Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Rapid Review > Key associations > Flashcards

Key associations Flashcards

1
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Disease occurs in both males and females, inherited

through females only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intellectual disability

A

Down syndrome, fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vitamin deficiency (USA)

A

Folate (pregnant women are at high risk; body stores only 3- to 4-month supply; prevents neural tube defects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lysosomal storage disease

A

Gaucher disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Food poisoning (exotoxin mediated)

A

S aureus, B cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

S aureus (most common overall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bacterial meningitis (adults and elderly)

A

S pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bacterial meningitis (newborns and kids)

A

Group B streptococcus/E coli/Listeria monocytogenes

newborns), S pneumoniae/N meningitidis (kids/teens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bacteria associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and gastric malignancies (eg, adenocarcinoma, MALToma)

A

H pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Opportunistic infection in AIDS

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Helminth infection (US)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Myocarditis

A

Coxsackie B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Infection 2° to blood transfusion

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Osteomyelitis with IV drug use

A

Pseudomonas, Candida, S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

UTI

A

E coli, Staphylococcus saprophyticus (young women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sexually transmitted disease

A

C trachomatis (usually coinfected with N gonorrhoeae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia

A

S aureus, Pseudomonas, other enteric gram ⊝ rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

C trachomatis, N gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Infections in chronic granulomatous disease

A

S aureus, E coli, Aspergillus (catalase ⊕)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Metastases to bone

A

Prostate, breast > lung, thyroid, kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Metastases to brain

A

Lung > breast > prostate > melanoma > GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Metastases to liver

A

Colon&raquo_space; stomach > pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

S3 heart sound

A

increased ventricular filling pressure (eg, mitral regurgitation, HF), common in dilated ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

S4 heart sound

A

Stiff/hypertrophic ventricle (aortic stenosis, restrictive

cardiomyopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Constrictive pericarditis

A

TB (developing world); idiopathic, viral illness (developed world)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Holosystolic murmur

A

VSD, tricuspid regurgitation, mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ejection click

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mitral valve stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Opening snap

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Heart murmur, congenital

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chronic arrhythmia

A

Atrial fibrillation (associated with high risk of emboli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cyanosis (early; less common)

A

Tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of great vessels, truncus arteriosus, total anomalous pulmonary venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Late cyanotic shunt (uncorrected left to right becomes

right to left)

A 
Eisenmenger syndrome (caused by ASD, VSD, PDA;
results in pulmonary hypertension/polycythemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hypertension, 2°

A

Renal artery stenosis, chronic kidney disease (eg,
polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy),
hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aortic aneurysm, thoracic

A

Marfan syndrome (idiopathic cystic medial degeneration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Aortic dissection

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Aortic aneurysm, abdominal

A

Atherosclerosis, smoking is major risk factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Aortic aneurysm, ascending or arch

A

3° syphilis (syphilitic aortitis), vasa vasorum destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sites of atherosclerosis

A

Abdominal aorta > coronary artery > popliteal artery

> carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cardiac manifestation of lupus

A

Marantic/thrombotic endocarditis (nonbacterial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Heart valve affected in bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral > aortic (rheumatic fever), tricuspid (IV drug

abuse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Endocarditis presentation associated with bacterium

A 
S aureus (acute, IVDA, tricuspid valve), viridans
stretococci (subacute, dental procedure), S bovis (colon cancer), culture negative (Coxiella, Bartonella, HACEK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

Risk of ipsilateral blindness due to occlusion of

ophthalmic artery; polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Recurrent inflammation/thrombosis of small/medium

vessels in extremities

A

Buerger disease (strongly associated with tobacco)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cardiac 1° tumor (kids)

A

Rhabdomyoma, often seen in tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cardiac tumor (adults)

A

Metastasis, myxoma (90% in left atrium; “ball valve”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypotension

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cushing syndrome

A
  • Iatrogenic (from corticosteroid therapy)
  • Adrenocortical adenoma (secretes excess cortisol)
  • ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease)
  • Paraneoplastic (due to ACTH secretion by tumors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids)

A

Neuroblastoma (malignant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (adults)

A

Pheochromocytoma (usually benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cretinism

A

Iodine deficit/congenital hypothyroidism

54
Q

HLA-DR3

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1, SLE, Graves disease, Hashimoto thyroiditis (also associated with HLA-DR5), Addison disease

55
Q

Thyroid cancer

A

Papillary carcinoma (childhood irradiation)

56
Q

Hypoparathyroidism

A

Accidental excision during thyroidectomy

57
Q

1° hyperparathyroidism

A

Adenomas, hyperplasia, carcinoma

58
Q

2° hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypocalcemia of chronic kidney disease

59
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

Pituitary adenoma (usually benign tumor)

60
Q

HLA-DR4

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1, rheumatoid arthritis, Addison

disease

61
Q

Refractory peptic ulcers and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma of duodenum or

pancreas), associated with MEN1

62
Q

Esophageal cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (worldwide); adenocarcinoma

US

63
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with CNS injury

A

Cushing ulcer (increased intracranial pressure stimulates vagal gastric H+ secretion)

64
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

A

Curling ulcer (greatly reduced plasma volume results in sloughing of gastric mucosa)

65
Q

Bilateral ovarian metastases from gastric carcinoma

A

Krukenberg tumor (mucin-secreting signet ring cells)

66
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis (autoimmune)

A

Predisposition to gastric carcinoma (can also cause

pernicious anemia)

67
Q

Gastric cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

68
Q

Alternating areas of transmural inflammation and normal colon

A

Skip lesions (Crohn disease)

69
Q

Diverticulum in pharynx

A

Zenker diverticulum (diagnosed by barium swallow)

70
Q

Site of diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

71
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A 
Cirrhotic liver (associated with hepatitis B and C,
alcoholism, and hemochromatosis)
72
Q

Liver disease

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

73
Q

1° liver cancer

A 
Hepatocellular carcinoma (chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis,
hemochromatosis, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, Wilson
disease)
74
Q

Congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (black liver)

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome (inability of hepatocytes to

secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile)

75
Q

Hereditary harmless jaundice

A 
Gilbert syndrome (benign congenital unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia)
76
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

Multiple blood transfusions or hereditary HFE mutation

can result in heart failure, “bronze diabetes,” and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

77
Q

Pancreatitis (acute)

A

Gallstones, alcohol

78
Q

Pancreatitis (chronic)

A

Alcohol (adults), cystic fibrosis (kids)

79
Q

Autosplenectomy (fibrosis and shrinkage)

A

Sickle cell disease (hemoglobin S)

80
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency

81
Q

Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome (defect in platelet adhesion to von Willebrand factor)

82
Q

Hereditary bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

83
Q

DIC

A

Severe sepsis, obstetric complications, cancer, burns,

trauma, major surgery, acute pancreatitis, APL

84
Q

Malignancy associated with noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

85
Q

Type of Hodgkin lymphoma

A 
Nodular sclerosing (vs mixed cellularity, lymphocytic
predominance, lymphocytic depletion)
86
Q

t(14;18)

A

t(14;18) Follicular lymphomas (BCL-2 activation, anti-apoptotic oncogene)

87
Q

t(8;14)

A

t(8;14) Burkitt lymphoma (c-myc fusion, transcription factor oncogene)

88
Q

Type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

89
Q

1° bone tumor (adults)

A

Multiple myeloma

90
Q

Age ranges for patient with ALL/CLL/AML/CML

A

ALL: child,
CLL: adult > 60
AML: adult ∼ 65
CML: adult 45–85

91
Q

Malignancy (kids)

A

Leukemia, brain tumors

92
Q

Death in CML

A

Blast crisis

93
Q

t(9;22)

A

t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome, CML (BCR-ABL oncogene, tyrosine kinase activation), more rarely associated with ALL

94
Q

Vertebral compression fracture

A

Osteoporosis (type I: postmenopausal woman; type II:

elderly man or woman)

95
Q

HLA-B27

A

Psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD-associated

arthritis, reactive arthritis (formerly Reiter syndrome)

96
Q

Death in SLE

A

Lupus nephropathy

97
Q

Tumor of infancy

A 
Strawberry hemangioma (grows rapidly and regresses
spontaneously by childhood)
98
Q

Actinic (solar) keratosis

A

Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma

99
Q

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation

A

Chiari I malformation

100
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A 
Wernicke encephalopathy (thiamine deficiency causing
ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion)
101
Q

Viral encephalitis affecting temporal lobe

102
Q

Hematoma—epidural

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery (trauma; lentiform

shaped)

103
Q

Hematoma—subdural

A

Rupture of bridging veins (crescent shaped)

104
Q

Dementia

A

Alzheimer disease, multiple infarcts (vascular dementia)

105
Q

Demyelinating disease in young women

A

Multiple sclerosis

106
Q

Brain tumor (adults)

A

Supratentorial: metastasis, astrocytoma (including

glioblastoma multiforme), meningioma, schwannoma

107
Q

Pituitary tumor

A

Prolactinoma, somatotropic adenoma

108
Q

Brain tumor (kids)

A

Infratentorial: medulloblastoma (cerebellum) or
supratentorial: craniopharyngioma

109
Q

Mixed (UMN and LMN) motor neuron disease

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

110
Q

1° hyperaldosteronism

A

Adrenal hyperplasia or adenoma

111
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (adults)

A

Membranous nephropathy

112
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (kids)

A

Minimal change disease

113
Q

Glomerulonephritis (adults)

A

Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)

114
Q

Kidney stones

A
  • Calcium = radiopaque
  • Struvite (ammonium) = radiopaque (formed by urease ⊕ organisms such as Klebsiella, Proteus species, and S saprophyticus)
  • Uric acid = radiolucent
  • Cystine = faintly radiopaque
115
Q

Obstruction of male urinary tract

116
Q

Renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma: associated with von Hippel-Lindau
and cigarette smoking; paraneoplastic syndromes (EPO,
renin, PTHrP, ACTH)

117
Q

1° amenorrhea

A

Turner syndrome (45,XO or 45,XO/46,XX mosaic)

118
Q

Neuron migration failure

A 
Kallmann syndrome (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
and anosmia)
119
Q

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

A

DES exposure in utero

120
Q

Ovarian tumor (benign, bilateral)

A

Serous cystadenoma

121
Q

Ovarian tumor (malignant)

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

122
Q

Tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma (estrogen dependent, not precancerous)

123
Q

Gynecologic malignancy

A 
Endometrial carcinoma (most common in US); cervical
carcinoma (most common worldwide)
124
Q

Breast mass

A

Fibrocystic change, carcinoma (in postmenopausal

women)

125
Q

Breast tumor (benign, young woman)

A

Fibroadenoma

126
Q

Breast cancer

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

127
Q

Testicular tumor

A

Seminoma (malignant, radiosensitive), increased placental ALP

128
Q

Right heart failure due to a pulmonary cause

A

Cor pulmonale

129
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, blood stasis

A

Virchow triad (increased risk of thrombosis)

130
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A

Idiopathic, heritable, left heart disease (eg, HF), lung
disease (eg, COPD), hypoxemic vasoconstriction (eg,
OSA), thromboembolic (eg, PE)

131
Q

SIADH

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

Rapid Review (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions