Key Associations 3 Flashcards

1
Q

tRNA anticodon reads in this direction

A

3’ to 5’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Direction all mRNA is writtein

A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Complementary to U in mRNA

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Complementary to G in mRNA

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

C perfringens causes 2 diseases

A

late-onset food poisoning (toxin mediated, late onset with TRANSIENT WATERY DIARRHEA) and Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas gangrene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Toxin in Clostridium perfringens

A

LECITHINASE or ALPHA TOXIN is a PHOSPHOLIPASE attacks cell membranes and degrades LECITHIN, a component of phospholipid membranes causes widespread NECROSIS and HEMOLYSIS leading to cell death. Spores abundant in soil and germinate in anaerobic environmen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kidney manifestations in advanced liver disease

A

Renal failure (hepatorenal syndrome) hallmark is RENAL VASOCONSTRICTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Organ susceptibility to infarction after occlusion of a feeding artery

A

CNS > Myocardium > Kidney > Spleen > Liver (dual blood supply hepatic artery and portal vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Exotoxin released by streptococcus pyogenes

A

GAS - STREPTOKINASE - pasminogen activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most important biologic marker is MYCN (N-MYC) of chromosome 2

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common extracranial solid tumors in children

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Process responsbile for transposition of great vessels

A

SEPTATION - failure of fetal aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lowest concentration of PAH in nephron

A

Bowmans space, constantly secreted along path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of diverticulm is Meckel’s diverticum

A

TRUE - consists of all parts of intestinal wall: MUCOSA, SUBUCOSA, MUSCULARIS,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

False diverticulum

A

MUCOSA and SUBMUCOSA ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN V3 exits the skull through this opening

A

FORAMEN OVALE - innervates muscles of mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CNV2 extis skull through this opening

A

FORAMEN ROTUNDUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Opening contains the middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein, and meningeal branch of CN V3

A

FORAMEN SPINOSUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Contains cranial nerve IX, X, and XI, the inferior petrosal and sigmoid sinuses, and posterior meningeal artery

A

JUGULAR FORAMEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Another name for DCIS

A

Comedocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DiGeorge is a T-lymphocyte immunodeficiency resulting from maldevelopment of:

A

3rd and 4th branchial (pharyngeal) POUCHES, NOT 3rd ARCH - give rise to structures innervated by CN9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3rd branchial pouch vs 3rd branchial arch

A

pouch - thymus, arch - stylopharyngeus uscle, hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mechanism of antigen presentation

A

Antigen takin into APC by phagocytosis, loaded onto MHC CLASS II molecules within acidified endosomes, expressed on cell surface for interaction with T-lymphocytes. Failure to acidify lysosomes leads to deficient expression of MHC class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Men 2A

A

MPP - Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (calcitonin), Pheochromocytoma, Parathyroid tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Men 1

A

PPP: Parathyroid tumor (hypercalcemia), Pancreatic tumor (gastrin), Pituitary adenoma (prolactin, ACTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Should be exluded in all patients with medullary thyroid cancer

A

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMAS - because they are present in MEN2a and MEN2b (which both have medullary carcinoma (calcitonin), MEN1 does not have medullary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

$ Left ventricular filling volume

A

PRELOAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Transamination reactions occur between which 2 molecules and require WHICH COFACTOR?

A

Amino acids and an alpha-keto acid, require PYRIDOXAL PHOSPHATE (VITAMIN B6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vitamin needed in amino acid transamination and in decarboxylation reactions

A

B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Carry out nonoxidate reactions of the HMB shunt

A

TRANSKETOLASE and TRANSALDOLASE - all cells can synthesize RIBOSE from F6P using these nonoxidative reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ADH acts on this segment of nephron

A

MEDULLARY segment of the collecting duct (principle cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aldosterone acts on this segment of nephron

A

CORTICAL segment of collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Only renal stones that are radiolucent

A

URIC ACID stones (5%) microscopically appear yellow or red-brown, diamond or rhombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Radiopaque, rectangular prism (renal stone)

A

Struvite (magnesium ammonium sulfage) (15% of stones) Alkaline due to proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Radiopaque, colorless octahedron renal stone

A

Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate (70-80% of stones) Form in Acidic urine pH <6 OR neutral urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Radiopaque, flat, yellow, hexagonal crystal (renal stone)

A

Cystine stone (1% of stones) acidic pH needed to form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MAC

A

Minimal alverolar concentration - concentration of gas in lungs that produces desired effect in 50% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mechanism of death in cardiac tamponade

A

cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Second messenger used by alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

A

IP3 (hormone binds, G-protine activates PHOSPHOLIPASE C - forms DAG and IP3, IP3 increase in intracellular calcium which then activates PROTEIN KINASE C

41
Q

Conditions that cause an increase in thyroid binding globulin? Effect on T4, T3, and free thyroid hormone?

A

Pregnancy, oral contraceptives, hormone replacment therapy (estrogen or progesterone) and result in INCREASE in circulating TOTAL T4 (bound T4 plus free T4) and TOTAL T3, but FREE THYROID HORMONE is NORMAL, so patients remain euthyroid and normal TSH leve

42
Q

Why does TBG increase in pregnancy

A

Estrogen reduces catabolism of TBG

43
Q

3rd portion of duodenum near these anatomical sites

A

at L3 level, close association with UNCINATE PROCESS of pancreas and SMA

44
Q

Where does the saphenous vein drain into?

A

FEMORAL VEIN, a few centimeters inferolateral to the pubic tubercle

45
Q

Cellular receptor CMV uses

A

Cellular integrin

46
Q

Cellular receptor EBV uses

A

CR2 (CD21)

47
Q

Cellular receptor HIV uses

A

CD4 and CXCR4/CCR5

48
Q

Cellular receptor Rabies attacks

A

GLYCOPROTEIN SPIKES that bind to the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

49
Q

Cellular receptor Rhinovirus uses

A

ICAM1 (CD54)

50
Q

Function of Biotin

A

CO2 carrier on surface of carboxylase enzyme needed for many conversions including PYRUVATE to OXALOACETATE. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase, PC, PCC, all playing roles in lipid and carb metabolism.

51
Q

Metabolic abnormality seen sith biotin deficiency

A

METABOLIC ACIDOSIS - due to build up of PYRUVATE (can’t convert pyruvate to oxalaoacetate (Defective PYRUVATE CARBOXYLASE) and pyruvate shunted to lactic acid. Excess ingestion of avidin can cause biotin deficiency

52
Q

Major determinant of whether coronary artery plaque will cause ischemic myocardial injury

A

RATE at which it occludes involved artery

53
Q

Decrease stability of plaque inreasing risk of rupture

A

Thin fibrous cap, lipid rich core, active inflammation in atheroma

54
Q

RNA Nonenveloped viruses

A

CPR PAPP: Calcivirus (norwalk), Picornavirus (PERCH), Reovirus,

55
Q

DNA Nonenveloped viruses

A

PAPP: Parvovirus, Adenovirus (Airway, GI, Eye), Papilloma, Polyoma (JC)

56
Q

Picornaviruses

A

all enteroviruses: PERCH: Polio, Echo, Rhino, Coxsaci, HAV

57
Q

What initiates Acute calculous cholecystitis 90% of the time?

A

OBSTRUCTION of the GALLBLADDER NECK or CYSTIC DUCT - leading to inflammation

58
Q

Most common complication of cholelithiasis

A

Acute calculous cholecystitis

59
Q

Bcl-2 overexpression

A

Follicular lymphoma - t(14:18)

60
Q

Most common movement disorder

A

ESSENTIAL TREMOR - slowly progressive symmetric postural and/or kinetic tremor affecting upper extremities, AD inheritence

61
Q

Most common cause of retinitis in HIV

A

CMV retinitis affects 30-40% of AIDS patients with CD4+ count below 50/mm3

62
Q

Attributable risk percent (ARP)

A

Represents the excess risk in th unexposed population that can be attributed to the risk factor. Risk in exposed - risk in unexposed/risk in exposed or ARP = (RR-1)/RR

63
Q

DT

A

Delirium tremens or acute intoxication - begin 48-72 hours after last drink

64
Q

AD disease caused by abnormal NUCLEOTIDE MISMATCH REPAIR

A

Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer) involves genes MSH2 and MLH1, mutations in these 2 genes account for 90% o cases of Lynch syndrome

65
Q

Carpal tunnel is associated with these conditions

A

Hypothyroidism, DM, RA, dialysis-associated amyloidosis

66
Q

Rathke’s pouch derived from this embryologic derivative

A

Surface ectoderm (Anterior pituitary is rathke’s pouch)

67
Q

Neural tube gives rise to:

A

Brain, SC, Posterior pituitary, pineal gland, retina

68
Q

Where doe left ventricular leads course through

A

CORONARY SINUS, residing in ATRIOVENTRICULAR GROOVE on posterior aspect of heart

69
Q

Most common location for intracranial schwannomas

A

CEREBELLOPONTINE ANGLE - between cerebellum and lateral pons

70
Q

Most common cause of superior vena cava syndrome

A

1 BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA #2 Non-Hodgkin lymphomas

71
Q

Superior sulcus tumor

A

Pancoast tumor arise in lung apex and cause shoulder pain due to compression of brachial plexus, cervical sympathetic ganglia involvement lead to horner syndrome

72
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

symptoms of schizophrenia in presence of PROMINENT MOOD SYMPTOMS. Period of 2 weeks psychotic symptoms in absence of mood symptoms is required

73
Q

Homeobox genes code for:

A

DNA-binding transcription factors important in morphogenesis (proper formation and placment of tissues and organs)

74
Q

Location of gene enhancers vs location of promotors

A

enhancers - Varibable locations, anywhere uprstream, downstream or even within the transcribed gene. Promotors are located 25 or 70 bases upstream from their associated genes.

75
Q

Most common known viral cause of acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children (males in particular)

A

ADENOVIRUS; serotypes 11 and 21 of adenovirus subgroup B in particular

76
Q

What is primary polydispia

A

excessive pathologic water drinking

77
Q

3 important causes of polyria and polydipsia

A

DM, DI, and primary polydipsia

78
Q

Mechanism of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction leading to DIC and shock

A

Antibody-mediated Type II hypersensitivty, host Ab binds to Ag on donor RBC activating COMPLEMENT, MAC causes erythrocyte lysis and anaphylatoxins mediated vasodilation

79
Q

$ Necrotic area of brain infarct is walled off by this cell

A

ASTROCYES which enlarge and proliferate (gliosis)

80
Q

Colonic diverticula result from

A

increased intraluminal pressure, composed of mucosa and submucosa, most common site is sigmoid colon

81
Q

What is a pulsion mechanism that causes diverticula

A

Mucosa and submucosa herniate through “weak spots” and are FALSE

82
Q

25% of individuals have nasal colonization with:

A

Staph Aureus, and more than 50% have become methicillin resistant (MRSA)

83
Q

NBTE

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis - hypercoagulable state - results from procoagulant effects of circulating products of cancers resulting in cardiac valve vegetations (marantic endocarditis) Similar to Trousseau’s syndrome (migratory thrombophlebitis)

84
Q

Acanthosis

A

increased thickness of stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) between granular cell and basal layer of epidermis. Psoriasis

85
Q

Acantholysis

A

Loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in epidermis and adnexal structures (Spongiotic dermatitis, ie excematous dermatitis)

86
Q

Urticaria

A

“hives” secondary to Ag indcued degranulation of focal mast cells thorugh IgE antibody sensitization resulting in SUPERFICIAL DERMAL EDEMA and LYMPHATIC CHANNEL DILATION. No epidermal changes present

87
Q

Recovery in PSGN

A

95% Children, only 60% adults completely recover, the rest develop chronic glomerulonephritis or RPGN

88
Q

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

Type of paraneopastic syndrome in which tumor cells produce substances that induce an AUTOIMMUNE REACTION and cause damage and degeneration of healthy organs and tissues. Associated with cancers of lung, breast, ovary, uterus, lymphoma. Anti-Yo, anti-P/q

89
Q

Must be ruled out in all patients with DES

A

cardiac cause b/c presentation mimics unstable angina

90
Q

Responsible for epithelial attachment to nasopharynx (meningococci)

A

Meningococcal pili - primary route of infection is when adhere to mucosal epithelium and gain access to circulation

91
Q

Which level of the brain stem does the trigeminal nerve arise?

A

MIDDLE CEREBELLAR PEDUNCLE in the PONS

92
Q

What determines the ventricular contraction rate in a patient with A-Fib?

A

AV node refractory period - Not all atrial impulses are transmitted to the ventricals due to the AV NODAL REFRACTORY PERIOD

93
Q

Degranulatino of mast cells is accomplished by

A

cross-linking multiple membrane-bound IgE antibodies by a specific antigen, resulting in IgE-Fc RECEPTOR AGGREGATION on the cell surface

94
Q

Recombination

A

gene exchange that occurs through crossing over of 2 double-stranded DNA molecules - 2 defective viruses may use to yield cytopathic wt genome

95
Q

Reassortment

A

mixing of genome segments in 2 or more segmented viruses that infect the same host cell

96
Q

Exchange of genetic info between 2 virus strains that have non-fragmented, double stranded DNA genomes

A

recombination - resulting progeny will have traits not present in either parent virus

97
Q

(gcc) or gccRccAUGG

A

Kozak consensus sequence occurs on eukaryotic mRNA, R is either adenine or guanine. Serves as the INITIATOR for TRANSLATION (mRNA binding to ribosomes). Mutation 3 bases upstream from the start codon (AUG) in this sequence is associated with THALASEMIA IN

98
Q

Translocation is catalyzed by

A

elongation factor eEF2 and requires GTP hydrolysis

99
Q

HIV patient with headaces and fever, india ink of CSF revelas spherical yeast forms with thick capsules.

A

Cryptococcus neoformans - present in soil and pigen droppings - LUNGS are primary site of entry