Key Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

What are features of the Right Hemisphere?

A

Non Dominant side
Non-verbal language
LH= Some still have a dominant Left Hemisphere, Few other’s have it divided between the two hemispheres
1. Non-verbal language area (body language) (90% of communication)
2. Emotional expression (language) - modulation of speech
3. Spatial skills (3D) - shape of the object
4. Conceptual understanding
5. Artistic and Musical Skills - someone who can’t talk could sing
Large extent on right hemisphere but not entirely

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2
Q

Dorsal column lemniscus pathway

A
  1. From the receptor it goes through the dorsal root into the spinal cord to the Gracile fasciculus or Cuneate fasciculus depending on whether it came from legs or above legs. It goes to synapse with 2’ neurons in the gracile/cuneate nucleus in the medulla.
  2. The axons of the second neurons cross to the opposite side of the medulla via arcuate internal fibres and enter the medial lemniscus which goes to the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus
  3. They go from ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus through the internal capsule ot the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex- cortical area of the homuncular map
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3
Q

Spinothalamic pathway

A
  1. The free nerve ending receptor goes through the dorsal root where it goes to through the tract of Lessauer to the posterior grey horn where it synapses with 2 order neurons
  2. Axons of 2 order neurons cross to the opposite side of the spinal cord through the ventral anterior white commisure and continue through the lateral spinothalamic tract (joining the medial lemniscus) which goes up to the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus.
  3. They go from ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus through the internal capsule ot the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex- cortical area of the homuncular map
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4
Q

Corticospinal pathway

A
  1. Upper motor neurons in the cortex go down through the internal capsule through the cerebral peduncle of the midbrain and pons. At the medulla oblongata, the axon bundles of the corticospinal tracts form ventral bulges called pyramids. This is where it starts to split up
  2. At medulla oblongata 85% of axons dessucate to the contralateral (opposite) side in the medulla oblongata. This is the lateral corticospinal tract.
    The remaining 15% remain along the ipsilateral (same) side, and eventually dessucate at the spinal segmental level where they synapse with specific neuron- this is called the ventral/Anterior corticospinal tract.
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5
Q

What part of the spinal cord do the axons of the corticospinal tract form a tract in before synapsing with lower motor neuron and what type of movement is each tract responsible for

A

The ‘lateral corticospinal’ form the ‘latcort’ tract in the lateral white column of the spinal cord. This tract is responsible for distal parts of limbs responsible for precise agile and highly skilled movements.
The anterior corticospinal tract forms ‘antcort’ tract in the anterior white column of the spinal cord. This tract is responsible for movements of proximal parts of limbs and trunk- posture/core muscle

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6
Q

What 5 parts of the brain are the basal ganglia and what type of colour matter is it?

A

The basal ganglia are towards the bottom of the brain in the subcortical grey nuclei. It has the Caudate nucleus, the internal capsule, putamen, Globus pallidus (internal and external) sub-thalamic nucleus and the substantia nigra.

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7
Q

Describe the circuit starting at cerebral cortex pre motor area state the 5 steps/ pathways to a muscle movement + excite or inhib

A
  1. neurons go from the cerebral cortex to the striatum via excite
  2. 95% of nerves from striatum will go to substantia nigra or into the internal or external segment of the GP (inhib)
  3. A fibre from internal GP goes to the ventral anterior nucleus of the thalamus (inhib)
  4. Thalamus back to cortex (excite) which leads to the activation of upper motor neuron
  5. One last path which is substantia nigra to striatum by dopamine
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8
Q

Describe the mechanism of Action of Lipid soluble hormones

A

LSh diffuses through blood, interstitial fluid into the cell to the nucleus
hormone binds to receptors located within cytosol or nucleus. The activated receptor hormone complex then alters gene expression; turning genes on or off.
newly formed mRNA directs synthesis of specific proteins on ribosomes. (enzymes possibly)
New protein alters cell activity and causes response typical of that hormone.

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9
Q

Describe the mechanism of Action of Water soluble hormones

A

Hormone binds to receptor on plasma membrane of target cell which activates G protein which activates Adenyl cyclase
Activated adenyl cyclase converts ATP to cAMP which is 2nd messenger to activate protein kinases
Activated protein kinases phosphorylate other enzymes in a cascade.
Phosphorylated enzymes catalyse reactions that produce physiological response. Or phosphorylation can turn off enzymes
After a brief period phosphodiesterase inactivates cAMP which turns off cell response unless new hormone molecules come

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10
Q

How does hormones produced in the hypothalamus travel to the pituitary

A

Hypothalamic neurosecretory cells get triggered to release hormones through the termini at the end of their axons which are close to their capillary network at the base of the hypothalamus.
Hormones travel through hypophyseal portal vein through secondary plexus to capillaries sitting on the anterior pituitary to then go to target cells in the pituitary.

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11
Q

What are the two stages of the Stress Response

A

ALARM response: Sympathetic autonomic activation: mobilise resources for immediate physical activity, get more oxygen and glucose into circulation, increase alertness and activity leading to fight or flight, Followed by Sympathetic activation of the Adrenal medulla (through ACh) which secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine into the blood to supplement and prolong the alarm response

2nd stage: (Resistance reaction) Stimulation of the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol (from CRH in hypothalamus -> ACTH from anterior pituitary) that helps to dampen inflammation, depress immune response to change balance to favour immediate tissue repair to reduce tissue damage if we get damage.

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12
Q

What stimulates the production of glucocorticoids at the Adrenal cortex

A

AdrenoCorticoTropinHormone (ACTH) made from the pituitary that was released into the blood stream. The hypothalamus told the pituitary to do this by releasing Corticotropin ReleasingHormone (CRH) into the primary hypophyseal plexus and then portal vein to the anterior pituitary.

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13
Q

Describe the process of appositional growth 3 steps from active to inactive.

A
  1. Osteogenic cells divide, forming osteoblasts which deposit osteoid
  2. Some osteoblasts become trapped in the lacunae where they will eventually become osteocytes
  3. When growth stops, osteoblasts can convert back to osteogenic cells or die. The osteoid is fully calcified
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14
Q

How do long bones grow in length and why does it do that

A

Endochondral ossification= There is a plate of hyaline cartilage that can grow by interstitial growth underneath the epiphysis which is the epiphyseal plate. This cartilage grows, dies then is replaced by bone.
It does it this way because it can’t lay bone down on the articulate cartilage on the ends.

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15
Q

Describe 4 steps how a primary osteon forms from appositional growth

A

Osteoblasts in the active periosteum either side of the blood vessel put own new bone forming ridges

Bone continues ridges come together and fuse forming a tunnel around the blood vessel. The tunnel is now lined with endosteum.

The osteoblasts in the endosteum build concentric lamellae onto the walls of the tunnel. The tunnel fills inward toward centre

The bone continues to grow outwards as the osteoblasts in the periosteum build new circumferential lamellae.
Process repeats as new ridges fold over blood vessels

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16
Q

What are the 5 steps of forming a secondary osteon

A

Osteoclasts form and gather in an area that needs to be remodelled. They start boring its way through the existing bone.

Osteoblasts move in behind the cutting cone and line tunnel wall as new endosteum and start depositing osteoid.

Osteoid calcifies to form new lamella and a blood vessel will grow into the tunnel to supply the cells.

Osteoblasts deposit layer upon layer of new concentric lamellae on the wall of the tunnel to fill it in. Some osteoblasts get trapped and become osteocytes

When the tunnel is reduced to size of normal Haversian canal, remaining osteoblasts die or become osteogenic cells part of the resting endosteum.

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17
Q

Describe the 6 steps of loading cycle of articular cartilage from recently unloaded cartilage

A

Ion conc in the matrix increases because negative charges on disaccharide units attract positive ions into the cartilage from the joint space

Osmotic gradient is created by moving of ions causing water to move into the matrix and the cartilage to swell.

The cartilage swells until the swelling force = the tension force placed on collagen. At this point : unloaded equilibrium and the volume of cartilage doesn’t change

When a load is introduced the fluid component is squeezed out of the cartilage back to the joint space synovial fluid or other parts of uncompressed cartilage.

The volume of the cartilage decreases because the loss of fluid = creep.

Eventually the compressive load will be supported by solid component and the repulsion of negative charges and will stop shrinking= loaded equilibrium.

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18
Q

What is the CT, structure, and function of the synovial membrane layer of articular capsule

A

CT: loose CT of variable thickness
Structure: 2 layers. Can form villi which increase SA and reduce volume of synovial cavity. Lines all non articular surfaces inside the joint cavity up to the edge of articular cartilage.

Synovial subintima: highly vascularised, containing macrophages, fat cells and fibroblasts.
F: maintains and protect articular capsule during normal movement, reduces volume of joint cavity to cushion

Synovial intima: 1-3 cells thick, contains synoviocytes that F: secrete lubricating features of synovial fluid

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19
Q

What is the make up and function of synovial fluid

A

Made of
1. ultrafiltrate of blood plasma from bv in the subintima +
2. secretions of lubricating proteins eg. Hyaluronic acid from synoviocytes .
3. free cells: monocytes, lymphocytes, macrophages and synoviocytes
Function: joint lubrication, shock absorption, chondrocyte metabolism and overall joint maintenance

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20
Q

Describe the cells in the alveolar wall

A

Type 1. Squamous pneumocyte, thin bordering with capillaries for gas exchange
Type 2: Surfactant cells: secrete surfactant liquid which keeps the alveolar open
Type 3: Alveolar Macrophage: wandering cell, last line of defense against microbes

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21
Q

What is the mechanics of the muscles that help inspiration

A

In inspiration the external intercostal muscles contract and the diaphragm contracts.
External intercostal muscles causes inspiration because as they contract the ribs pivot around their joints in the vertebral column and lift the rib cage up and out.
When Diaphragm contracts, it flattens the central tendon which pulls the dome downwards and increases the volume of the thorax

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22
Q

What are the mechanics of the muscles that help expiration

A

Expiration is a passive process at rest where diaphragm passively relax and rib cage returns to resting position. In active processes the internal intercostal muscles (at right angles to external intercostal muscles) contract and drag the rib in and down.

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23
Q

How does the respiratory volume , intra pulmonary pressure and intra pleural pressure change during inspiration

A

The pleural pressure decreases from a negative pressure to an even more negative pressure. This causes the intra pulmonary pressure to go from atm down to negative pressure. This causes air to move from higher pressure (atm) to lower pressure, increasing volume of air in lungs. As volume increase to a peak the pulmonary pressure rises back up to atm (in a cup shape) .

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24
Q

How does the respiratory volume , intra pulmonary pressure and intra pleural pressure change during expiration

A

The intra pleural pressure starts to rise from its most negative point back to becoming less negative as air leaves. This causes the pulmonary pressure to become more positive relative to atm. This means that air moves out so the volume decreases from the peak of the bell curve back down to 0.

25
Q

How does the lungs inflate

A

As the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract they increase the volume of the intra pleural space and this also increase the volume of the intra pulmonary space This means that the pressure of the intra pleural space decreases. As a result the atm tries to equalise the pressure by pushing air inside the lungs.

26
Q

Explain the consequences of Fibrosis to ventilation on lung compliance

A

Fibrosis is due to air contaminants causing an increase in collagen fibres= stiff lung. Only a small change in volume over large change in pressure. Therefore it has decreased compliance. This means it can’t get enough air with same amount of pressure

27
Q

Describe the Hering-Breuer Inflation reflex : Afferent to efferent

A

Lung stretch receptors (mechanoreceptors in the bronchioles) go through Vagal afferents to the Medulla Oblongata respiratory centres to tell it that it is inflated.

Medulla Oblongata respiratory centre tells the Bronchioles to bronchodilate + beta adreno receptor to help more inflation.

Also terminates inspiration

28
Q

Why does Hb Affinity for O2 change as you go from Lungs to Veins

A

The tissues are more acidic because there is more CO2 going to Carbonic acid-> H+. This means that Hb has less affinity.

Whereas at lungs there is less CO2, so higher pH and O2 and is taken up and its max affinity restored.

29
Q

What is the chloride shift

A

During the process of CO2 entering the RBC to be converted to Bicarbonate, Chloride shift is how Cl- moves in the opposite direction to bicarbonate ion(-) as it moves in or out of RBC to maintain the electroneutrality.

30
Q

What is the Haldane effect

A

This is the difference between the affinity of Hb for transporting CO2 in the venous blood vs the arterial blood.

There is an increase in Hb affinity for CO2 in venous blood which enhances the uptake of CO2 from tissues. Compared to PO2, if there is lower PO2 there will be a greater Hb affinity for CO2

31
Q

What stimulates central chemoreceptors to stimulate breathing

A

Increase of CO2 in the brain capillaries, is detected by nerves in the medulla oblongata by CO2 crossing the blood brain barrier into the Cerebrospinal fluid.
and forming bicarbonate (with limited carbonic anhydrase present compared to in RBC). The H+ ions from this reaction in the cerebrospinal fluid stimulate the central chemoreceptors in the medulla

32
Q

What is the location and projection of peripheral chemoreceptor vs central chemoreceptor

A

Peripheral: is located in the bifurcation of the carotid artery (carotid body).
Projection: Sinus nerve that joins with the glossopharyngeal 9th cranial nerve to the medulla

Central: 3 chemosensitive regions on the ventral surface of medulla oblongata.

33
Q

Describe main events in the ovulation stage

A

The follicle starts to bulge out the ovarian surface bc it gets larger and its at the cortex of the ovarian stroma.

The follicle then ruptures and this slowly releases the oocyte+ surrounding mass of cumulus cells.
The oocyte is collected by cillia on the fimbria which sweep the cumulus mass into the uterine tube

34
Q

Describe main events in the Corpus luteum

A

After ovulation, the antrum breaks down and the basement membrane between the granulosa and theca layers breaks down and blood vessels invade.

The granulosa cells form lutein (yellow) cells, this is associated with increasing secretion of progestogens

Corpus luteum will only stay for 2 weeks. After which no fertilisation will lead to degeneration, forming the corpus albicans which is absorbed back into the stromal tissue of the ovary over weeks to months.

(fertile)
The corpus luteum will persist if the zygote survives and divides. hCG produced by chorion of the embryo 8days after fertilisation stops deterioration of the corpus luteum. This allows it to keep producing progesterone + estrogen to support pregnancy

35
Q

events of menstrual cycle

A
  1. The corpus luteum regresses with oestrogen and progesterone levels low. There is a slight increase of FSH
  2. FSH stimulation leads to increase follicular growth
  3. The dominant follicle has been selected. it has lots of thecal and granulosa cells that produce a rise in oestradiol
  4. Oestradiol suppress FSH and LH production in the pituitary
  5. Oestrogen levels by the nearly mature follicle rise by ~day 12, a theshold concentration of oestradiol is exceeded. If this is maintained for around 3 days, there is a temporary switch from a negative to positive feedback.
  6. Oestrogen mediated positive feedback triggers a rise in GnRH, leading to a surge in LH
  7. The rapid rise of LH induces ovulation- release of the oocyte
  8. Corpus Luteum develops and this increases progesterone.
  9. Elevated progesterone levels inhibit GnRH, leads to decreased FSH + LH as it reinstates the negative feedback loop
  10. The Corpus luteum demises and therefore progesterones start to decrease
36
Q

Compare Sertoli and Leydig cells: Location, what acts on it, what does it produce

A

Sertoli cells are inside the seminiferous tubules, closer to the basement membrane. Whereas Leydig cells are interstitial cells outside the seminiferous tubules. Sertoli cells are acted on by FSH and produce Androgen binding protein as well as inhibin whereas Leydig cells are acted on by LH and they produce testosterone

37
Q

What is the characteristics of the secretion of the seminal vesicles

A

A sticky substance that is:
Alkaline, containing fructose as an energy source for sperm, containing prostaglandins which may induce contractions in the female reproductive tract and contains clotting proteins which helps sperm to stick to the female reproductive tract and not be removed by intercourse

38
Q

What is the characteristics of the secretion of the Prostate

A

Slightly acidic.
Contains Citrate (for ATP)
Milky colour bc it
Contains phosphate + calcium
Prostate specific antigen and other enzymes to break down the coagulum

39
Q

Describe the borders of the heart : right, inferior, left, superior

A

Right border: formed by right atrium which has vertical orientation.
Inferior border: formed by right ventricle
Left border: left ventricle
Superior border: blood vessels= base

40
Q

Describe the structure of Fibrous skeleton of the Heart

A

Fibrous skeleton is made of dense connective tissue that forms a tricuspid ring around the valves of the heart. There is a complete ring around the Mitral valve (pulmonary to LV) and Aortic valve (LV to systemic) while the Tricuspid (systemic to RV) ring is incomplete and Pulmonary valve (RV to pulmonary) has none. Instead they have Fatty connective tissue in areas where the fibrous skeleton is incomplete.

41
Q

What are the 3 factors that influence stroke volume

A

Preload: this is intrinsic which is the degree of stretch on the myocardial fibres at the end of diastole because of the amount of blood returning to the heart, which is the pressure resulting from blood returning to the heart (mmHg)

Contractility/ inotrophy (force of contraction) : this is extrinsic and the ability of the ANS to increase both SV and HR (especially through exercise). Different ions Ca2+, Na+ and K+ present in the plasma also help to regulate contractility by helping the cardiac AP.

Afterload: The work the heart has to do to pump against the blood pressure in the aorta to pump blood out (arterial pressure with regards to LV in mmHG).

42
Q

What is Starlings Law

A

Whatever blood returns to the heart by venous circulation in the previous diastole is pumped out without excessive damming in the veins.

43
Q

How does change in BP drive exchange in the capillaries

A

In the arterial end of capillaries, the blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure which push fluid out, is bigger than the Blood collodial osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure which is pushing fluid in, therefore there is a net filtration pressure that favours filtration, however at the venous end of the capillaries there is a drop in the blood hydrostatic pressure which allows the net filtration pressure to be negative - favouring reabsorption.

43
Q

What hormone causes vasoconstriction. what effect would this have on blood pressure. Where did this hormone come from

A

Angiotension II produced by enzyme Renin in the lungs. It increases blood pressure by increasing TPR by vasoconstriction and it also stimulates secretion of aldersterone which increases absorption of sodium ions

44
Q

What determines the Net Filtration pressure of glomerular filtration that determines how much water and solutes leave the blood

A

Pressure pushing fluid out is Glomerular Blood hydrostatic pressure (55)

Pressures pushing back in is
-Capsular hydrostatic pressure (exerted from elastic recoil of capsule on plasma) (15)

-Blood colloid osmotic pressure (osmotic force of proteins left in plasma) (30)

Therefore NFP = GBP- (CHP +BCOP)

45
Q

What is the counter current mechanism

A

The gradient for water to leave the descending limb is set up by ions leaving the descending limb making the tip of ECF of medulla higher concentrated. This is supported by blood flow of the efferent vasa recta which takes the water away.

46
Q

Describe the path of ADH being made to being released into circulation

A

Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolarity / increase Na+ concentration in plasma

This triggers the precursor for ADH to be synthesised in the hypothalamus and stored in vesicles in the posterior pituitary.

When osmolarity increases (in dehydration) or there is an increase in Na+ in the ECF, ADH is released from the posterior pituitary to the blood

47
Q

What are 3 triggers and production of Renin. Where

A

Trigger;

1a) . If there is decrease of sodium content in the distal tubule, this is sensed by Macula densa cells which increase prostaglandins.
1b) If there is a decrease in blood volume –> this will cause decrease in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole sensed by granular cells.
1c) High sympathetic activity (via baroreflex bc low BP)

Production: This triggers Juxtaglomerular granular cells in the afferent arteriole release Renin

48
Q

What is the response to a haemorrhage

A

1.Haemorrhage decrease blood volume -> thus blood pressure

Sensed by Baroreceptors which trigger
a) Posterior pituitary to release ADH
b) Increase sympathetic nerve activity
-Sensed by Juxtaglomerular cels to secrete Renin-> increased Angiotensin 2 in blood.

From ADH: vasoconstriction, increased water absorption.
From Symp : increased HR and vasoconstriction
From Aldosterone: increased Na+ absorption
Increased blood volume & increased systemic vascular resistance==> Increased BP

49
Q

What is difference between ANP and ADH

A

ANP is triggered by stretching of atria (high blood volume)
and works to inhibit all Renin, ADH, Aldosterone release. Therefore increase GFR
-»Reduces Na+ reabsorption + water
Whereas, ADH works to increases water reabsorption

50
Q

What are the 4 key roles of organs in the digestive system and where do they vary in along the gut tube

A

Digestion = chemical breakdown of ingested food into absorbable molecules. In the mouth, stomach, duodenum and small intestine. cecum by bacteria

Absorption= movement of nutrients from gut to blood/lymph. In the stomach (water ions drugs) DJ Ilieum, (majority) and large intestine

Secretion: saliva etc occurs along entire GI tract

Transport to do 1 and 2. occurs along entire GI tract

51
Q

What are the major functions of the stomach and what major differences in the stomach tunic layers reflect this

A

Primary function is storage
Epithelium of mucosa form many pits lined with mucus secreting cells, and glastic glands which open into the gastric pits. This helps with the
1. Secretion of acid, enzymes and mucus making chyme

  1. Digestion of proteins by pepsin
  2. Absorption of water, ions, and some drugs
  3. Protection: against its own secretions and microbes
    There is the addition of an innermost oblique layer of smooth muscle to the Muscularis externa to generate mixing waves
  4. Transport
52
Q

What are the cells in the gastric glands of the stomach (from lumen to base) and what is their function

A

Undifferentiated stem cells which divide to create new epithelium

Parietal cells that secrete H+ and Cl- to sterilise the food and acidify the environment –> allow activation of enzyme digesting protein. It also secretes intrinsic factor which is important for absorption of vit B12~ and therefore RBC haematopoesis.

Chief cells: secrete Pepsinogen and gastric lipase
Pepsinogen is converted into pepsin by the acid in the gland lumen.

Gastrin cells: release hormone gastrin into the blood stream which stimulates secretion of acid and pepsinogen, increases muscular contractions of the stomach and relaxes the pyloric sphincter

53
Q

What are the two cells of the gastric pit that produce products for digestion and how do they stop autodigestion

A

The parietal cells -produce the acid HCl and intrinsic factor. To stop autodigestion: secretes HCl as H+ and Cl- ions
The chief cells secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase but it stop autodigestion: by secreting a precursor to the protein digesting Pepsin enzyme that is only activated in the lumen of the gland.
Also autodigestion is stopped by alkaline mucous of the surface mucous cells which protects from the acid and the pepsin

54
Q

What is the order of things added to the duodenum for digestion and where do they come from

A

Chyme from the stomach connects directly through pyloric sphincter

Bile from the liver is either released into the common bile duct from the gall bladder where it has been concentrated or just straight from the liver

Pancreatic juice containing precursors go through the main pancreatic duct

55
Q

What are the epithelial cells in the intestinal glands mucosa of the small intestine and what do they do

A

Undifferentiated cells (for generating new epithelium)

Enteroendocrine cells: secrete hormone secretin into the capillaries of the lamina propria

Paneth cells: secrete bactericidal enzyme lysozyme and phagocytose

56
Q

What are the main functions of the large intestine

A

Absorption of salts and water (but still less than small intestine)

Conversion of chyme into feces with remaining carbs fermented by bacteria

Production of some vitamins B&K which are absorbed

Secretion of mucus to lubricate feces

Defecation

57
Q

What are the special features about the Mucosa of the large intestine

A

No villi but many intestinal glands

surface epithelial cells that are enterocytes (absorptive)

intestinal glands containing mostly goblet cells but not paneth (no more digestion)

Many clusters of lymphocytes in the lamina propria

cell renewal like small intestine- replaced every 5 days

58
Q

Describe the cells found in the mucosa of the colon intestinal glands (lumen to deep)

A

Columnar absorptive cells (enterocytes) which are absorbing water

Goblet cell: secreting mucus to lubricate the passage of the faeces and increase in frequency as you approach the anus

Undifferentiated cells: stem cells to form new epithelium

White blood cells in the lamina propria - lymphocytes that provide defense against invading bacteria from the colon lumen