Key Associations 3 Flashcards

1
Q

tRNA anticodon reads in this direction

A

3’ to 5’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Direction all mRNA is writtein

A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Complementary to U in mRNA

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Complementary to G in mRNA

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

C perfringens causes 2 diseases

A

late-onset food poisoning (toxin mediated, late onset with TRANSIENT WATERY DIARRHEA) and Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas gangrene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Toxin in Clostridium perfringens

A

LECITHINASE or ALPHA TOXIN is a PHOSPHOLIPASE attacks cell membranes and degrades LECITHIN, a component of phospholipid membranes causes widespread NECROSIS and HEMOLYSIS leading to cell death. Spores abundant in soil and germinate in anaerobic environmen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kidney manifestations in advanced liver disease

A

Renal failure (hepatorenal syndrome) hallmark is RENAL VASOCONSTRICTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Organ susceptibility to infarction after occlusion of a feeding artery

A

CNS > Myocardium > Kidney > Spleen > Liver (dual blood supply hepatic artery and portal vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Exotoxin released by streptococcus pyogenes

A

GAS - STREPTOKINASE - pasminogen activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most important biologic marker is MYCN (N-MYC) of chromosome 2

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common extracranial solid tumors in children

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Process responsbile for transposition of great vessels

A

SEPTATION - failure of fetal aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lowest concentration of PAH in nephron

A

Bowmans space, constantly secreted along path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of diverticulm is Meckel’s diverticum

A

TRUE - consists of all parts of intestinal wall: MUCOSA, SUBUCOSA, MUSCULARIS,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

False diverticulum

A

MUCOSA and SUBMUCOSA ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN V3 exits the skull through this opening

A

FORAMEN OVALE - innervates muscles of mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CNV2 extis skull through this opening

A

FORAMEN ROTUNDUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Opening contains the middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein, and meningeal branch of CN V3

A

FORAMEN SPINOSUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Contains cranial nerve IX, X, and XI, the inferior petrosal and sigmoid sinuses, and posterior meningeal artery

A

JUGULAR FORAMEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Another name for DCIS

A

Comedocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DiGeorge is a T-lymphocyte immunodeficiency resulting from maldevelopment of:

A

3rd and 4th branchial (pharyngeal) POUCHES, NOT 3rd ARCH - give rise to structures innervated by CN9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3rd branchial pouch vs 3rd branchial arch

A

pouch - thymus, arch - stylopharyngeus uscle, hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
mechanism of antigen presentation
Antigen takin into APC by phagocytosis, loaded onto MHC CLASS II molecules within acidified endosomes, expressed on cell surface for interaction with T-lymphocytes. Failure to acidify lysosomes leads to deficient expression of MHC class II
25
Men 2A
MPP - Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (calcitonin), Pheochromocytoma, Parathyroid tumor
26
Men 1
PPP: Parathyroid tumor (hypercalcemia), Pancreatic tumor (gastrin), Pituitary adenoma (prolactin, ACTH)
27
Should be exluded in all patients with medullary thyroid cancer
PHEOCHROMOCYTOMAS - because they are present in MEN2a and MEN2b (which both have medullary carcinoma (calcitonin), MEN1 does not have medullary carcinoma
28
$ Left ventricular filling volume
PRELOAD
29
Transamination reactions occur between which 2 molecules and require WHICH COFACTOR?
Amino acids and an alpha-keto acid, require PYRIDOXAL PHOSPHATE (VITAMIN B6)
30
Vitamin needed in amino acid transamination and in decarboxylation reactions
B6
31
Carry out nonoxidate reactions of the HMB shunt
TRANSKETOLASE and TRANSALDOLASE - all cells can synthesize RIBOSE from F6P using these nonoxidative reactions
32
ADH acts on this segment of nephron
MEDULLARY segment of the collecting duct (principle cells)
33
Aldosterone acts on this segment of nephron
CORTICAL segment of collecting duct
34
Only renal stones that are radiolucent
URIC ACID stones (5%) microscopically appear yellow or red-brown, diamond or rhombus
35
Radiopaque, rectangular prism (renal stone)
Struvite (magnesium ammonium sulfage) (15% of stones) Alkaline due to proteus
36
Radiopaque, colorless octahedron renal stone
Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate (70-80% of stones) Form in Acidic urine pH \<6 OR neutral urine
37
Radiopaque, flat, yellow, hexagonal crystal (renal stone)
Cystine stone (1% of stones) acidic pH needed to form
38
MAC
Minimal alverolar concentration - concentration of gas in lungs that produces desired effect in 50% of patients
39
Mechanism of death in cardiac tamponade
cardiogenic shock
40
Second messenger used by alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
IP3 (hormone binds, G-protine activates PHOSPHOLIPASE C - forms DAG and IP3, IP3 increase in intracellular calcium which then activates PROTEIN KINASE C
41
Conditions that cause an increase in thyroid binding globulin? Effect on T4, T3, and free thyroid hormone?
Pregnancy, oral contraceptives, hormone replacment therapy (estrogen or progesterone) and result in INCREASE in circulating TOTAL T4 (bound T4 plus free T4) and TOTAL T3, but FREE THYROID HORMONE is NORMAL, so patients remain euthyroid and normal TSH leve
42
Why does TBG increase in pregnancy
Estrogen reduces catabolism of TBG
43
3rd portion of duodenum near these anatomical sites
at L3 level, close association with UNCINATE PROCESS of pancreas and SMA
44
Where does the saphenous vein drain into?
FEMORAL VEIN, a few centimeters inferolateral to the pubic tubercle
45
Cellular receptor CMV uses
Cellular integrin
46
Cellular receptor EBV uses
CR2 (CD21)
47
Cellular receptor HIV uses
CD4 and CXCR4/CCR5
48
Cellular receptor Rabies attacks
GLYCOPROTEIN SPIKES that bind to the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
49
Cellular receptor Rhinovirus uses
ICAM1 (CD54)
50
Function of Biotin
CO2 carrier on surface of carboxylase enzyme needed for many conversions including PYRUVATE to OXALOACETATE. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase, PC, PCC, all playing roles in lipid and carb metabolism.
51
Metabolic abnormality seen sith biotin deficiency
METABOLIC ACIDOSIS - due to build up of PYRUVATE (can't convert pyruvate to oxalaoacetate (Defective PYRUVATE CARBOXYLASE) and pyruvate shunted to lactic acid. Excess ingestion of avidin can cause biotin deficiency
52
Major determinant of whether coronary artery plaque will cause ischemic myocardial injury
RATE at which it occludes involved artery
53
Decrease stability of plaque inreasing risk of rupture
Thin fibrous cap, lipid rich core, active inflammation in atheroma
54
RNA Nonenveloped viruses
CPR PAPP: Calcivirus (norwalk), Picornavirus (PERCH), Reovirus,
55
DNA Nonenveloped viruses
PAPP: Parvovirus, Adenovirus (Airway, GI, Eye), Papilloma, Polyoma (JC)
56
Picornaviruses
all enteroviruses: PERCH: Polio, Echo, Rhino, Coxsaci, HAV
57
What initiates Acute calculous cholecystitis 90% of the time?
OBSTRUCTION of the GALLBLADDER NECK or CYSTIC DUCT - leading to inflammation
58
Most common complication of cholelithiasis
Acute calculous cholecystitis
59
Bcl-2 overexpression
Follicular lymphoma - t(14:18)
60
Most common movement disorder
ESSENTIAL TREMOR - slowly progressive symmetric postural and/or kinetic tremor affecting upper extremities, AD inheritence
61
Most common cause of retinitis in HIV
CMV retinitis affects 30-40% of AIDS patients with CD4+ count below 50/mm3
62
Attributable risk percent (ARP)
Represents the excess risk in th unexposed population that can be attributed to the risk factor. Risk in exposed - risk in unexposed/risk in exposed or ARP = (RR-1)/RR
63
DT
Delirium tremens or acute intoxication - begin 48-72 hours after last drink
64
AD disease caused by abnormal NUCLEOTIDE MISMATCH REPAIR
Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer) involves genes MSH2 and MLH1, mutations in these 2 genes account for 90% o cases of Lynch syndrome
65
Carpal tunnel is associated with these conditions
Hypothyroidism, DM, RA, dialysis-associated amyloidosis
66
Rathke's pouch derived from this embryologic derivative
Surface ectoderm (Anterior pituitary is rathke's pouch)
67
Neural tube gives rise to:
Brain, SC, Posterior pituitary, pineal gland, retina
68
Where doe left ventricular leads course through
CORONARY SINUS, residing in ATRIOVENTRICULAR GROOVE on posterior aspect of heart
69
Most common location for intracranial schwannomas
CEREBELLOPONTINE ANGLE - between cerebellum and lateral pons
70
Most common cause of superior vena cava syndrome
#1 BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA #2 Non-Hodgkin lymphomas
71
Superior sulcus tumor
Pancoast tumor arise in lung apex and cause shoulder pain due to compression of brachial plexus, cervical sympathetic ganglia involvement lead to horner syndrome
72
Schizoaffective disorder
symptoms of schizophrenia in presence of PROMINENT MOOD SYMPTOMS. Period of 2 weeks psychotic symptoms in absence of mood symptoms is required
73
Homeobox genes code for:
DNA-binding transcription factors important in morphogenesis (proper formation and placment of tissues and organs)
74
Location of gene enhancers vs location of promotors
enhancers - Varibable locations, anywhere uprstream, downstream or even within the transcribed gene. Promotors are located 25 or 70 bases upstream from their associated genes.
75
Most common known viral cause of acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children (males in particular)
ADENOVIRUS; serotypes 11 and 21 of adenovirus subgroup B in particular
76
What is primary polydispia
excessive pathologic water drinking
77
3 important causes of polyria and polydipsia
DM, DI, and primary polydipsia
78
Mechanism of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction leading to DIC and shock
Antibody-mediated Type II hypersensitivty, host Ab binds to Ag on donor RBC activating COMPLEMENT, MAC causes erythrocyte lysis and anaphylatoxins mediated vasodilation
79
$ Necrotic area of brain infarct is walled off by this cell
ASTROCYES which enlarge and proliferate (gliosis)
80
Colonic diverticula result from
increased intraluminal pressure, composed of mucosa and submucosa, most common site is sigmoid colon
81
What is a pulsion mechanism that causes diverticula
Mucosa and submucosa herniate through "weak spots" and are FALSE
82
25% of individuals have nasal colonization with:
Staph Aureus, and more than 50% have become methicillin resistant (MRSA)
83
NBTE
Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis - hypercoagulable state - results from procoagulant effects of circulating products of cancers resulting in cardiac valve vegetations (marantic endocarditis) Similar to Trousseau's syndrome (migratory thrombophlebitis)
84
Acanthosis
increased thickness of stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer) between granular cell and basal layer of epidermis. Psoriasis
85
Acantholysis
Loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in epidermis and adnexal structures (Spongiotic dermatitis, ie excematous dermatitis)
86
Urticaria
"hives" secondary to Ag indcued degranulation of focal mast cells thorugh IgE antibody sensitization resulting in SUPERFICIAL DERMAL EDEMA and LYMPHATIC CHANNEL DILATION. No epidermal changes present
87
Recovery in PSGN
95% Children, only 60% adults completely recover, the rest develop chronic glomerulonephritis or RPGN
88
Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration
Type of paraneopastic syndrome in which tumor cells produce substances that induce an AUTOIMMUNE REACTION and cause damage and degeneration of healthy organs and tissues. Associated with cancers of lung, breast, ovary, uterus, lymphoma. Anti-Yo, anti-P/q
89
Must be ruled out in all patients with DES
cardiac cause b/c presentation mimics unstable angina
90
Responsible for epithelial attachment to nasopharynx (meningococci)
Meningococcal pili - primary route of infection is when adhere to mucosal epithelium and gain access to circulation
91
Which level of the brain stem does the trigeminal nerve arise?
MIDDLE CEREBELLAR PEDUNCLE in the PONS
92
What determines the ventricular contraction rate in a patient with A-Fib?
AV node refractory period - Not all atrial impulses are transmitted to the ventricals due to the AV NODAL REFRACTORY PERIOD
93
Degranulatino of mast cells is accomplished by
cross-linking multiple membrane-bound IgE antibodies by a specific antigen, resulting in IgE-Fc RECEPTOR AGGREGATION on the cell surface
94
Recombination
gene exchange that occurs through crossing over of 2 double-stranded DNA molecules - 2 defective viruses may use to yield cytopathic wt genome
95
Reassortment
mixing of genome segments in 2 or more segmented viruses that infect the same host cell
96
Exchange of genetic info between 2 virus strains that have non-fragmented, double stranded DNA genomes
recombination - resulting progeny will have traits not present in either parent virus
97
(gcc) or gccRccAUGG
Kozak consensus sequence occurs on eukaryotic mRNA, R is either adenine or guanine. Serves as the INITIATOR for TRANSLATION (mRNA binding to ribosomes). Mutation 3 bases upstream from the start codon (AUG) in this sequence is associated with THALASEMIA IN
98
Translocation is catalyzed by
elongation factor eEF2 and requires GTP hydrolysis
99
HIV patient with headaces and fever, india ink of CSF revelas spherical yeast forms with thick capsules.
Cryptococcus neoformans - present in soil and pigen droppings - LUNGS are primary site of entry