aircraft.

Unless equipped with an altitude alerting system, an aircraft operating in CTA under IFR shall be equipped with an assigned altitude indicator.

Question 18

CAO 20.18 Para 10 – Serviceability

Answer 18

For charter or RPT, all instruments and equipment must be serviceable before take-off unless approved by CASA, part of an MEL or the unserviceable instrument or equipment is a passenger convenience item only.

Question 19

Communications Failure

Answer 19

If VFR in Class G Airspace
a. Remain in VMC.
b. Broadcast Intentions (prefix “TRANSMITTING BLIND”).
c. Remain VFR in Class G airspace and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
d. Report arrival to ATS if on SARTIME or reporting schedules
(SAR 1800 815 257).
If in Controlled/Restricted Airspace or IFR in any airspace
a. Squawk 7600
b. Listen out on ATIS and/or voice modulated NAVAIDs.
c. Transmit intentions and make normal position reports (assume transmitter is operating and prefix calls with “TRANSMITTING BLIND”).
AND
if in VMC and are certain of maintaining VMC
a. Stay in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome (note special procedures if proceeding to a Class D).
OR
If in IMC or are uncertain of maintaining VMC
b. If no clearance limit received and acknowledged, proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
c. If a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction has been received and acknowledged:
i. maintain last assigned level, or MSA if higher, for three minutes and/or
ii. hold at nominated location for three minutes, then
iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
d. If receiving an ATS surveillance service:
i. climb to MSA/LSALT, and,
ii. if being vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes, then
iii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
e. If holding:
i. fly one more complete holding pattern, then
ii. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
Destination Procedures:
a. Track to the destination in accordance with flight plan (amended by the latest ATC clearance acknowledged, if applicable).
b. Commence descent in accordance with standard operating procedures or flight plan.
c. Descend to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid in accordance with the published procedures.
d. Carry out the approach to the prescribed minima.
Actions at Minima
a. If visual at the minima at an uncontrolled aerodrome, continue to land provided that a safe landing can be accomplished If visual at the minima at a controlled aerodrome continue to land provided that a clearance to land is received via a voice modulated NAVAID and/or light signal from the Tower.
b. If not visual at the minima, depart for a suitable alternate aerodrome.
c. If insufficient fuel is carried to divert to a suitable alternate, the pilot may hold or carry out additional approaches until visual.
d. Certain Class D aerodromes have specific communications failure procedures which are shown at each aerodrome entry in the FAC section

Question 20

Take-off Distance Required

Answer 20

CAO 20.7.4
Using charts for short dry grass, achieve TOSS at 50 ft at the achievable distance multiplied by:
(a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less;
(b) 1.25 for MTOW of 3,500 kg or greater
(c) Between 2,000 kg and 3,500 kg, use linear interpolation
Note: If using an approved foreign flight manual or a manufacturer’s data manual, the above factors may already be included in the data. CAO 20.7.4 Para 6.3 refers.

Question 21

Take-off Climb Performance

Answer 21

CAO 20.7.4
For all aircraft types, with landing gear extended, at take-off safety speed, without ground effect, and all engines operating at take-off power:
• 6%

Question 22

En-route Climb Performance

Answer 22

Multi-engine aeroplanes engaged in charter operations under the IFR or aerial work operations under the IFR:
1% at all heights up to 5,000 ft in the standard atmosphere in the following configuration:
(a) Critical engine failure
(b) Propeller of inoperative engine stopped
(c) Undercarriage and flaps retracted
(d) Remaining engine at maximum continuous power
(e) Airspeed not less than 1.2 VS
Note: Missed approaches are designed to a climb gradient of 2.5% and adjusting an MDA or DA should be considered to ensure terrain clearance in the missed approach. Refer to the Approaches section of this IFR Cheat Sheet.
Multi-engine aeroplanes engaged in all other operations:
Must have ability to maintain height at all heights up to 5,000 feet in the standard atmosphere in the following configuration:
(a) Critical engine failure
(b) Propeller of inoperative engine stopped
(c) Undercarriage and flaps retracted
(d) Remaining engine at maximum continuous power
(e) Airpseed not less than 1.2 VS
Single-engine aeroplanes:
4.5% at all heights up to 5,000 ft in standard atmospheric conditions in the following configuration:
(a) Engine at maximum continuous power
(b) Undercarriage and flaps retracted
(c) Airspeed not less than 1.2 VS

Question 23

Landing Climb Performance

Answer 23

For all aircraft types, in the landing configuration, with all engines operating at take-off power, at a speed not exceeding 1.3 VS:
• 3.2%
For all aircraft types, must have the ability to climb at a gradient of 3.2% in standard atmospheric conditions in the following configuration:
(a) Aircraft in landing configuration
(b) All engines at take-off power
(c) Speed not exceeding 1.3 VS

Question 24

Landing Distance Required

Answer 24

Using charts for short dry grass, and approaching at a speed not less than 1.3 VS maintained to 50 ft, come to a complete stop from 50 ft within the achievable distance multiplied by:
(a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less;
(b) 1.43 for MTOW of 4,500 kg or greater;
(c) Between 2,000 kg and 4,500 kg, use linear interpolation
Note: If using an approved foreign flight manual or a manufacturer’s data manual, the above factors may already be included in the data. CAO 20.7.4 Para 10.3 refers.

Question 25

Transponder codes

Answer 25

Jepp ATC – ATS Surveillance Services and Procedures 7.1.4
VFR in Class E or OCTA: 1200
IFR OCTA: 2000
IFR in Class E or civil flights in CTA: 3000

Question 26

VHF Theoretical Maximum Range

Answer 26

To determine the theoretical maximum range of VHF transmissions, the following formula can be used:
d = 1.23 (√(Htx) + √(Hrx))
Where:
d = distance in NM
Htx = elevation in feet of transmitter
Hrx = height in feet above ground level of receiver

Question 27

Alternate Requirements

Answer 27

Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.1.2 – Alternate Aerodromes - General
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.1.2)
When a flight is required to provide for an alternate aerodrome, any aerodrome may be so nominated for that flight provided:
a. it is suitable as a destination for that flight; and
b. is not an aerodrome for which that flight would require to provide for an alternate aerodrome.

Aids
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.3 – Radio Navigation Aids
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.3)
RPT and Charter operations must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome unless either:
(1) the destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio navigation systems, each of which is capable of using the aid; or
(2) the destination is served by two radio navigation aids for which independent and separate instrument approach procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio navigation systems capable of using these aids;
Aerial Work and Private operations must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome unless the destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with the radio navigation system capable of using the aid.
Notwithstanding the above, a flight may be planned under the IFR by day to a destination aerodrome which is not served by a radio navigation aid without the requirement to provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, provided that:
a. not more than SCT cloud is forecast below the final route segment LSALT plus 500FT and forecast visibility at the destination aerodrome is not less than 8KM; and
b. the aircraft can be navigated to the destination aerodrome in accordance with AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1.
Note: CAO 20.18 Para 9D.10 - If GNSS equipment in accordance with TSO-C129 is used, the requirement for navigation to an alternate aerodrome must be met by using ADF or VOR navigation (this also requires provision for a ground-based IAP if an approach in VMC is not possible).
Night VFR aircraft must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome within one hour flight time of the destination unless:
a. the destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, or
b. the aircraft is fitted with a GNSS receiver, appropriate for an aircraft operated at night under the VFR (as summarised in AIP GEN 1.5 Section 2), and the pilot is appropriately qualified.

Clouds, Visibility and Wind
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.2 – Weather Conditions
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.1)
Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast commencement of, the following weather conditions:
cloud - more than SCT below the alternate minimum (see AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.2.12 and Para 11.7.2.13 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.12 and 3.2.13)); or
visibility - less than the alternate minimum; or
visibility - greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with a percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or
wind - a crosswind or tailwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft.
Note: Wind gusts must be considered.
PROV and PROB
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.1.3 – General
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.1.3)
When an aerodrome forecast is not available or is “provisional”, the pilot in command must make provision for a suitable alternate that has a firm forecast.
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.2 – Weather Conditions
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.1)
If a TAF has been endorsed with a probability of conditions being below the alternate minima, an alternate must be planned for.
AIP GEN 3.5 Para 12.15.3 – Significant Variation
(Jepp METEOROLOGY – Aviation Forecasts 16.15.3)
Note: When thunderstorms or reduced visibility due to fog, mist, dust, smoke or sand is forecast but the probability is assessed at 30% or 40%, the terms PROB30 or PROB40 are used respectively. INTER and TEMPO may also be used with a PROB for thunderstorms. If greater than or equal to 50% probability is forecast, reference is made to the phenomenon in the forecast itself not by the addition of a PROB statement.

Lighting
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.8.3.1 – Aerodrome Lighting
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.3)
When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used, the pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods:
a. departure: 10 minutes before departure to at least 30 minutes after take-off;
b. arrival: from at least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed.
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.4 – Runway Lighting
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.4)
Portable Lighting
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome where the runway lighting is portable, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified in AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.8.3.1 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.3), to ensure that the runway lights are available during that period.
If No Standby Power Available
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting, whether pilot activated or otherwise, but without standby power, provision must be made for flight to an alternate aerodrome unless portable runway lights are available and arrangements have been made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the period specified in AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.8.3.1 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 2.3), to display the portable lights in the event of a failure of the primary lighting.
An alternate aerodrome nominated in accordance with the requirements in AIP ENR paras 11.7.4.2 and 11.7.4.3 (Jepp ATC - Airports and Ground Aids 3.4.6) need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting.
Pilot Activated Lighting
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with PAL and standby power, provision must be made for a flight to an alternate aerodrome equipped
with runway lighting unless a responsible person is in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.
An alternate aerodrome nominated in accordance with the requirements in AIP ENR paras 11.7.4.2 and 11.7.4.3 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.4.2 and 3.4.3) need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting.
Lighting Systems for Alternate Aerodrome
RPT or single VHF
The alternate aerodrome must be one which is:
a. served by a lighting system which is not pilot activated; or
b. served by PAL and there is a responsible person in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.
Non-RPT, cargo-only RPT or RPT below 3,500 KG MTOW
Where the alternate aerodrome is served by PAL, there is no requirement for a responsible person to be in attendance, but the aircraft must be equipped with:
a. dual VHF; or
b. single VHF and HF and carries 30 minutes holding fuel to allow for the alerting of ground staff in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF communication.

Storms
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 11.7.2.5 – Weather Conditions
(Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground Aids 3.2.5)
When thunderstorms or their associated severe turbulence or their probability is forecast at the destination, sufficient additional fuel must be carried to permit the aircraft to proceed to a suitable alternate or to hold for:
a. 30 minutes when the forecast is endorsed INTER; or
b. 60 minutes when the forecast is endorsed TEMPO.
Special Alternate Weather Minima
AIP ENR 1.5 Para 6.2 – Special Alternate Weather Minima
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 8.2)
Special alternate weather minima are available for specified approaches at some airports for use by aircraft with dual ILS/VOR approach capability; i.e. with duplicated LOC, G/P, marker and VOR receivers. The requirement for duplicated marker receivers may be satisfied by one marker receiver and DME. (The assumption is that such aircraft will also have two ADF systems, when an NDB is used for the ILS).
Special alternate weather minima are identified on applicable instrument approach charts by a double asterisk adjacent to the ALTERNATE title and a note detailing the special minima. These special alternate minima will not be available (minima will revert to the standard alternate minima) during periods when:
a. local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available; or
b. an airport control service is not provided

Question 28

Altimeter Checks

Answer 28

AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.1 – Pre-flight Altimeter Check
(Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1)
Whenever an accurate QNH is available and the aircraft is at a known elevation, pilots must conduct an accuracy check of the aircraft altimeter(s) at some point prior to take-off.
Note: Where the first check indicates that an altimeter is unserviceable, the pilot is permitted to conduct a further check at another location on the same airfield; for example, the first on the tarmac and the second at the runway threshold (to determine altimeter serviceability).
AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.2 – IFR Altimeters
(Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1.2)
With an accurate QNH set, the altimeter(s) should read the nominated elevation to within 60FT. If an altimeter has an error in excess of ± 75FT, the altimeter must be considered unserviceable.
When two altimeters are required for the category of operation, one of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. When the remaining altimeter has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check, the altimeter must be considered unserviceable for flight under the IFR.
An aircraft fitted with two altimeters but requiring only one for the category of operation may continue to operate under the IFR provided one altimeter reads the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. Should the remaining altimeter have an error in excess of 75 ft that altimeter must be placarded unserviceable and the maintenance release appropriately endorsed.
When an aircraft is fitted with only one altimeter and that altimeter has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check the altimeter is to be considered unserviceable for flight under the IFR.
AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.3 – VFR Altimeters
(Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1.3)
With an accurate QNH set, a VFR altimeter(s) should read site elevation to within 100FT (110FT at test sites above 3,300FT) to be accepted as serviceable by the pilot. If an aircraft fitted with two VFR altimeters continues to fly with one altimeter reading 100FT (110FT) or more in error, the faulty altimeter must be placarded unserviceable and the error noted in the maintenance release.
AIP ENR 1.7 Para 1.4 – Accurate QNH and Site Elevation
(Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 1.1.4)
A QNH can be considered accurate if it is provided by ATIS, Tower or an automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor. Area or forecast QNH must not be used for the test.
Site elevation must be derived from aerodrome survey data published by Airservices or supplied by the aerodrome owner.

Question 29

Take-Off Minima

Answer 29

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 4.4 – Take-off minima for other IFR aeroplanes
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 6.4)
The take-off minima in this section applies to an IFR aeroplane that is NOT a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane (see next section)
The take-off minima for the aeroplane are:
a. Cloud not more than SCT below 300 feet AGL
b. Visibility of 2000 metres
The pilot in command of the aeroplane must ensure that:
a. Terrain clearance is assured until reaching either en route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA; and
b. If a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible – the aeroplane’s performance and fuel availability are each adequate to enable the aircraft to proceed to a suitable aerodrome, having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.
It is a condition of the use of the minima that:
a. If a return to land at the departure aerodrome will be necessary in the event of an engine failure, the meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach landing minima for the aerodrome or such as to allow a visual approach; and
b. if an engine failure occurs at any time after V1, lift-off, or encountering non-visual conditions terrain clearance must be assured until either reaching en route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA.
AIP ENR 1.5 Para 4.3 – Take-off minima for qualifying multi-engine IFR aeroplanes
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 6.3)
The take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane are:
a. A ceiling of zero feet; and
b. Visibility of 800M
Note: This minima can be reduced to a visibility of 550M under certain conditions. Refer AIP ENR 1.5 Para 4.3.2 (JEPP Terminal – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 6.3.2).
A qualifying multi-engine aeroplane is one that meets the following requirements:
a. The aeroplane is:
(1) 2 pilot operated; or
(2) A single pilot operated jet aeroplane; or
(3) A single pilot operated propeller aeroplane with operative autofeather; and
b. For an aeroplane with a MTOW exceeding 5,700KG – the aeroplane is able to meet the relevant obstacle requirements of CAO 20.7.1B; and
c. For an aeroplane with a MTOW not exceeding 5,700KG:
(1) The gross climb gradient performance is at least 1.9% under ambient conditions with the loss of the most critical engine; and
(2) The aeroplane engine-out climb gradient under ambient conditions specified in the manufacturer’s data is at least 0.3% greater than the obstacle free gradient for the runway length required; and
(3) The pilot in command uses published obstacle free gradients only if such gradients are surveyed to at least a distance of 7,500M from end of TODA; and
(4) An operator-established obstacle free gradient is used only if:
- The gradient (having a 150M baseline at the end of TODA), 12.5% splays, and 7,500M distance) is established not more than 30° from runway heading; and
- The procedures involve not more than 15° of bank to track within the splay; and
d. For a two pilot operation – each pilot is:
(1) Endorsed on type; and
(2) Multi-crew trained on type; and
(3) Multi-crew proficiency checked within the previous 13 months; and
(4) Instrument rated
It is a condition of the use of the minima that:
a. If a return to land at the departure aerodrome will be necessary in the event of an engine failure, the meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodromes or such as to allow a visual approach; and
b. If an engine failure occurs at any time after V1, lift-off, or encountering non-visual conditions terrain clearance is assured until reaching either en route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA; and
c. If a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible – the aeroplane’s performance and fuel availability must each be adequate to enable the aeroplane to proceed to a suitable aerodrome, having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.

Question 30

Navigation Requirements Under the IFR

Answer 30

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1 – Flight Under the IFR
(Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 5.1)
An aircraft operating under the IFR must be navigated by:
a. an approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route; or
b. use of a radio navigation system or systems where, after making allowance for tracking errors of ± 9° from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used as a fix. The maximum time interval between fixes must not exceed two hours; or
c. visual reference to the ground or water by day, on route segments where suitable enroute radio navigation aids are not available, provided that weather conditions permit flight in VMC and the visual position fixing requirements of AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1.2.1.b (Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 5.2.1.b) are able to be met.
Note:
Distance able to be flown = 6.66 x rated coverage
Maximum time interval of 2 hours between fixes still applies
Fix can be achieved before station passage with GNSS or co-located DME within rated coverage

Question 31

Deviations in Controlled Airspace

Answer 31

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1.6 – Aircraft Deviations in Controlled Airspace - Advice to ATC
(Jepp ATC – General Flight Procedures 5.6)
The pilot must immediately notify ATC for any of the deviations described below:
NDB: ± 5°
VOR: Half-scale deflection
RNAV/RNP: Navigation error plus Flight Technical Error exceeded
DME: ± 2 NM
VISUAL: 1 NM

Question 32

Setting QNH Before IAF

Answer 32

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.3 – QNH Sources
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 7.3)
Prior to passing the IAF, pilots are required to set either:
(a) the actual aerodrome QNH from an approved source, or
(b) the Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH, or
(c) the forecast area QNH
Where Airservices Australia instrument approach charts are identified by a shaded background to either the minima titles for IAL charts or the published minima for DME or GPS arrival procedures, landing, circling and alternate minima have been calculated assuming the use of Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH. These minima may be reduced by 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set. Jeppesen instrument approach charts have minima for both actual aerodrome QNH and forecast aerodrome QNH.
Approved sources of actual QNH are ATC and ATIS except when the aerodrome forecast QNH is provided, AWIS and CASA approved meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.
Note: METAR QNH does not meet this requirement.
When the actual aerodrome QNH is not available, ATC will report the Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH on the ATIS. The ATIS will include information in the format “ACTUAL QNH NOT AVAILABLE, AERODROME FORECAST QNH…”
Note: Forecast QNH reported by ATC or on the ATIS is not an approved source of actual QNH.
Where the forecast area QNH is used, the minima used must be increased by 50FT.

Question 33

Descent Below the Straight-in MDA

Answer 33

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.8.2 – Descent Below the Straight-in MDA
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.15.2)
Descent below the straight-in MDA or continuation of the approach below the DA during APVs, may only occur when:
• visual reference can be maintained;
• all elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category (see AIP ENR 1.5 Para 5.1.1 (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 7.1.1)); and
• the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.

Question 34

Instrument Approach Tolerances – ILS

Answer 34

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 7.3 – Altimeter Checks and Flight Tolerances
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures Para 2.7.3.1)
The final approach segment contains a fix at which the glide path/altimeter relationship should be verified. If the check indicates an unexplained discrepancy, the ILS/GLS approach should be discontinued. Pilots must conform to the following flight tolerances:
a. To ensure obstacle clearance, both LOC/GLS final approach course and glideslope should be maintained within half scale deflection (or equivalent on expanded scale).
b. If, at any time during the approach after the FAP, the LOC/GLS final approach course or glideslope indicates full scale deflection a missed approach should be commenced.

Question 35

DME or GNSS Arrivals

Answer 35

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 11 – DME or GPS Arrival Procedures
(Jepp TERMINAL – DME/GPS Arrival Procedures)
The following specific restrictions apply to the conduct of a GPS Arrival:
a. The database medium (card, chip, etc) must be current and of a kind endorsed by the receiver manufacturer.
b. The coordinates of the destination VOR or NDB, to which the descent procedure relates, must not be capable of modification by the operator or crew.
c. GPS integrity (e.g. RAIM) must be available before descending below the LSALT/MSA.
d. The nominated azimuth aid (VOR or NDB) must be used to provide track guidance during the arrival procedure.
e. If at any time during the approach, there is cause to doubt the validity of the GPS information (e.g. RAIM warning), or if GPS integrity is lost (e.g. RAIM not available), the pilot must conduct a missed approach.
The clearance “CLEARED DME (or GPS) ARRIVAL” constitutes a clearance for final approach and authorises an aircraft to descend to the minimum altitude specified in the appropriate DME or GPS Arrival procedure. ATC is not permitted to impose any altitude restriction on such a clearance.
When cleared for a DME or GPS Arrival in controlled airspace an aircraft must not orbit, enter a holding pattern, or use holding pattern entry procedures. ATC will not issue a clearance for a DME or GPS arrival that involves the use of a holding pattern entry procedure.
When ATC cannot issue a clearance for an unrestricted DME or GPS arrival, the phrase “DESCEND TO (level) NOT BELOW DME (or GPS) STEPS” may be used. Such an instruction authorises descent in accordance with the DME or GPS steps only to the specified altitude.
ATC may clear an aircraft to intercept the final approach segment of another instrument approach procedure. When clearing an aircraft for such a procedure, ATC will use the phrase “DESCEND TO (level) NOT BELOW DME (or GPS) STEPS” and will issue further instructions prior to the aircraft’s reaching the cleared level.
Nothing in these procedures absolves the pilot in command from his/her responsibilities to maintain the aircraft on the authorised track or within the defined sector.
Note 1: Where the track being flown is not aligned with the landing runway, a clearance for a DME or GPS Arrival includes a clearance to manoeuvre within the circling area to position the aircraft on final for landing.
Note 2: Where possible, DME and GPS arrival procedures are designed to contain the aircraft within controlled airspace and provide 500FT separation from the CTA lower limit. However, there are locations where the procedure commences in Class G airspace, or which can take aircraft into Class G airspace on descent. Pilots should check procedures to ensure that aircraft are contained in CTA where required.

Question 36

Visual Approaches – issued by ATC

Answer 36

AIP ENR 1.1 Para 2.11.8.1 – ATC Authorisation
(Jepp ATC – Departure, Approach and Landing Procedures 1.10.7.1)
Visual approaches may be granted to IFR and VFR flights.
For an IFR flight by day when:
1) the aircraft is within 30 NM of the airport; and
2) the pilot has established and can continue flight with continuous visual reference to the ground or water; and
3) VIS along the flight path is not less than 5000M, or for helicopters 800M, or the airport is in sight.
For an IFR flight by night when:
1) the pilot has established and can continue flight to the airport with continuous visual reference to the ground or water; and
2) VIS along the flight path is not less than 5000M; and
3) the aircraft is within 30 NM of the airport; and
4) receiving an ATS surveillance, the flight has been assigned the minimum vector altitude (MVA) and given heading or tracking instructions to intercept final or to position the aircraft within the circling area of the airport.
For a VFR flight by day or night, the only condition is that the aircraft must be within 30 NM of the aerodrome.
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 2.11.8.4 – Tracking Requirements for visual approach
(Jepp ATC – Departure, Approach and Landing Procedures 1.10.7.4)
Tracking requirements for a visual approach include the following:
1) A PIC must maintain track/heading on the route progressively authorized by ATC until:
a) by day, within 5 NM of the aerodrome; or
b) by night:
- IFR, within the prescribed circling area; or
- VFR, within 3 NM of the aerodrome; and
- the aerodrome is in sight
2) From this position, the CCT must be joined, as directed by ATC for an approach to the nominated RWY.
AIP ENR 1.1 Para 2.11.8.7 – Minimum Altitude Requirements
(Jepp ATC – Departure, Approach and Landing Procedures 1.10.7.7)
During the conduct of a visual approach, a pilot must descend as necessary to:
1) By day:
a) IFR, remain not less than 500 FT ABV the LL of the CTA; and
b) IFR and VFR, operate not BLW the lowest safe altitude permissible for VFR flight (CAR 157).
2) By night:
a) IFR:
- maintain an altitude not less than the route segment LSALT/MSA or the appropriate step of the DME/GPS Arrival procedure, or 500 FT ABV the lower limit of the CTA, if this is higher; or
- if receiving an ATS surveillance service, operate not BLW the last assigned altitude;
until the aircraft is:
- within the prescribed circling area for the category of aircraft or a higher category, where the limitations of the higher category are complied with, and the aerodrome is in sight; or
- within 5 NM (7 NM for a RWY equipped with an ILS) of the aerodrome, aligned with the RWY centreline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI; or
- within 10 NM of the aerodrome (14 NM for RWYs 16L and 34L at YSSY), established not BLW the ILS glidepath with less than full scale azimuth deflection.
b) VFR:
- maintain not less than the lowest altitude permissible for VFR flight (CAR 174B) until the aircraft is within 3 NM of the aerodrome and the aerodrome is in sight.

Question 37

Visual Approaches – by pilot

Answer 37

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 1.15 – Visual Approaches
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.18)
Subject to the requirements of AIP ENR 1.5 Paragraphs 1.7, 1.10 and 1.14 (Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 4.14, 4.10 and 4.17), the pilot need not commence or may discontinue the approved instrument approach procedure to that aerodrome when:
1) By day. Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:
a) clear of cloud;
b) in sight of ground or water;
c) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, or the aerodrome is in sight; and
d) subsequently can maintain (a), (b) and (c) at an altitude not less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight (CAR 157) to within the circling area or, in the case of a helicopter, can subsequently maintain helicopter VMC to the HLS.
2) By night. At an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established;
a) clear of cloud;
b) in sight of ground or water
c) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M; and
d) within the circling area or VAA-H, as applicable; or
e) within 5NM (7NM for a runway equipped with an ILS) of that aerodrome aligned with the runway centreline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI; or
f) within 10NM (14NM for Runways 16L and 34L at Sydney) of that aerodrome, established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection.
Note: Reference to circling area in this section includes the circling area for the category of aircraft or a higher category where the limitations of the higher category are complied with.

Question 38

Landing Minima

Answer 38

AIP ENR 1.5 Para 4.7 – Landing Minima
(Jepp TERMINAL – Instrument Approach/Take-off Procedures 6.7)
Airports Without Approved Instrument Approach Procedures
▪ IFR Day – visual approach requirements
▪ IFR Night – VMC from LSALT within 3 NM
Airports With Approved Non-Precision Approach Procedures
▪ IFR Day and Night – as specified in the relevant IAL chart except when the installed HIAL is not available, visibility for a LOC approach must be increased by 900m.
Airports With Approved Precision Approach CAT I Procedures
Published DA and visibility minima may be used, except that:
a. minimum visibility 1.5 km is required when precision approach CAT I lighting system (known as HIAL) is not available; and
b. minimum visibility 1.2 km is required unless:
(1) the aircraft is manually flown at least to the CAT I DA using a flight director or approved HUDLS; or the aircraft is flown to the CAT I DA with an autopilot coupled (LOC and GP or GLS); and
(2) the aircraft is equipped with a serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems; and
(3) high intensity runway edge lighting is available.
c. minimum visibility 0.8 km is required if threshold RVR is not available.

Question 39

List the required navigation equipment for Part 135 Air Transport Operations >5700kg?

Answer 39

2 Approved GNSS, or,
1 Approved GNSS and either an ADF or VOR.

In the event of failure at any stage of flight, sufficient nav equipment remains to navigate the operational flight plan.

Question 40

ACAS, TAWS and Wx Radar

Answer 40

Aircraft must be fitted with an Airborne Collision Avoidance System which can produce RA’s.