Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GI ESA 3 > Key Facts > Flashcards

Key Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of Chief cells within the stomach?

A

Pepsinogen producers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe how TAGs are absorbed from the gut

A

Emulsified by bile and lipase to Fatty Acids. These then enter the enterocytes and reformed into TAGs. The TAGs combine to form chylomicrons, which enters lacteals and travel down lymphatics to empty into the subclavian vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give 5 roles of the Liver

A
  • Iron storage/ Glycogen storage
  • Detoxification (Cyt P450)
  • Making Albumin
  • Bile production
  • Gluconeogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is B12 absorbed?

A

Parietal cells make intrinsic factor to bind B12. B12 is then absorbed in the ileum. If no intrinsic = pernicious anaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does most nutrient absorption occur?

A

Jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does most water absorption occur?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is Bile reabsorbed?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Parasympathetic nervous supply to the gut?

A

Vagal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Sympathetic nervous supply to the gut?

A

Splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the two components of the enteric nervous system

A

Submucosal

Myenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How would you describe the innervation of the Parietal Peritoneum?

A

Somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Mesentery?

A

A double layer of visceral peritoneum that connects the intraperitoneal organs to the posterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the hole called between the Greater and Lesser sacs?

A

Foramen of Winslow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the Greater Omentum’s placement within the gut

A

Between the greater curve of the stomach, to the proximal duodenum, to the transverse colon - has an immune role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Greater Omentum formed from?

A

The dorsal mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the Lesser Omentum’s placement within the gut

A

Between the lesser curve of the stomach, to the proximal duodenum, to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the Foramen of Winslow?

A

In the lesser omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What travels along the Lesser Omentum?

A

The portal triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Lesser Omentum formed from?

A

Ventral mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 3 intraperitoneal structures of the gut

A

Stomach, Liver, Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name 3 retropritoneal structures of the gut

A

Duodenum, rectum, descending colon, kidneys, ureters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name a secondarily retroperitoneal structure

A

Duodenum - due to stomach rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the two pouches in women

A

Front: Vesico-uterine pouch
Back: Recto-uterine (Pouch of Douglas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name the pouch in men

A

Rectovesical pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the foregut reach from and to? What is it supplied by arterially? What nerve?

A

Oesophagus to Proximal Duodenum (1/3)
Supplied by coeliac trunk
Supplied by Greater Splanchnic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the midgut reach from and to?

A

From Proximal Duodenum to 2/3 Transverse Colon
Supplied by SMA
Supplied by Lesser Splanchnic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does the hindgut reach from and to?

A

From 2/3 Transverse Colon to Rectum and Bladder
Supplied by IMA
Supplied by Least Splanchnic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What embryological layer is the gut from?

A

Intermediate mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What 2 components is the mesoderm split into during development?

A

Splanchnic and somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the mesentery derived from?

A

The splanchnic mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the left sac become during stomach rotation in gut development?

A

Left sac becomes the greater sac (LG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the liver divide the ventral mesentery of the foregut into?

A

The Falciform ligament and the Lesser Omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the nerve roots of the Splanchnic nerves?

A

Greater - T5-9
Lesser - T10-11
Least - T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name the surface sections of the abdomen (9)

A

Right upper abdomen, Epigastric, Left upper abdomen
Right flank, umbilical, left flank
Right iliac fossa, suprapubic, left iliac fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the abdominal wall layers

A

External oblique, Internal Oblique, Transversus abdominis, Transversalis Fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most common hernia?

A

Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the vessels that mark the middle of the inguinal canal?

A

Epigastric vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the points of attachment for the inguinal canal?

A

ASIS -> Pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which is lateral? The deep or superficial inguinal rings?

A

Deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What must obliterate after gubernaculum descent?

A

Processus vaginalis -> becomes Tunica Vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Name the boundaries of the inguinal canal

A

Roof: Internal oblique/ Transversus abdominis
Anterior: External oblique (aponeurosis)
Posterior: Transversalis fascia
Floor: Inguinal ligament + lacunar ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What makes up the floor of the inguinal canal?

A

Inguinal ligament + Lacunar ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the role of the conjoint tendon?

A

Attaches internal oblique and transversus abdominis to bone for strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is an indirect hernia?

A

Exits via Deep inguinal ring, travels down to Superficial inguinal ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a direct hernia?

A

Exits via Hesselbach’s triangle to Superficial inguinal ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

Below the inguinal ligament, down the femoral canal, out of the saphenous opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is an Omphalacoele?

A

Failure of the midgut to return to the abdomen
Covered in peritoneum
Many complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A

Defect in the ventral wall of the abdomen

Gut not covered in peritoneum and exposed to amniotic fluid, but not as bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can Gastroschisis lead to?

A

Gut development problems eg. Atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is an Umbilical Hernia?

A

Hernia through the umbilicus - covered in skin and fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is “incarcerated” when referring to a hernia?

A

Stuck, cannot be reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is “strangulated” when referring to a hernia?

A

Ischaemic, blood supply cut off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does the Primary Intestinal Loop form and what happens to it?

A

Forms from the midgut, with the SMA as its central line
Herniates out of the umbilicus
Undergoes 3 90 degree counterclockwise rotations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is Volvulus?

A

Where Sigmoid colon twists around the mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the Vitelline duct?

A

A yolk sac remnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does a patent vitelline duct lead to?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum, vitelline cyst, vitelline fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the rule of 2s when referring to Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

2 foot from ileocaecal valve, 2% of population, under 2s, present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is pyloric stenosis and how does it present?

A

Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter at the end of the gut

Causes projectile vomiting in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the anal canal divided in two by?

A

The pectinate line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe the blood supply, nerve supply, cell type and pain type felt of the superior anal canal

A

IMA
S2, 3, 4
Simple Columnar
Stretch only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Describe the blood supply, nerve supply, cell type and pain type felt of the inferior anal canal

A

Pudendal artery
S2, 3, 4
Stratified Squamous
Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Xerostomia?

A

Salivary gland blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What innervates salivary gland production?

A

Parasympathetics - glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Name the 3 phases of swallowing and describe the key features

A
  • Oral - conscious, bolus formed, pushed to back of mouth into oropharynx
  • Pharyngeal - soft palate closes off nasopharynx, peristalsis occurs from constrictor muscles, UOS opens, epiglottis closes via suprahyoids
  • Oesophageal - UOS closes, peristalsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the afferent and efferent limbs of the Gag reflex?

A

Gloss (9) -> Vagus (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What precautions does the stomach have t prevent GORD?

A

Diaphragm and LOS + acute angle of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What happens in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

GORD leads to stratified squamous converting to columnar - adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What do ECL cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is gastrin released by and what does it do?

A

G cells, increases Parietal cell acid production and histamine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is CCK released by and what does it do?

A

I cells in the duodenum and causes gall bladder contraction and release of peptides/zymogens, lipases, amylases from acini of pancreas
Relaxes sphincter of Oddi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is Secretin and what does it do?

A

Released by S cells in the duodenum, causes HCO3- release from duct cells of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where is the antrum of the stomach?

A

Bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is the cardia of the stomach?

A

Entrance

74
Q

Where is the fundus of the stomach?

A

Head

75
Q

What can parietal cells be stimulated by?

A

Gastrin, Histamine, AcH from sympathetic system

76
Q

What releases somatostatin and what does it do?

A

D cells, inactivates G cells and ECL cells

77
Q

Name a PPI

A

Omeprazole/Lanzoprazole

78
Q

Name a H2 inhibitor

A

Ranitidine

79
Q

Name the 3 phases of digestion

A
  • Cephalic
  • Gastric
  • Intestinal
80
Q

Name 3 stomach defences

A
  • Mucous producing cells
  • High turnover rate of epithelial cells
  • Prostaglandin release maintains high blood flow to cells
81
Q

What is gastritis?

A

Inflammation of the stomach lining

82
Q

Name 2 acute causes of gastritis

A

Alcohol, NSAIDs

83
Q

Name 2 chronic causes of gastritis

A

H Pylori (gram negative rod), chronic NSAIDs, pernicious anaemia (autoimmune)

84
Q

Give 2 virulence factors of H Pylori

A

Urease produced - neutralises pH around it by converting urea to ammonia - toxic
Flagellum gives good motility

85
Q

How is H Pylori tested for?

A

Urease breath test

86
Q

Where does H pylori have to colonise to increase H+ production?

A

Antrum

87
Q

What is the treatment for H Pylori?

A

Metronidazole + Amoxicillin

88
Q

Give 2 complications of Stomach Ulcers

A

Perforation

Haemorrhage

89
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrin-secreting tumour of the pancreas

90
Q

What osmolarity is chyme entering the duodenum and exiting?

A

Hypertonic

Leaves isotonic

91
Q

How do pancreatic secretions reach the duodenum?

A

Ampulla of Vater

92
Q

What cells of the liver produce bile?

A

Hepatocytes

93
Q

What is the duct that bile travels down to the duodenum in?

A

Common Bile Duct

94
Q

What unique features do the walls of the small intestine have? (2)

A

Plicae circulares

Microvilli

95
Q

Describe the digestion of Starch in the gut

A

Starch consists of amylose and amylopectin (branched)
a1-4 and a1-6 bonds (branched)
A1-4 broken down by Amylase -> maltose + alpha dextrins
A1-6 broken down by Isomaltase

96
Q

Name the two components of starch

A

Amylose and amylopectin

97
Q

How is glucose absorbed in the gut

A

SGLT 2 and 1

98
Q

Why does oral rehydration fluid contain Dextrose?

A

SGLT 1 -> Glucose imported with Na, brings water in

99
Q

What can caused reduced absorption of B12 in the ileum?

A

Crohn’s disease - villi destroyed

100
Q

Name 4 symptoms of IBS

A

Bloating, flatulence, diarrhoea, cramping

101
Q

What is Coeliac disease?

A

Allergy to gliadin portion of gluten
Damages mucosa of intestines, villi, reduces absorption
Leads to diarrhoea, weight loss, flatulence (less absorption)

102
Q

How is Coeliac diagnosed?

A

IgA test

Endoscopy - colonoscopy

103
Q

Define Cirrhosis

A

Irreversible fibrosis of the liver from inflammation, hepatocyte necrosis and nodules

104
Q

What are the types of hepatitis and which has a vaccine?

A

B and C

B has a vaccine

105
Q

Name a cause of non-alcoholic liver disease

A

Obesity/Diabetes

106
Q

Name 4 causes of Cirrhosis

A 
Alcohol
Obesity
Diabetes
Hepatitis
Hereditary haemachromatosis
107
Q

Name 2 autoimmune causes of Cirrhosis

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis - ANCA antibodies
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Bile ducts destroyed in both

108
Q

Name 3 locations of Varices and a fact about each

A

Oesophageal - distal
Umbilical - caput medusa, via ligamentum teres
Anorectal - rectal veins fucked

109
Q

Describe what happens in Hepatorenal syndrome

A

AKI due to cirrhosis
Portal hypertension leads to splanchnic artery vasodilation
RAAS is activated in response, causing renal artery vasoconstriction reducing kidney bloodflow

110
Q

What are the risk factors for Gall stones?

A

4 Fs

Fair, Forty, Female, Fat

111
Q

Name the 3 types of Gall stone pathology

A
  • Biliary cholic
  • Acute cholecystitis
  • Ascending cholangitis
112
Q

What is Biliary Cholic?

A

RUQ pain, contraction against stone

113
Q

What is Acute Cholecystitis?

A

Stone in cystic duct - NOT COMMON BILE

RUQ pain, Murphy’s sign positive,

114
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

Finger below liver, breathe in, diaphragm pushes liver and gall bladder down

115
Q

What is a Cholecystectomy?

A

Gall bladder removal

116
Q

What is Ascending Cholangitis?

A

Infection in biliary tree behind stone

RUQ pain, Murphy’s sign positive, jaundice

117
Q

Describe Acute Pancreatitis and its signs

A

Acinar cell injury and necrosis, leads to:
Vomiting
Epigastric pain that radiates to back
Bruising

118
Q

What is Jaundice?

A

Raised bilirubin

119
Q

How does Bilirubin travel? What happens to it in the liver?

A

Travels: Unconjugated, bound to albumin

In liver: Conjugated, water soluble

120
Q

List the causes of Jaundice

A
  • Pre-hepatic - eg. haemolytic anaemias (thalassaemia, sickle cell, spherocytosis, splenomegaly
  • Intra-hepatic - eg. cirrhosis, hepatitis, paracetamol toxicity
  • Post-hepatic - eg. acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis
121
Q

What signs will be seen with a Pre-Hepatic Jaundice?

A

Raised Unconjugated Bilirubin

122
Q

What signs will be seen with Intra-Hepatic Jaundice?

A

Raised ALT/AST

123
Q

What does raised AST mean?

A

Liver damage from Cirrhosis

124
Q

What does raised ALT mean?

A

Acute liver damage - more specific to liver

125
Q

What signs will be seen with Post-Hepatic Jaundice?

A

Coca-cola urine, pale stools

Raised ALP, with raised Gamma-GT

126
Q

What are the roles of the Large Intestine?

A

Water absorption via ENaC channels

Vitamin K production

127
Q

Name all of the arteries of the gut

A

SMA -> Jejunal, Ileal, Ileocolic, right colic, middle colic

IMA -> Left colic, sigmoid, superior rectal

128
Q

Name a unique feature of the large intestine

A

Has haustra caused by the incomplete outer muscle layer called the teniae coli

129
Q

Name the two types of IBD

A
  • Crohn’s

- Ulcerative Colitis

130
Q

Name the unique features of Crohn’s (9)

A
  • Skip lesions
  • Transmural
  • Affects whole gut
  • Non-bloody stools
  • Cobblestone appearance
  • Granuloma formation
  • Fistulae common
  • Strictures common
  • Peri-anal disease
131
Q

Name the unique features of UC (7)

A
  • Always begins in rectum and moves up gradually
  • Mucosal inflammation only
  • Bloody, mucousy stools
  • Inflammatory exudate in crypts
  • Loss of haustra - lead pipe
  • No fistulas
  • No peri-anal disease
132
Q

What are the treatments for IBD?

A

Immunosuppressants/corticosteroids

133
Q

Which IBD can be cured?

A

UC - no skip lesions

134
Q

Name the two categories of diarrhoea

A

Osmotic

Secretory

135
Q

How does Osmotic diarrhoea occur?

A

Ingestion of an osmotically active material eg. Lactose when lactose intolerant
Removal of material = solved

136
Q

How does Secretory diarrhoea occur?

A

Excessive excretion of ions due to toxins or too little absorption due to SA reduction eg. coeliac

137
Q

List 2 causes of constipation

A

Psychology

Reduced colonic movement eg. Parkinson’s/Toxic megacolon

138
Q

What is Diverticulosis?

A

Outpouching of mucosa through the muscularis layer (usually along the vasa recta)

139
Q

What causes Diverticulosis?

A

Low fibre diet leading to increased luminal pressure

140
Q

What is acute Diverticulutis?

A

Outpouchings of mucosa become inflamed or perforate, as the entrance to the diverticula is blocked by faeces and bacterial invasion/infection occurs
Perforation occurs - complicated if this occurs

141
Q

What arteries make up the blood supply to the anal canal and what are their branches?

A

Superior rectal - IMA
Middle rectal - Internal iliac
Inferior rectal - Pudendal artery

142
Q

What happens during porto-systemic anastamoses in anorectal varices?

A

Pressure rises, usually only superior rectal vein has to drain, but pressure too high

143
Q

What does the pectinate line separate embyrologically?

A

Endoderm and ectoderm

144
Q

What nerve supplies the external urethral sphincter of the anus?

A

Pudendal

145
Q

What is the role of haemorrhoids within the anus?

A

Detect pressure in the rectum - contain a venous plexus that can inflate to help with continence

146
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of internal haemorrhoids

A

No pain, lots of blood

Treated with a high fibre diet, potentially band ligation

147
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of external haemorrhoids

A

Very painful, surgery often done

148
Q

What diseases would lead to malaena?

A

Peptic ulcers, cancers, oesophageal varices

149
Q

Name 4 red flags of upper GI malignancy

A

Dysphagia, anorexia, anaemia, malaena

150
Q

What are the most common types of upper GI malignancy?

A

SCC in oesophagus /Adeno in stomach

151
Q

What type of malignancy is caused by Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma

152
Q

What causes Bile duct cancer?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

153
Q

Where are Pancreatic cancers most commonly found?

A

The head

154
Q

What are the 3 key features of lower GI malignancy?

A
  1. Obstruction
  2. Per rectum bleeding
  3. Change in bowel habit
155
Q

What is the difference between small intestine and large intestine bowel obstructions?

A

Small: vomiting first, constipation last
Large: constipation first, vomiting last

156
Q

What causes other than cancer can lead to bowel obstruction? (2)

A

Diverticular disease/ Volvulus

157
Q

Name 5 causes of Per rectum bleeding

A

UC, Haemorrhoids, Varices (ano-rectal), Gastroenteritis, Diverticular disease, Anal fissure

158
Q

What is Tenesmus and what is it indicative of?

A

Urge to go when not needed

Caused by tumour in anus

159
Q

What type of cancer are all bowel cancers?

A

Adenocarcinomas

160
Q

Name 3 risk factors for bowel cancer

A
  • Family history
  • IBD
  • Poor diet
161
Q

What type of tumours are found on the right side? (Ascending colon)

A

Fungating, less likely to cause obstruction

162
Q

What type of tumours are found on the left side? (Descending colon)

A

Stenosing, tenesmus

163
Q

Name 4 Gram Positive Gastroenteritis infections of the gut

A

Salmonella
E Coli
Shigella
Campylobacter

164
Q

Name 4 Gram Positive Gastroenteritis infections of the gut in order of duration and if they have bloody diarrhoea

A

Salmonella - days, no bloody
E Coli - days, no bloody
Shigella - 1 week, bloody
Campylobacter - weeks, bloody

165
Q

Name a Gram Negative infection of the gut, its pathogenicity factors and its treatment

A

Clostridium difficile
A toxin - enterotoxic, causes Cl- excretion
B toxin - cytotoxic
Treated with Vancomycin

166
Q

What causes C difficile infections in hospitals?

A

Antibiotics destroy the gut microbiome, it can flourish

167
Q

Name 2 complications of Clostridium difficile

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

Toxic Megacolon

168
Q

Name 2 causes of Viral gastroenteritis

A

Rota
Noro
Treated by oral rehydration, cause excessive Cl- secretion

169
Q

Name 3 Parasitic gastroenteritis causes

A
  • Cryptosporidium
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Entamoeba histiolytica
170
Q

What are the complications of Entamoeba histiolytica? How is ti treated?

A

Metronidazole

Can cause toxic megacolon/abscesses

171
Q

Name a cause of Primary Peritonitis

A

Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis - usually in end stage liver disease, ascitic fluid infection

172
Q

Name a cause of Secondary Peritonitis

A

Peptic ulcer perforation

173
Q

What is the clinical presentation of peritonitis?

A

Patient lies very still, knees flexed, shallow breathing

174
Q

Name 2 causes of Bowel obstruction in children

A

Intussusception

Meconium ileus

175
Q

Name 2 causes of Small Bowel obstruction in adults

A

Adhesions (post-operative)

IBD - Crohn’s

176
Q

Name 2 causes of Large Bowel obstruction in adults

A

Colon cancer
Diverticular disease
Volvulus

177
Q

How often is colicky pain felt in small bowel obstruction vs large bowel obstruction?

A

3-4 mins vs 10-15 mins

178
Q

Why is the ileo-caecal valve important in large bowel obstruction

A

If competent, then the large bowel cannot decompress into the small intestine, which increases the risk of perforation and ischaemia

179
Q

What is acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Reduction of blood supply to the gut due to occlusion of eg. SMA or reduced cardiac output
Causes pain, nausea, vomiting - disproportionately large symptoms
Must do surgery to resect ischaemic bowel

180
Q

What is Toxic megacolon?

A

Inflammation and ischaemia of the large bowel

181
Q

What are the ligaments from front to back of the abdomen?

A

Falciform -> Lesser Omentum -> Gastro-splenic -> Spleno-renal

GI ESA 3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions