Key concepts - exam Flashcards

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1
Q

List and describe the functions of blood

A

oTransportation

•O2, CO2, metabolic wastes, nutrients, heat and hormones

oRegulation

  • helps regulate pH through buffers
  • helps regulate body temperature

–coolant properties of water

–vasodilatation of surface vessels dump heat

•helps regulate water content of cells by interactions with dissolved ions and proteins

oProtection

•from disease and loss of blood

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2
Q

what is the composition of normal plasma and whats its function

A
  • Plasma is the watery component of blood
  • 91.5% water and 8.5% solutes
  • Has plasma proteins, red cells, white cells, electrolytes, gases and other nutrients
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3
Q

Describe the process of erythropoiesis

A

oErythropoiesis: Erythrocyte formation, occurs in adult red bone marrow of certain bones.

oThe main stimulus for erythropoiesis is hypoxia.

•From anaemia, blood loss, circulatory problems.

oProcess:

oProerythroblast starts to produce Hb.

oReticulocyte is formed.

oReticulocytes leave bone marrow into the blood. (0.5% to 1.5% of RBC’s)

o In 1-2 days, they eject the remaining organelles to become a mature RBC.

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4
Q

List and describe the components of blood

A

oBlood consists of:

oplasma 55%

oformed elements 45% ( mostly RBC’s)

oBlood plasma consists of: 91.5% water and 8.5% solutes.

oPrincipal solutes include proteins (albumins, globulins, fibrinogen), nutrients, enzymes, hormones, respiratory gases, electrolytes, and waste products.

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5
Q

What are the formed elements of blood?

A

oRed blood cells (erythrocytes)

oWhite blood cells(leukocytes)

•granular leukocytes

–neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

•agranular leukocytes

–lymphocytes = T cells, B cells, and Natural Killer cells

–monocytes

oPlatelets(Thrombocytes)

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6
Q

List the various leukocytes found in the blood

A

oBased on presence of cytoplasmic granules:

•Granulocytes:

–Neutrophils

–Eosinophils

–Basophils

Granules are made visible by staining

•Agranulocytes:

–Monocytes

–Lymphocytes

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7
Q

Neutrophil Function

A

o Fastest response of all WBC to bacteria

o Direct actions against bacteria

• release lysozymes which destroy/digest bacteria

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8
Q

Basophil Function

A

oInvolved in inflammatory and allergy reactions

oLeave capillaries and enter connective tissue as mast cells

oRelease heparin, histamine and serotonin

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9
Q

Eosinophil Function

A

o Leave capillaries to enter tissue fluid

o Release histaminase

• slows down inflammation caused by basophils

o Attack parasitic worms

o Phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes

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10
Q

Lymphocyte Functions

A

oB cells

  • destroy bacteria and their toxins
  • turn into plasma cells that produces antibodies
  • Basis for Antibody Mediated Immunity

o T cells

  • attack viruses, fungi, transplanted organs, cancer cells and some bacteria
  • Responsible for Cell Mediated Immunity.

oNatural Killer cells

  • attack many different microbes and some tumour cells
  • destroy foreign invaders by direct attack
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11
Q

Monocyte function (agranulocyte)

A

Destroy microbes and clean up dead tissue following an infection

oMigrate from the blood into the tissues, enlarge and differentiate into macrophages

–fixed macrophages: Found in specific tissues

–wandering macrophages: Rome the tissues and gather at sites of infection

Take longer to get to site of infection, but arrive in larger numbers

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12
Q

Describe the 3 process for preventing blood loss

A

Haemostasis

oStoppage of bleeding in a quick and localized fashion when blood vessels are damaged

oMechanisms:

  • Vascular spasm: Reflex contraction of smooth muscle of small blood vessels when arteries or arterioles are damaged.
  • Platelet plug formation
  • Blood clotting (coagulation = formation of fibrin threads)
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13
Q

Compare and contrast the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway

A
  • Intrinsic pathway is activated by negative charges
    • eg when endothelium of blood vessel is damaged
    • after several minutes prothrombinase is produced
  • Extrinsic is activated by trauma
    • tissue factor (thromboplastin) release
      • instant prothrombinase formation
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14
Q

Describe the Platelet Plug Formation process

A

o Platelet Adhesion

• platelets stick to exposed collagen and damaged endothelial cells in vessel wall

o Platelet Release Reaction

  • platelets “activated” by adhesion
  • extend projections & make contact
  • release thromboxane A2, ADP, serotonin

o Platelet Aggregation

  • activated platelets stick together to form a mass called a ‘platelet plug’
  • plug reinforced by fibrin threads formed during clotting process
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15
Q

Describe the conduction pathways through the heart

A

o The conduction system in the heart is unique with autorhythmic cells derived from cardiac muscle.

  • These cells act as a pacemaker to set the rhythm for the entire heart.
  • They form the conduction system, the route for propagating action potentials through the heart muscle

oThis co-ordinates contraction of heart muscle.

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16
Q

What are the components of the condunction system of the heart ?

A
  • Sinoatrial (SA) node (pacemaker),
  • Atrioventricular (AV) node,
  • Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His),
  • Right and left bundle branches,
  • The conduction myofibers (Purkinje fibers)
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17
Q

Top and bottom of the heart are termed

A

top is base

bottom is apex

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18
Q

Discuss the flow of blood throughout via the major arteries and veins

A
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19
Q

chamber of the heart

A
  • 2 upper atria and 2 lower ventricles
  • seperated by interventricular and interatrial septum
    • right atrium
      • received blood from vena cava and coronary sinus
      • tricuspid valve permits blood flow into right ventricle
    • right ventricle
      • blood flows into pulmonary trunk
    • left atrium
      • receives blood from lungs
      • bicuspid valve for blood into left ventricle
    • left ventricle
      • aortic semilunar valve for blood to pass into ascending aorta
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20
Q

Describe the ECG and its components and its relationship to the cardiac cycle

A

oImpulse conduction through the heart generates electrical currents that can be detected at the surface of the body on the skin.

oA recording of the electrical changes that accompany each cardiac cycle (heartbeat) is called an electrocardiogram (ECG).

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21
Q

Define cardiac output

A

oCardiac output (CO) is related to how much the heart is pumping out (SV - stroke volume) and how fast it is going (HR)

oCardiac output (CO): the volume of blood ejected from the left (or right) ventricle into the aorta (or pulmonary trunk) each minute.

oCardiac output equals the stroke volume (the volume of blood ejected by the ventricle with each contraction) multiplied by the heart rate (the number of beats per minute).

•CO = SV x HR

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22
Q

List the factors that affect blood flow

A
  • vascular resistance
  • venous return (how much blood is returning to the heart)
  • speed of blood flow
  • blood pressure
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23
Q

chordae tendinae

A
  • anchor valve to papillary muscles
    • when ventricles relaxed, chordae tendinae are slack and papillary muscles are relaxed
  • atrioventricular
  • semilunar
  • bicuspid
  • tricuspid
    *
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24
Q

Explain Baroreceptors

A

•baroreceptors (pressure receptors) detect change in BP and send information to the cardiovascular center

–located in the arch of the aorta and carotid arteries

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25
Q

List the factors that affect stroke volume

A
  • Preload (filling/stretch) = Frank-Starling Law of the Heart
    • increased filling = more stretch of the heart muscle
    • leads to greater force of contraction
  • contractility
    • heart contracts harder
    • sympathetic nerves, hormones, calcium or potassium levels
  • afterload
    • the pressure the heart must overcome before semilunar valve can open
    • heart has to exceed BP to pump blood out
26
Q

List the factors that affect heart rate

A
  • hormones and ions
    • adrenaline, noradrenaline, thyroid hormones
    • cations eg Ca2+
  • neural factors
    • sympathetic or parasympathetic fibers, baroreceptors, chemoreceptors
    • cardiovascular centre in medulla oblongata
  • other factors
    • age
    • sex
    • fitness
    • temperature
27
Q

baroreceptor reflex

A
  • baroreceptors are the pressure sensitive neurons in aorta, internal carotid arteries and other large arteries in neck and chest
  • Fall in BP -> decreased baroreceptor feedback -> CV centre reduces parasympathetic and increases sympathetic stimulation of heart -> increased heart rate and force of contraction
  • carotid sinus reflex
    • maintains normal BP in the brain
  • aortic reflex
    • maintains general systemic blood pressure
28
Q

Define resistance to flow and what affects vascular resistance

A
  • opposition to blood flow due to friction between blood and vessel walls
  • Affected by
    • size of vessel lumen (smaller = more resistant)
    • blood viscosity/thickness
    • total blood vessel length (longer vessel = greater resistant)
29
Q

Describe specific and non-specific immunity

A
  • specific / acquired
    • refers to defences involving specific recognition of a microbe once it has breached innate defences
  • non specific / innate immunity
    • defences present from birth
    • first and second line of defence
30
Q

Describe the 4 signs and basis for inflammation

A
  • signs
    • redness
    • heat
    • swelling
    • pain
    • loss of function
  • Purpose is to trap microbes/foreign material and begin tissue repair
31
Q

List the chemical substances that contribute to the inflammation process

A
  • pathogens
  • abrasions
  • chemical irritations
  • distortion or disturbances of cell
  • extreme temperatures
32
Q

Describe the antimicrobial substances that contribute to innate immunity

A
  • interferons (IFNs)
    • produced by lymphocytes, macrophages and fibroblasts infected with virus
  • complement system
    • 30 inactivate plasma proteins
    • when activated these proteins enhance immune, allergic or inflamm reactions
  • iron-binding proteins
    • inhibit some bacteria growth
    • eg Hb in red cells
  • antimicrobial proteins
    • attract dendritic cells and mast cells
33
Q

Describe Specific Immunity as it relates to antibody mediated and cell mediated Immunity

A

specific immunity:

  • antibody mediated/humoral immunity
    • B cells
    • destruction of antigens by antibodies
    • eg against bacteria
  • cell mediated immunity
    • T cells
    • destruction of antigens by T cells
      • T cells can be helper or killer T cells
    • eg for parasites
34
Q

Describe the mechanism involved on of antigen presentation by Antigen Presenting Cells

A
  • Antigen presenting cells engulf foreign proteins and display some as part of the MHC-II
  • phagocytosis/endocytosis of antigen followed by digestion
  • synthesis and packaging of MHC-II molecules
  • This process of presentation alerts T cells that foreign particles are present
35
Q

Describe the respiratory zone of the respiratory tract with regard to alveoli, Type I and Type II cells.

A
  • alveoli
    • pouching around alveolar ducts
  • type 1 cells
    • continuous lining of the alveolar walls
    • site for gas exchange
    • most prevalent
  • type 2 cells
    • between type 1 cells
    • secrete alveolar fluid (has surfactant in it)
      • this lowers surface tension
36
Q

Describe the pressure changes occurring during inhalation and exhalation and how these are produced through muscle contraction/relaxation

(atmospheric pressure is 760mmHg at sea level)

A
  • inhalation
    • when pressure inside lungs is lower than atmospheric pressure
    • diaphragm and external intercostals contract increasing size of thorax
    • (forced inhale also has sternocleidomastoid and scalenes)
  • exhalation
    • when pressure inside of lungs it greater than atmospheric pressure
    • passive diaphragm relaxation
    • (forced exhale has internal intercostals and abdominal muscles)
37
Q

List the muscles involved in passive inhalation

A

contraction of diaphragm and external intercostals

38
Q

Describe the Hb dissociation curve for O2.

A
  • as PO2 increases, more O2 combines with hemoglobin
    • PO2 of 60-100mmHg = 90% saturated
    • PO2 of 20mm = 35% saturated
39
Q

List three factors that will shift the curve and explain why.

A
  • Acidity
    • increased acidity = O2 dissociation
  • Carbon dioxide partial pressure
    • as PCO2 rises, Hb releases o2 more readily
  • Temperature
    • temp increase = oxygen release
40
Q

Explain how the rate of respiration is controlled with respect to chemoreceptors for pCO2 and H+

A
  • central or peripheral chemoreceptors
  • increase in PCO2
    • activates chemoreceptors = stimulate inspiratory area = hyperventilation for rapid and deep breathing
  • decrease in PCO2
    • chemoreceptors not stimulated
    • inspiratory area sets own pace until CO2 accumulated and PCO2 rises
41
Q

Describe the anatomy of the stomach, the cell types in the epithelial cell types and their secretions

A
  • Stomach is J shaped structure after oesophagus
  • subdivisions
    • cardia
    • fundus
    • body
    • pylorus
  • has rugae (mucosal folds) and pyloric sphincter (stomach to duodenum)
  • Cells
    • exocrine gland cells
      • Mucous neck cells
      • Chief cells (pepsinogen)
      • Parietal cells (HCl and IF)
    • enteroendocrine cells
      • G cells (secrete gastrin)
42
Q

Describe the secretions and functions of the enzymes secreted by the pancreas

A
  • pancreatic amylase
    • digest starch
  • pancreatic lipase
    • digest triglycerides
  • proteases
    • digest proteins
  • ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease
    • digest RNA and DNA
43
Q

Describe the digestion and reabsorption of carbohydrates giving the location and enzymes involved as well as the end products

A
  • mouth
    • salivary amylase
  • oesophagus and stomach
    • no enzyme release
  • small intestine
    • pancreatic amylase
    • brush border enzymes
44
Q

Describe the digestion and reabsorption of proteins giving the location and enzymes involved as well as the end products

A
  • nothing in mouth and oesophagus
  • stomach
    • HCl
    • pepsin
  • Small intestine
    • pancreatic peptidases
    • brush border peptidases

End product being amino acids

45
Q

Describe the digestion and reabsorption of lipids giving the location and enzymes involved as well as the end products

A
  • mouth
    • lingual lipase
  • stomach
    • gastric lipase
  • small intestine
    • bile salts
    • pancreatic lipase

Broken down into monoglycerides and fatty acids

46
Q

Describe the three phases of digestion: cephalic, Gastric and Intestinal

A
  • cephalic phase
    • the smell, sight or though of food triggers cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and brain stem
    • saliva and gastric juice secretions to prepare mouth and stomach for food
  • gastric phase
    • begins when food arrives in the stomach
    • promotes gastric secretion and motility
    • neural and hormonal control
      • neural being receptors and submucosal plexus
      • hormonal being gastrin which stimulates gastric juice secretion
  • intestinal phase
    • begins when food enters SI
    • neural control
      • stretch receptors
      • increased sympathetic nerves
    • hormonal control
      • secretin - inhibits gastric juice secretion
      • cholecystokinin - increased bile flow
47
Q

List the functions of the urinary system and give a brief explanation of each

A
  • kidneys
    • regulate blood volume, blood pressure, pH
    • produce EPO
    • excrete wastes in urine
  • ureters
    • transport urine from kidneys to bladder
  • urinary bladder
    • stores urine and expels into urethra
  • urethra
    • discharge urine from body
48
Q

Control of glomerular filtration rate

A
  • renal autoregulation
    • when kidneys regulate GFR
    • myogenic mechanism
    • tubuloglomerular feedback
  • neural regulation
    • when ANS regulates GFR
    • Kidney blood vessels supplied by sympathetic fibers that release norepinephrine = vasoconstriction of afferent arteriole
    • extreme sympathetic stimulation eg exercise = vasoconstriction to lower urine output
  • hormonal regulation
    • involves angiotensin 2 and ANP
    • ANP increases GFR
    • angio 2 reduces GFR
49
Q

three glomerular filtration barriers

A
  • glomerular endothelial cells fenestrations
  • basal lamina between endothelium
  • filtration slit formed by a podocyte
50
Q

Describe the function of the following hormones in controlling reabsorption of solutes and water

o Renin-Angiotensin-aldosterone system

A
  • angiotensin 2
    • increases sodium Na+, solute and water reabsorption
    • = increased blood pressure and volume
  • aldosterone
    • increased secretion of potassium K+ and reabsorptin of sodium and chloride Cl-
    • = increased reabsorp of water which increases blood pressure and volume
51
Q

Describe the function of the following hormones in controlling reabsorption of solutes and water

  • antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
A
  • increased facultative reabsorption of water
    • decreases osmolarity of body fluids
52
Q

Describe the function of the following hormones in controlling reabsorption of solutes and water

  • Atrial Natriuretic Peptide
A

Released from atria when they are stretched (because of high blood volume/pressure)

  • increases sodium excretion
  • increases urine output = to lower blood volume and pressure
53
Q

Describe and discuss the function of the counter-current multiplier of the Loop of Henle

A
  • counter current meaning flow of fluid in opposite directions
  • Using energy to create an osmotic gradient for water reabsorption from tubule fluid = concentrated urine
  • occurs in the loops of henle of juxtamedullary nephrons
54
Q

List and briefly describe the structures of the male reproductive system

A
  • Gonads - testes (produce gametes and sex hormones)
  • Ducts - store and transport gametes (e.g ejaculatory duct)
  • Accessory sex glands - produce substances to protect gametes (e.g prostate)
  • Supporting structures - assist in gamete delivery (e.g scrotum and penis)
55
Q

Describe function of the two cell types (Leydig and Sertoli) within the testes

A
  • sertoli
    • support spermatogenesis
      • eg secrete fluid for sperm transport and secrete inhibin to regulate sperm production
  • leydig cells
    • secrete testosterone
56
Q

What are the components of normal semen?

A
  • mixture of sperm and seminal fluid
57
Q

Describe the structure and functions of a mature sperm cell

A
  • structure
    • head having nucleus and acrosome
    • tail having neck, middle piece (mitochondria), principal piece and end piece
  • adapted to reach and penetrate secondary oocyte
58
Q

Describe the female reproductive cycle with reference to the hypothalamic, pituitary and ovarian hormones produced over a 28 day cycle.

A
  • female reproductive cycle includes the ovarian and uterine cycles and hormonal regulations
  • gonadotropin-releasing hormone released by hypothalamus which stimulates FSH and LH from anterior pituitary
  • FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) stimulated follicle growth
  • LH (luitenising hormone) stimulates further ovarian follicle development
  • estrogens and progesterone from corpus luteum
  • Over 28 day cycle
    • see diagram
59
Q

Describe the ovarian cycle and the development of follicles

A
  • Ovarian cycle is changes in overy during and after maturation of an oocyte
    • primordial follicle
    • primary follicle
    • secondary follicle
    • mature follicle
    • ovulation
60
Q

Describe the uterine cycle with reference to the menstrual, proliferative and secretory phases.

A
  • Uterine cycle involves changes in the endometrium of the uterus to receive a fertilised ovum
    • no implantation = stratum functionalis is shed (menstruation)
    • estrogen release stimulates the proliferative phase when the stratum functionalis is beginning to be reproduced
    • progesterone and estrogen stimulate secretory phase
61
Q

Describe the role of the corpus luteum

A
  • If no fertilisation occurs the corpus luteum survives for only 2 wks
    • This degeneration leads to low levels of progesterone and estrogen causing menstruation
  • If fertilisatrion occurs
    • corpus luteum secrete progesterone and estrogens to support pregnancy and breast development for lactation
62
Q

Outline and briefly describe the stages of development from fertilization to birth

A
  • gestation period is the complete period from fertilisation to birth
  • prenatal period (before birth)
    • embryonic development from fertilisation to 8 wks (embryo)
    • fetal development from 9 wks till birth (fetus)
  • Neonatal period first 42 days after birth