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KC46 > KC46 MQF CAO AUG 21 > Flashcards

KC46 MQF CAO AUG 21 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the KC-46A?

Reference: FCOM, 16 May, 2016, L.10.1

A

40,100 feet PA

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2
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?

Reference: FCOM, 16 May, 2016, L.10.1

A

9,500 feet PA

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3
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight?

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

416,000 Pounds

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4
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.4

A

415,000 Pounds

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5
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.4

A

273,000 Pounds

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6
Q

What is the Basic Crew of a KC-46?

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, Table 3.1

A

1x AC, 1x Pilot, and 1x Boom Operator

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7
Q

Add _______ additional crew member(s) certified in passenger handling to the mission when
passengers (Space-A/Duty Pax) are carried on ________ leg. Add another additional crew
member certified in passenger handling (two total) to the mission when over ____ passengers
are carried on any leg.

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, Table 3.1 Note 1

A

1; any; 42

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8
Q

______ boom operator(s) is/are required on missions with planned cargo or AE. An FB
supervised by an IB is equivalent to ______ BO(s)?

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, Table 3.1 Note 2

A

Two; one

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9
Q

The maximum FDP for a basic crew is ______ hours ( ______ hours when AFDS is inoperative).
All AAR and tactical events will be accomplished within the first ______ hours of the FDP.

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, 5.17.1

A

16+00; 12+00; 14+00

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10
Q

The minimum runway length is ________ feet. The minimum runway width is _________ feet.
The minimum taxiway width is _________ feet.

Reference: KC-46 Vol 1, 13 Mar 17, 4.9.3.1.1

A

7,000; 147; 74

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11
Q

A crewmember who is non-current in takeoff (AT59YM), instrument approach (AP15YM), or
landing (AL01YM) will ___________________.

Reference: KC-46 Vol 1, 12 July 21, 4.10.1.3.1

A

C. be supervised on all sorties until currency is regained

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12
Q

When lowering aircraft doors, stand clear of the door _______, as the _______ may move as the
door is lowered.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, SP.1.2

A

handle, handle

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13
Q

Although the main cargo door structure will withstand gusts up to _____ knots in the full open
position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding ____ knots.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, SP.1.3

A

65, 40

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14
Q

When operating with less than nominal external power delay _________ until after engines are
started.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.6.3

A
  • Activation of remaining hydraulic and fuel pumps
  • Setting trim
  • Checking flight controls
    D. ALL of the above
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15
Q

During the Electrical Power Up procedure, after selecting Battery switch to ON and Standby
Power selector to AUTO, which lights do you verify illuminate and what light extinguishes?

Reference: FCOM , 15 August, 2017, SP.6.1

A

MAIN BAT DISCH and APU BAT DISCH illuminate; standby bus OFF extinguishes

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16
Q

Do not transmit on any HF radios during/when ________________ ?

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

A. ground refueling operations
C. any personnel are within 30 feet of aircraft hull, using headsets connected to the exterior of
the airplane, or in proximity to open aircraft door.

D. Both A and C

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17
Q

During the Preliminary Preflight Procedure, prior to moving the IRS Mode Selectors from OFF to
NAV, how many seconds must you wait?

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.1

A

10 sec

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18
Q

During the Preliminary Preflight Procedure, when checking the status display, what specific
things are mentioned you must verify are sufficient for flight?

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.1

A

Oxygen pressure, Hydraulic quantity, and Engine oil quantity

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19
Q

The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of ________ consecutive starts or attempts within a
_________ minute period.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

3, 60

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20
Q

Coordination with ground crew is required prior to which of the following items?

Reference: FCOM, 7 October, 2015, NP.11.2

A

A. Airplane Movement
B. Air Refueling System Operation
C. Hydraulic System Pressurization / Flight Control Movement
D. Both A and C

E. All of the above

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21
Q

Avoid weather radar operation ___________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

A. in a hangar
C. when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome
D. Both A and C

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22
Q

The parking brake must be set in order to check the brake wear indicators during the exterior
inspection.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.2

A

True

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23
Q

Approximately how many brake applications are possible with a fully charged brake
accumulator?

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.2

A

4

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24
Q

What must be accomplished before the flight instrument check during the Preflight Procedure?

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.3

A

Initial data and navigation data entries

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25
Q

The maximum allowable on-the-ground differences between Captain or First Officer altitude
displays and the field elevation for RVSM at sea level is _______ feet, at 5,000 feet is
_________ feet and at 10,000 feet is ________ feet.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

75; 75; 75

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26
Q

Standby altimeters do not meet altimeter accuracy requirements of Reduced Vertical Separation
Minimum (RVSM)

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

True

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27
Q

MIL GPS is not authorized for RNP operations.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.4.9

A

True

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28
Q

EXCLUDED
In order for LAIRCM initialization to complete __________ must be loaded.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.20

A

EXCLUDED
MIL GPS keys

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29
Q

Do not set the LAIRCM mode to ________ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft.
Rapid movement of the LAIRCM ________ can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.21

A

OPR; turrets

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30
Q

Do not push the __________ switch on the ground. The switch causes _________________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.14

A

RAM AIR TURBINE, deployment of the ram air turbine

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31
Q

Do not put objects between the __________ and the ___________. Injury can occur when the
___________ is adjusted.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.20

A

Seat; aisle stand; seat

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32
Q

Start the Before Start Procedure after the required papers are on board, and all landing gear pins
are verified removed and stowed.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.26

A

True

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33
Q

What is the ARO coordination in the pilot Before Start Procedure?

Reference: FCOM, 30 October, 2017, NP.21.27

A

B. Confirm ARO is ready for engine start
C. Ensure the flight deck door is closed

D. Both B and C

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34
Q

If the tow bar is connected, do not pressurize the hydraulic systems until the nose gear steering
is locked out.

FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.27

A

True

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35
Q

Max motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than ___ % in approximately ___ seconds.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.29

A

1, 5

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36
Q

During engine start in sandy or dusty environments, allow maximum motoring for ___ minute(s)
to help remove contaminants.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.15

A

2

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37
Q

When operating in sandy or dusty environments, run the APU for ___ full minute(s) before using
it as a bleed air source.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.15

A

1

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38
Q

Do not increase thrust above that required to taxi until the oil temperature is a minimum of ____
degrees C.

Reference: FCOM, 1 August, 2016, NP.21.29

A

50

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39
Q

Do the Aborted Engine Start checklist for one or more of the following abort start conditions:

FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.29

A

A. EGT does not increase by 20 seconds after fuel control switch is moved to RUN or EGT
quickly nears or exceeds the start limit.
B. No N1 rotation when EGT increases.
C. N2 is not at idle by 2 minutes after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN.
D. Oil pressure indication is not normal by the time the engine is stabilized at idle.

E. ALL of the above.

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40
Q

Stabilized fuel flow indications in excess of ________ within a few seconds after setting the
FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN can be an indication of an _____________.

Reference: FCOM, 1 August, 2016, NP.21.30

A

1200 pph; impending hot start

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41
Q

Do not use engine anti-ice when OAT (on the ground) is above ____°C.

Reference: FCOM, 7 October, 2015, SP.17.2

A

10

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42
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within ____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance
between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____
feet from any obstruction. EXCEPTION: IAW AFI 11-218, aircraft may taxi without
marshallers/wing walkers at home station along locally established taxi lines which have been
measured to ensure a minimum of _____ feet clearance from any obstruction and the obstruction
is permanent.

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, 5.18.1

A

25; 10; 10

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43
Q

During taxi out in cold weather operations, differential thrust may be used to help maintain
airplane momentum during turns.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.5

A

True

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44
Q

During the Before Taxi Procedure, after the LEFT and RIGHT ISOLATION switches are switched
off, what must you verify?

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.31

A

A. ENG BLEED OFF messages not shown
B. engine bleed air OFF lights are extinguished

C. BOTH A and B

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45
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

Reference: FCOM, 16 May, 2016, L.10.1

A

10 knots

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46
Q

What is the runway slope limit?

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, L.10.2

A

± 2 Percent

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47
Q

If windshear is suspected, takeoff with full rated takeoff thrust is recommended, unless the use of
a fixed derate is required to meet a dispatch performance requirement.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.20

A

True

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48
Q

If windshear is suspected during takeoff, ___________________.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.20

A

A. Use Flaps 20 for optimum takeoff performance unless limited by obstacle clearance and/or
climb gradient
B. Consider increasing Vr speed to the performance limited gross weight rotation speed, not
to exceed actual gross weight Vr+20 knots.
C. Use the flight director after takeoff

D. ALL of the above.

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49
Q

Takeoffs are not recommended when slush, wet snow, or standing water depth is more than ½
inch or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches.

Reference: FCOM, 7 October, 2015, SP.17.1

A

True

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50
Q

During LNAV and VNAV operations, verify all changes to the airplane’s:________.

Reference: FCOM, 1 August, 2016, NP.11.5

A

A. Course
B. Vertical path
C. Thrust
D. speed

E. ALL of the above

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51
Q

Before takeoff, the engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band.

FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.33

A

A. True

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52
Q

Which of the following is not one of the engine warm up recommendations when the engines
have been shut down for more than 2 hours (there is no need to delay the takeoff for these
recommendations)?

FCOM, 14 April, 2017, NP.21.33

A

Engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band before takeoff.

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53
Q

Takeoff into headwinds of ______ or greater may result in ________ before the auto throttle can
make final thrust adjustment. If the thrust levers do not advance to the planned takeoff thrust,
manually advance the thrust levers before _______.

Reference: FCTM, 30, June, 2016, 3.6; FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.35

A

20 knots; THR HLD; 80 knots

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54
Q

Do not use __________ without verifying that runway length and obstacles do not limit takeoff
performance.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.4

A

FMC generated V speeds

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55
Q

What is V1 defined as?

FCTM, 30 June, 2016, 3.21

A

A. The maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply
brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speedbrakes) to stop the plane within the accelerate-stop
distance.
B. The minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of an engine at which the pilot can
continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the
takeoff distance.

D. BOTH A and B

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56
Q

Takeoff performance assumes the engine failure or event occurs ______ second(s) before V1. In
a runway limited situation, this means the airplane reaches a height of ______ feet over the end
of the runway if the decision is to continue the takeoff.

Reference: FCTM, 30 June, 2016, 3.22

A

1; 35

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57
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below ______ feet AGL.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.4

A

200

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58
Q

For takeoff, EMCON 4 must remain ______ until climbing through 400 feet AGL. For landing, EMCON 4 must remain ______ below 1000 feet above field elevation during approach and landing.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct 2019, L.10.2

A

OFF

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59
Q

With all engines operating, what are the general pilot “Q” tolerances for heading, airspeed, and
altitude?

Reference: KC-46 Vol 2, 10 Feb 17, Table 2.1

A

Heading: +/- 5 degree; Airspeed: +10/-5 knots; Altitude: +/- 100 feet

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60
Q

Do not use engine or wing anti-ice when TAT (in-flight) is above ___°C.

Reference: FCOM, 7 October, 2015, SP.17.2

A

10

61
Q

Do not rely on ________________ before activating engine anti-ice.

Reference: FCOM, 16 May, 2016, SP.17.4

A

Airframe visual icing cues

62
Q

Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.4

A

True

63
Q

The minimum altitude for flap retraction is _____ feet. The altitude selected for acceleration and
flap retraction may be specified for each airport.

Reference: FCTM, 30 June, 2016, 3.26

A

400

64
Q

The first step in the Engine Fire or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is:

Reference: QRH, 7 October, 2015, 8.2

A

A/T ARM switch….OFF

65
Q

The ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist directs that for an engineout
landing, use flaps for landing and flaps for go-around.

Reference: QRH, 1 August, 2016, 8.4

A

20; 5

66
Q

The turbulent air penetration speed is ______.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, L.10.2

A

290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower

67
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for
RVSM operation is _____ feet.

FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

200

68
Q

The APU bleed air is available up to approximately ___________ feet.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.6

A

17,000

69
Q

The maximum altitude for flap extension is ___________ feet MSL.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.8

A

20,000

70
Q

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in
pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any
speed, including below VA.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.8

A

True

71
Q

Do not use the _______ for navigation.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.8

A

Terrain display

72
Q

The autothrottle should be off in severe turbulence.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.19

A

True

73
Q

During flight in IMC, avoid flying directly over significant amber or red radar returns,
________________.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, SP.17.23

A

Even if there are no returns at airplane altitude

74
Q

The minimum distance from any weather capable of producing lightning while conducting aerial
refueling is _______ NM.

Reference: FCOM, 14 April, 2017, L.10.2

A

25

75
Q

Start the Rendezvous Procedure no later than _____ minutes prior to first planned ARCT.
Complete the Rendezvous Procedure prior to receiver(s) reaching _______ NM in trail.

Reference: QRH, 14 April, 2017, OI.1.2

A

30; 1

76
Q

When completing the Rendezvous Procedure, on the TACAN page (NAV RAD 2/2) enter the
proper channel and mode settings. To enable both bearing and range information, set MODE to
_____ and BRG MODE to ______ .

Reference: QRH, 14 April, 2017, OI.1.2

A

BCN; INV

77
Q

When completing the Rendezvous Procedure, on the THRUST LIM page select _____ to set the
EPR bugs to maximum continuous thrust.

Reference: QRH, 14 April, 2017, OI.1.2

A

CON

78
Q

For onloads, verify/enter the onload quantity on the ONLD CTRL page. The onload value cannot
be entered or modified while the AERIAL REFUELING selector is set to ___________.

Reference: QRH, 15 August, 2017, OI.1.3

A

ONLOAD

79
Q

When either tanker or receiver, start the Prep for Contact Procedure when ___________ is
established between the receiver and tanker aircraft.

Reference: QRH, 15 August, 2017, OI.1.3

A

visual contact

80
Q

As the tanker set the TCAS MODE to ______, or as the receiver set the XPDR MODE to
_______ .

Reference: QRH, 14 April, 2017, OI.1.3
82.

A

TA; STBY

81
Q

Do not transmit on HF radios ____________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

during air refueling operations within 30 feet of another aircraft

82
Q

The speed operational envelope for deploying the boom, stowing the boom, and operating with
the boom down is __________. However, in case of emergency separation initiated within 15
KCAS of the edge of the boom envelope, boom deployed envelope operations are permitted out
to _________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.9

A

180 – 325 KCAS; 340 KCAS

83
Q

During cases of emergency or urgent operational need, WARP drogues can be safely retracted
up to _______ . The left WARP coupler shroud will likely be dented/damaged by contact with the
WARP exit tunnel upon retraction faster than _________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.11

A

325 KCAS/0.84 Mach; 275 KCAS

84
Q

Fuel offload with the wing vent valves failed closed __________.

Reference: FCOM, 1 August, 2016, 12.20.15

A

A. Could rupture the fuel tanks
C. Could cause severe structural damage

D. A and C

85
Q

ACs may perform receiver AR from the right seat under what conditions?

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, 3.4.4

A

A. Authorized by SQ/CC and with direct IP supervision
C. After SQ/CC AC Right seat receiver air refueling certification

D. Either A or C

86
Q

With the autopilot off, during tanker A/R, what are the “Q” tolerances for airspeed, altitude, and
heading?

Reference: KC-46 Vol 2, 10 Feb 17, 2.10.4.3

A

Airspeed: +15/-10 KIAS; Altitude: +/- 300 feet; Heading:+/- 10 degrees

87
Q

The ____________ mode does not provide automatic low speed protection and permits flight away from selected altitude. For level–off protection, always select new level–off altitude prior to engaging vertical speed mode.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct 2019, SP.4.2

A

Vertical Speed

88
Q

Start the Post-Air Refueling Procedure when _________________ and the tanker and receiver
aircraft are __________________ . Complete the Post-Air Refueling procedure prior to
___________________.

Reference: QRH, 15 August, 2017, OI.1.5

A

refueling operations are terminated; separated from each other; the Descent Procedure.

89
Q

Coordinate with the ARO to ensure the Boom or CDS Fill procedure is complete, if applicable,
before moving the ________________ selector out of _______________.

Reference: QRH, 15 August, 2017, OI.1.6

A

AERIAL REFUELING; OFFLOAD

90
Q

Start the Descent Procedure before the airplane descends below ________________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.40

A

the cruise altitude for arrival at destination

91
Q

Complete the Descent Procedure by _________ feet MSL.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.40

A

10,000

92
Q

The Approach Procedure is normally started at _______________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.41

A

transition level

93
Q

Complete the Approach Procedure before:

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.41

A

A. the initial approach fix
B. the start of radar vectors to the final approach course
C. the start of a visual approach

D. any one of the above

94
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below _______ feet AFE.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.3

A

1,000

95
Q

For an instrument approach using IAN, select the G/S prompt OFF ___________.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.41

A

A. if flying an ILS approach where the G/S transmitter is inoperative
B. when the G/S data is unreliable

D. Both A and B

96
Q

The final approach deviation scales are proportional to RNP. They _____ become more sensitive
as ILS/GLS scales do.

Reference: FCOM, 16 May, 2016, 10.10.18

A

Do not

97
Q

When using _____ to intercept the localizer, _____ might parallel the localizer without capturing
it. The airplane can then descend on the VNAV path with the localizer not captured.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.47

A

LNAV, LNAV

98
Q

Do not use the autopilot below _____ feet radio altitude at airports with field elevations above
8,400 feet.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.4

A

100

99
Q

Automatic approaches must be terminated at no less than ______ feet AGL for airport field
elevations between 8,400 feet and 9,500 feet.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, L.10.4

A

100

100
Q

From _____ feet HAT to the runway, if the stabilized approach criteria for minor deviations are
exceeded the ___________ will announce ____________ and the PF will ______________ .

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 01 Feb 16, 5.11.2.4

A

500; PM or other crewmember; Go-around; execute a go-around

101
Q

WARNING: When performing a missed approach from an ILS or GLS with the autopilot engaged
and __________ inoperative, the autopilot releases all __________ inputs immediately after
reversion to single channel operation. This can occur as early as the initiation of the goaround/
missed approach when above _______ feet AGL. The pilot flying must anticipate this
transition and ____________ as needed to maintain coordinated flight.

Reference: FCOM, 15 August, 2017, NP.21.50

A

one engine; rudder inputs; 200; manually apply rudder

102
Q

Fuel offload via the WARPs with the wing vent valves failed ______ could rupture the fuel tanks and cause severe structural damage

A

Closed

103
Q

According to the Engine Failure or Shutdown checklist, one engine inoperative landing flap position for landing is flaps ______ and speed ______.

Reference: QRH, 16 Oct, 2019, 7.8

A

20; VREF 20

104
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, L.10.4

A

310,000 Pounds

105
Q

With all engines operating, what are the landing “Q” tolerances for airspeed, touchdown zone, centerline, and TCH (airspeed tolerances apply to computed threshold speed)?

Reference: KC-46 Vol 2, 11 De 18, Table 2.2

A

Airspeed: +10/-5 KIAS with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 1,000-3,000feet; Centerline: +/- 15 feet left or right.

106
Q

Pilots ______ fly touch-and-go landings with passengers or hazardous cargo on board. Touch- and-go landings and stop-and-go landings are ______ with MEP on board.

Reference: KC-46 Vol 3, 27 Mar 19, 9.3.2.7

A

shall not; authorized

107
Q

Landing with fuel in the body tanks is______ .

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, L.10.7

A

Prohibited under non-failure conditions

108
Q

Autoland is limited to what flap setting(s)?

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, L.10.5

A

A. 25
C. 30

D. Both A and C

109
Q

The maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations are______ knots headwind, ______ knots crosswind, and ______ knots tailwind

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, L.10.5

A

25; 25; 10

110
Q

During the Landing Roll Procedure, when must you disconnect the autopilot?

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.53

A

Before turning off the runway

111
Q

During the Landing Roll Procedure, when must you disarm the autobrakes and usemanual brakes as needed?

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.53

A

Before taxi speed

112
Q

Start the After Landing Procedure when .

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.54

A

clear of the active runway

113
Q

What is(are) the engine cool down recommendation(s)?

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.54

A

A. Run the engines for at least 5 minutes.
C. Use a thrust setting no higher than that normally used for all engine taxi operations

D. Both A and C

114
Q

During the Shutdown Procedure, depressurize the hydraulic system last to prevent fluid transfer between systems.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.56

A

right

115
Q

Do not power the LAIRCM off while SYSTEM BUSY is shown on the CIU display. Doing so can corrupt engagement data being written to the HCC.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.58True

A

true

116
Q

Do not use the Flight Management Computer (FMC) generated V speeds without verifying that
and do not limit takeoff performance.

(PET) Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.5

A

runway length; obstacles

117
Q

Do not set Large Aircraft Infrared Countermeasures (LAIRCM) mode to ______ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM turrets can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.22

A

Operate (OPR)

118
Q

Protection against vapor ignition in the aerial refueling boom and aerial manifold is __________ with the boom isolation valve in the closed position. Therefore, the boom should be powered off when not in use.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, 12.20.32

A

Maximized

119
Q

Do not select Emission Control (EMCON) 4 to ON until at least __________ above ground level after takeoff. If EMCON 4 is set to ON below __________ above ground level, control column forces during approach to stall may be lighter than normal. Elevator feel returns to normal once a valid radio altitude is received.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, 5.10.29

A

400 feet

120
Q

Do not use Emission Control (EMCON) 4 below
__________ above field elevation during approach.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, 5.10.29

A

1000 feet

121
Q

With Emission Control (EMCON) 4 set to ON, the __________ alerts will be disabled.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, 5.10.29

A

A. TOO LOW FLAPS, TOO LOW GEAR, DON’T SINK, SINK RATE,GLIDESLOPE,
B. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) traffic alerts and resolution
C. Predictive and reactive windshear alerts

D. All of the above

122
Q

Severe windshear may exceed the performance capability of the Autopilot Flight DirectorSystem (AFDS). The pilot flying must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle and fly manually.

Reference: QRH, 1 August 2016, Man.1.19

A

True

123
Q

Although the door structure will withstand gusts up to
__________ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding __________ knots. Should it become necessary to lower the door in high winds, the airplane should be positioned with the door opening on the downwind side.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, SP.1.6

A

65; 40

124
Q

Do not use windshield wipers on a dry window.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, SP.3.

A

True

125
Q

Once an AR pump message displays, fuel for approximately ___ minutes of engine operation remains in the center tank. This may not be sufficient to reach a suitable landing surface.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct 2019, 12.20.16
126.

A

C. 15

126
Q

When flying an approach with vertical speed, if required to remain at or above theMinimum Descent Altitude (Height) (MDA[H]) during the missed approach, missed approach must be initiated at least __________ feet above MDA(H).

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, SP.4.5.

A

50

127
Q

Do not use Flight Level Change (FLCH) on final approach below__________ feet Above Field Elevation (AFE).

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, L.10.3

A

1,000

128
Q

Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within__________ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than______ feet to any obstruction.

Reference: AFMAN 11-218, Paragraphs 3.7

A

25, 10

129
Q

Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continuea touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.

Reference: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, Paragraph 7.9

A

True

130
Q

When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?

Reference: AFMAN 11-218, Paragraph 3.10

A

From just prior to engine start until engine shutdown

131
Q

You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?

Reference: AFMAN 11-218, Paragraph 3.5.1

A

Alter the course to the right to remain well clear, or stop.

132
Q

No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR when possible.

Reference: ATP3.3.4.2. para 2.42 b.

A

True

133
Q

For all AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within ½ NM; this includes datalink.

Reference: ATP3.3.4.2 US SRD 8D.1

A

foreign aircraft

134
Q

The position approximately 50 ft behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called:

Reference: ATP3.3.4.2 Annex 1A and US SRD Appendix 8D

A

A. Astern
B. Pre-Contact

D. Either A or B

135
Q

Tanker responsibilities during a Rendezvous Delta is (are) to:

Reference: ATP3.3.4.2 Annex 2A

A

A. Be at the base AAR altitude.
B. Enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction.
C. Attempt to arrive at least 15 min before the RVCT and, normally, establish a left- hand holding pattern using the RVCP as an anchor point.

D. All of the above

136
Q

When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G, a common track length equivalent to __________ min flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.

Reference: ATP3.3.4.2 Annex 2G

A

15

137
Q

Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of__________ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAOprocedures. When not operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews __________to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.

Reference: ATP3.3.4.2 Para 2.2

A

29.92, are required

138
Q

Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end aerial refueling altitude requests at least five (5) minutes prior to AREX.

Reference: JO 7610.4P, Para 10-1-6a.10

A

True

139
Q

Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle, 60nm long, 25nm wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:

Reference: JO 7610.4P, Paragraph 10-2-5, Note

A

Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired.

140
Q

Routing and altitudes(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV shall not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO7610.4P.

Reference: JO 7610.4P, Para 3-3-8

A

True

141
Q

To avoid an automatic rejection of the logon request, the flight crew ensures that the flight- specific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed__________ .

Reference: GOLD Manual, Para 2.2.3.2.3

A

In the flight plan

142
Q

After obtaining and reading back the clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by __________ minutes or more, the pilot must pass a revised estimate to ATC.

Reference: North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, Para 5.1.7

A

3

143
Q

If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, reschedulingthe ALTRV,

Reference: JO 7610.4P, Para 3-4-4

A

A. Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule.
C. Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF.

D. A or C

144
Q

If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to __________ .

Reference: GOLD Manual, Para 5.2.1.2 Note

A

Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request.

145
Q

Approximately __________ minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C service areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.

Reference: GOLD Manual, Para 5.2.5.2

A

15

146
Q

Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT MNPS Airspace occuras a result of crews programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. These are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originatefrom:

Reference: North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, Para 5.7.3

A

A. Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the ATC cleared route
B. Failure to load waypoint information carefully
C. Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems

D. Any combination of the above

147
Q

If OAT is above__________ . , leave the LAIRCM power off until within __________ .minutes before takeoff.
Ground ops longer than__________ . minutes with OAT above __________ .can result in degraded LAIRCM performance or LAIRCM failure.

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.22

A

38°C/100°F, 25, 25, 38°C/100°F

148
Q

If OAT is above , set the LAIRCM power to off within minutes after landing. Ground ops longer than minutes with OAT above can result in degraded LAIRCM performance or LAIRCM failure.

A

A. 38°C/100°F, 25, 25, 38°C/100°F

Reference: FCOM, 16 Oct, 2019, NP.21.54

KC46 (1 decks)

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