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KC-10 Pilot MQF > KC-10 Pilot MQF > Flashcards

KC-10 Pilot MQF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The refueling pattern is a _____ with legs separated by as little as 7 nm for smaller, slower tankers such as the KC-135 and as much as 20 nm for larger, faster tankers.
A

Left hand race track pattern

ATP-3.3.4.2 [2A-2]

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2
Q
  1. The geographical point along the planned AAR track where fuel transfer should commence is the _____.
A

Contact Point

ATP-3.3.4.2 [1A-7]

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3
Q
  1. The _____ is the initial formation position for a receiver joining a tanker.
A

echelon left position

ATP-3.3.4.2 [1A=7]

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4
Q
  1. The Toboggan maneuver is a request from receiver for the tanker to start a slow descent, maintaining the refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is _____ and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.
A

between 300 and 500 ft per minute

ATP-3.3.4.2 [1A=16]

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5
Q
  1. Do not refuel as a receiver above _____ feet.
A

31,000

1C-10(K)A-1

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6
Q
  1. Do not transmit on the HF radio when _____. Transmitting on the HF may cause uncommanded KC-10A air refueling boom movement, endangering the tanker or receiver aircraft and crews.
A

in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10 air refueling boom

1C-10(K)A-1

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7
Q
  1. If radio communication is lost or unreadable between the boom operator and receiver pilot, contacts will not be attempted except _____.
A

during an emergency fuel situation.

1C-10(K)A-1

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8
Q
  1. Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause _____ as a result of an inability to disconnect due to binding action of the boom nozzle.
A

structural damage

1C-10(K)A-1

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9
Q
  1. All appropriate equipment should be operating a minimum of _____ (_____ for A/A) prior to rendezvous control times (ARCT, RZ., etc.).
A

30 min; 15 min

1C-10(K)A-1

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10
Q
  1. Normally, the tanker will orbit in a _____ pattern at a speed of _____.
A

left hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight

1C-10(K)A-1

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11
Q
  1. To help insure safe operation when range between aircraft is not known and the receiver has to descend through air refueling altitude, tankers will not initiate final turn to refueling track unless _____ rendezvous altitude.
A

receiver aircraft has confirmed level at proper

1C-10(K)A-1

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12
Q
  1. If the KC-10A receiver is more than _____ in trail with the tanker, the airspeed may be increased for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at _____ in trail.
A

4 nm; 3 nm

1C-10(K)A-1

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13
Q
  1. Attempts to effect a contact during a loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the _____.
A

boom operator

1C-10(K)A-1

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14
Q
  1. After a disconnect, remain stabilized in the contact position until the _____.
A

PNF visually confirms that the disconnect annunciator is illuminated and the boom is clear

1C-10(K)A-1

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15
Q
  1. Normal backout from the contact position should be accomplished _____.
A

smoothly and slowly

1C-10(K)A-1

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16
Q
  1. When notified that a KC-10A boom flight control system failure has occurred, _____.
A

do not initiate a disconnect unless directed by the boom operator.

1C-10(K)A-1

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17
Q
  1. _____ air refueling will not be conducted while tobogganing except in case of _____.
A

Drogue; emergency

1C-10(K)A-1

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18
Q
  1. During the RECEIVER PREPARATION FOR CONTACT checklist, the IFF/ETCAS will be turned to standby _____.
A

when visual contact can be maintained with the tanker
when within 3nm of the tanker
no later than 1/2 nm

1C-10(K)A-1

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19
Q
  1. As a receiver, if overrunning occurs during breakaway, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until _____ has been attained.
A

positive separation

1C-10(K)A-1

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20
Q
  1. If the KC-10 receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time, the receiver shall _____ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact.
A

establish a positive rate of descent to 1000 feet below air refueling altitude

1C-10(K)A-1

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21
Q
  1. Pressure boom refueling will not be attempted except _____.
A

when an emergency fuel shortage exists aboard the receiver aircraft.

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22
Q
  1. Tankers will maintain applicable contact air refueling airspeed during receiver closure. If within _____ NM closure, the tanker is off airspeed by more than _____ knots, and required to decelerate or accelerate to obtain contact airspeed, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.
A

1; 10

1C-10(K)A-1

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23
Q
  1. It is the responsibility of _____ to ensure positive separation throughout refueling operations.
A

all formation members (both tanker and receiver)

ATP-3.3.4.2

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24
Q
  1. When using autothrottles for air refueling, speed changes should be made slowly and deliberately (_____ knot(s) increments) to preclude rapid throttle movements.
A

1

1C-10(K)A-1

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25
Q
  1. Particular attention should be given when using the heading select knob with autothrottles engaged. The close proximity to and similarity with the speed knob creates the potential for _____.
A

inadvertent speed changes

1C-10(K)A-1

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26
Q
  1. If the receiver fails to attain stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, _____.
A

breakaway procedures will be initiated

1C-10(K)A-1

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27
Q
  1. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will take prompt action in the event of a(n) _____.
A

autopilot malfunction or breakaway

1C-10(K)A-1

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28
Q
  1. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will keep _____.
A

one hand on the control column and the other hand available for immediate throttle operation.

1C-10(K)A-1

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29
Q
  1. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the autopilot while the receiver is _____ as unscheduled attitude changes can occur.
A

in the contact position

1C-10(K)A-1

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30
Q
  1. If an overrunning receiver flies under the tanker, the tanker autopilot may sense low pressure as a climbing indication and _____.
A

initiate a descent into the lower aircraft

1C-10(K)A-1

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31
Q
  1. Do not use _____ modes of the autopilot during air refueling.
A

navigation

1C-10(K)A-1

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32
Q
  1. If excessive fuel spillage occurs, initiate a disconnect. Discontinue refueling except in an emergency or _____.
A

when dictated by operational requirements

1C-10(K)A-1

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33
Q
  1. If the drogue/hose will not rewind, it should not be jettisoned _____ unless aircraft/crew safety requires immediate action.
A

over a populated area

1C-10(K)A-1

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34
Q
  1. During C-130 refueling, do not raise or lower slats/flaps when the receiver is closer than _____ because of the resultant pitch change of the tanker.
A

the astern position

ATP-3.3.4.2

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35
Q
  1. With two or more tankers and one receiver use echelon formation _____.
A

stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 2 nm nose to nose separation measured along the 60 deg echelon

ATP-3.3.4.2

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36
Q
  1. Special consideration should be accorded _____ above idle, as injury to personnel or damage to equipment could occur if they are in the blast pattern area.
A

throttle settings

1C-10(K)A-1

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37
Q
  1. When cargo or passengers are carried, the environmental curtain shall be fully installed. This will ensure that the occupants have adequate protection from _____.
A

smoke, fumes, and noise

1C-10(K)A-1

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38
Q
  1. The APU should not be operated _____ because the fire agent cannot be discharged.
A

when the battery is removed or disconnected

1C-10(K)A-1

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39
Q
  1. During ground refueling or defueling operations, do not operate which of the following equipment on the aircraft?
A

Radio, radar, or other electrical/electronics

1C-10(K)A-1

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40
Q
  1. _____ shall be stationed at the Flight Engineer’s Fuel Control Panel for AC pumping unit defueling and at ground defueling units for all defueling operations.
A

Qualified personnel

1C-10(K)A-1

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41
Q
  1. When operation in manual boom latching mode, the _____ initiate all disconnects.
A

receiver must

1C-10(K)A-1

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42
Q
  1. If a circuit breaker trips, a cooling period of _____ seconds should be allowed before resetting. A tripped circuit breaker should never _____.
A

90; be reset more than once

1C-10(K)A-1

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43
Q
  1. If tripped, which of the following circuit breakers should not be reset until maintenance personnel can ensure solenoid housing is intact and that the solenoid coil is not shorted to the solenoid case?
A

Manifold scavenge valve circuit breaker

1C-10(K)A-1

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44
Q
  1. If numerous circuit breakers trip for one or more sub-systems, the circuit breakers should _____.
A

not be reset unless an emergency condition exists, until maintenance actions are complete

1C-10(K)A-1

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45
Q
  1. Circuit breakers _____ in the event a Kapton wire flashover occurs.
A

may not open

1C-10(K)A-1

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46
Q
  1. Do not use EMER PWR SW to restore L EMER AC BUS _____.
A

if L EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM B-21) trips

1C-10(K)A-1

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47
Q
  1. Failure to monitor the throttle positions, with the autothrottles engaged and in any mode, may result in _____.
A

engine overspeed

1C-10(K)A-1

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48
Q
  1. When climbing in the _____ mode of the flight guidance system, the airspeed must be closely monitored. The engines may not produce sufficient thrust to maintain the airspeed, due to gross weight and high altitudes.
A

VERT SPEED

1C-10(K)A-1

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49
Q
  1. The maximum pitch attitude for the AT/SC system is _____ for takeoff and _____ for go-around.
A

22 deg; 15 deg

1C-10(K)A-1

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50
Q
  1. Activation of the Hydraulic System 3 Shutoff Valve will cause _____.
A

autopilot 2 pitch control to become inoperative with autopilot 2 engaged

1C-10(K)A-1

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51
Q
  1. Do not select GA mode when above _____ feet pressure altitude.
A

14,000

1C-10(K)A-1

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52
Q
  1. After aircraft reaches _____, the thrust computer stops updating the N1 readout. The computer begins updating again when a new thrust mode is selected.
A

30 Knots

1C-10(K)A-1

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53
Q
  1. Excess pedal pressure/deflection while applying manual braking techniques can result in _____.
A

worn/blown tires
skids
center gear lower drag link failure

1C-10(K)A-1

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54
Q
  1. If DOOR DISARM light remains on with slide arming lever in SLIDE ARMED position, _____.
A

call maintenance

1C-10(K)A-1

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55
Q
  1. Structural damage may occur if the cargo door is operated in winds exceeding _____ knots.
A

40

1C-10(K)A-1

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56
Q
  1. To avoid possible damage to the aircraft and/or ladder, raise to the retracted position when _____.
A

aircraft is to be moved
ladder is not in use and wind velocities of 35 knots are anticipated
aircraft is to be left unattended

1C-10(K)A-1

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57
Q
  1. With the cabin pressure controller in AUTO mode, cabin altitude remains at departure airfield elevation until aircraft is _____, at which time cabin altitude changes as indicated in the Automatic Pressurization Schedule.
A

5000’ above airfield

1C-10(K)A-1

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58
Q
  1. Crew rest bunks will not be occupied _____.
A

during takeoffs and landings

1C-10(K)A-1

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59
Q
  1. If an IAU oxygen system circuit malfunction cannot be corrected, _____.
A

personnel shall not occupy the affected seats during flight.

1C-10(K)A-1

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60
Q
  1. Do not transmit on HF radio when _____.
A

the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin surfaces or the boom.

1C-10(K)A-1

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61
Q
  1. Do not key the HF system when personnel are within _____ feet of the HF antenna.
A

100

1C-10(K)A-1

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62
Q
  1. Operating the INU on the ground with AC power removed causes _____.
A

system overheat due to no air flow

1C-10(K)A-1

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63
Q
  1. The capability to insert or delete waypoints also applies to the TO (active) and FROM waypoint locations. Modification of these waypoints will ______.
A

have an immediate effect on the aircraft navigation displays and flight guidance systems

1C-10(K)A-1

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64
Q
  1. It is recommended that the waypoint sequencing mode remain in _____ when the FMS is executing a SID, STAR, or approach procedure.
A

Auto

1C-10(K)A-1

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65
Q
  1. A discontinuity in the flight plan may occur when using SIDs/STARs. The discontinuity can be resolved by the following method(s):
A

Delete the discontinuity.
Delete the waypoint associated with the discontinuity.
Perform a Direct-To while in the discontinuity.

1C-10(K)A-1

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66
Q
  1. If the FMS does not change to approach mode at the FAF, the PF should _____.
A

execute a missed approach and select another approach aid.

1C-10(K)A-1

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67
Q
  1. The radar antenna may be damaged if the function switch is moved to _____ while the aircraft is in motion.
A

OFF

1C-10(K)A-1

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68
Q
  1. Do not select _____ unless personnel are clear of the antenna radiation area.
A

WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, or BCN

1C-10(K)A-1

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69
Q
  1. Precipitation diffuses the radar signal and reduces the ability to detect the signal return. The amount of signal dissipation is directly proportional to the rate of rainfall. It is possible for _____.
A

a storm cell to mask another cell, which could be larger and/or more intense

1C-10(K)A-1

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70
Q
  1. All TCAS aural warnings are inhibited below _____ feet radio altitude on approach and up to _____ feet radio altitude on departure.
A

900; 1100

1C-10(K)A-1

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71
Q
  1. The boom shall be maintained full of fuel when the departure, enroute or arrival flight path may place the aircraft _____.
A

in the vicinity of lightning

1C-10(K)A-1

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72
Q
  1. Concerning emergency signals, all intermittent system failure lights will _____.
A

be treated the same as steady lights

1C-10(K)A-1

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73
Q
  1. During a LOSS OF ALL ENGINES/GENERATORS, if engine 1 or 3 does not restart within approximately _____, immediate consideration should be given to restarting engine 2. Do not operate _____.
A

45 seconds; flaps/slats

1C-10(K)A-1

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74
Q
  1. With a loss of all generators and emergency power only, the battery cannot be relied upon for more than _____. Attempting an APU start will discharge the battery.
A

30 minutes

1C-10(K)A-1

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75
Q
  1. With a dual hydraulic system failure _____.
A

autothrottles may be used except for approach and landing with flaps less than 35 deg
land at the nearest suitable airfield
minimize use of more than one hydraulic powered control at a time

1C-10(K)A-1

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76
Q
  1. During dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 2, do not reduce speed to below VMCA until _____.
A

landing is assured

1C-10(K)A-1

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77
Q
  1. With a dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 2, a missed approach should not be attempted if _____.
A

both rudders are inoperative and thrust is asymetric

1C-10(K)A-1

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78
Q
  1. After gear alternate extension do not exceed _____ kts.
A

260

1C-10(K)A-1

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79
Q
  1. For a dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 3, if upper rudder is inoperative do not reduce speed to below _____ until landing is assured.
A

VMCA (157 KIAS)

1C-10(K)A-1

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80
Q
  1. During the period that all ENG PNEU SUPPLY Sel are off, the aircraft will depressurize at approximately _____.
A

1,500 FPM

1C-10(K)A-1

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81
Q
  1. If both fire agent bottles for engine 2 have been discharged, do not _____.
A

start APU

1C-10(K)A-1

82
Q
  1. Following an engine failure, once the aircraft is configured for landing _____ may not exist at high gross weights and extreme ambient conditions with an additional engine failure.
A

go-around capability

1C-10(K)A-1

83
Q
  1. In a two engine operation situation _____.
A

use 35 deg flaps for landing
delay slat/flap and landing gear extension as long as practical
do not use autopilot for go-around

1C-10(K)A-1

84
Q
  1. In a single engine operation situation, if cabin pressure cannot be maintained, passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically at approximately _____ feet cabin altitude; the passengers have _____ minutes of oxygen available
A

14,000; 22

1C-10(K)A-1

85
Q
  1. Under which of the following conditions MAY a single engine missed approach be attempted?
A

Airspeed above single engine approach speed

1C-10(K)A-1

86
Q
  1. During a CONTROLLABILITY CHECK _____ to the point at which full control deflection is required about any axis.
A

never allow speed to decrease

1C-10(K)A-1

87
Q
  1. Under what condition should a controllability check in the planned landing configuration be considered?
A

Damage has occurred to any portion of the airplane structure sufficient to change the airplane normal flight and control characteristics.
The aircraft experiences in flight control malfunctions.
There is an uncorrectable fuel imbalance.

1C-10(K)A-1

88
Q
  1. In a ditching situation, cabin doors may not open for evacuation _____.
A

if cabin is pressurized

1C-10(K)A-1

89
Q
  1. Damage to the slats can result if wing anti-ice is operated on the ground for more than _____ seconds.
A

15

1C-10(K)A-1

90
Q
  1. If volts and frequency indicate after a CSD disconnect button is pushed, _____.
A

continue engine operation with the generator off

1C-10(K)A-1

91
Q
  1. Failure of the L EMER DC BUS or the R EMER DC BUS will cause the failure of the associated CDU, BSIU, EHSI, EADI and civil GPS. Navigation guidance can be restored to the functioning side by:
A

Selecting the respective autopilot or autopilot 2 if both autopilots were off when the system failed.

1C-10(K)A-1

92
Q
  1. If final flap selection is less than 35 deg, it is possible that the boom will contact the runway at _____ body angle, struts extended and _____ struts compressed.
A

13 deg; 11 deg

93
Q
  1. During ASYMMETRIC SLATS OR NO SLAT LANDING WITH FLAPS, if landing with 22 degree/EXT and the spoiler handle in ARM, spoilers extend automatically _____.
A

by reverser lever actuation

1C-10(K)A-1

94
Q
  1. With a complete pitot blockage, airspeed will _____ in a climb and _____ in a descent provided static port is unblocked.
A

INCREASE; DECREASE

1C-10(K)A-1

95
Q
  1. If the static system is blocked, altimeter and VSI will show _____ regardless of the aircraft’s pitch attitude and power settings.
A

level flight

1C-10(K)A-1

96
Q
  1. With the loss of all GPSs the _____ solutions provide more accurate navigation solutions than an INU ONLY navigation solution.
A

CIV 1 or CIV2

1C-10(K)A-1

97
Q
  1. If GPS1 and GPS2 both fail, and subsequently one GPS is restored, the _____ will use the first GPS restored.
A

INU

1C-10(K)A-1

98
Q
  1. During a NO FLAP/NO SLAT LANDING, with the alternate gear extension lever in the raised position _____.
A

Nose gear steering to the right is limited to 25 deg
the outboard ailerons will be unlocked

1C-10(K)A-1

99
Q
  1. If the SELECT FLAP LIMIT OVRD light is on _____.
A

structural damage may occur if flap limit airspeeds are exceeded.

1C-10(K)A-1

100
Q
  1. If the SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT COMES ON DURING TAKEOFF AFTER V1, at level off altitude, _____.
A

reduce pitch attitude and accelerate to 0 deg/EXT MIN MAN. Retract flaps and continue acceleration 0 deg/RET MIN MAN. Retract and inspect slats.

1C-10(K)A-1

101
Q
  1. With SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON during takeoff or go-around, do not move FLAP/SLAT handle until _____.
A

a safe altitude and airspeed has been attained

1C-10(K)A-1

102
Q
  1. During a stabilizer inoperative landing be prepared to _____.
A

use maximum control column force for flare

1C-10(K)A-1

103
Q
  1. In an UNSCHEDULED AUTO SLAT EXTENSION situation, the _____ or 0.75 M whichever is lower.
A

outboard slats are extended, do not exceed 270 KIAS

1C-10(K)A-1

104
Q
  1. During cruise if the slat reset switch light and slat disagree light are still on (after an unscheduled auto-slat extension and the slat reset switch-light was pushed) the _____.
A

outboard slats are extended

1C-10(K)A-1

105
Q
  1. In a fuel dump situation, with AR PUMP OVRD selected, FWD TANK fuel will continue to dump _____ pounds.
A

below 15,000

1C-10(K)A-1

106
Q
  1. Fuel dump in response to a takeoff emergency should not be initiated prior to _____.
A

reaching TWO ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT

1C-10(K)A-1

107
Q
  1. If the ABNORMAL BRAKE checklist is initiated for a HIGH ENERGY STOP (any stop initiated in excess of _____ knots), make AFTO 781A entry.
A

130

1C-10(K)A-1

108
Q
  1. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (caution zone), if a 400 deg C temperature exists for more than _____ minutes, wheel fuse plugs may activate and deflate the tire(s).
A

5

1C-10(K)A-1

109
Q
  1. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (danger zone), which of the following is NOT true?
    a. Immediately move aircraft to clear active runway or ramp
    b. Do not set the parking brake
    c. Fire is possible within 30 minutes
    d. After 5 minutes, fog or foam may be used to reduce cooling time
A

D

1C-10(K)A-1

110
Q
  1. In a GEAR HANDLE WILL NOT MOVE TO DOWN POSITION situation, after the main gear alternate gear extension lever is raised and latched, the main gear alternate extension lever must be
A

left in the raised position to prevent inadvertent gear retraction

1C-10(K)A-1

111
Q
  1. In a GEAR UNSAFE LT(S) ON WITH GEAR HANDLE UP (CONFIRMED ON BOTH PANELS) situation, if gear does not appear normal (for example, if main gear retraction is blocked by gear door) or if condition of gear cannot be determined,
A

do not attempt additional gear retraction

1C-10(K)A-1

112
Q
  1. Under operation with single pneumatic system, do not operate more than one air conditioning pack with power set at or above
A

MCT

1C-10(K)A-1

113
Q
  1. During an ABNORMAL START, do not select alternate ignition before completion of _____ second motoring period.
A

30

1C-10(K)A-1

114
Q
  1. During an ABNORMAL START, if fuel flow was above _____ PPH, a second attempt may result in a hot start.
A

700

1C-10(K)A-1

115
Q
  1. To prevent transcowl clevis damage, _____ when failure to stow is noted during ground operations.
A

do not attempt to stow a thrust reverser

1C-10(K)A-1

116
Q
  1. Engine anti-ice will be turned on immediately after engine start when outside air temperature is _____.
A

below 6 deg C, and either visible moisture is present or the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3 deg C or less

1C-10(K)A-1

117
Q
  1. Windshield anti-ice selectors should _____.
A

be in high only for the duration of moderate to heavy icing

1C-10(K)A-1

118
Q
  1. Maximum slat operating speed, landing setting, is _____ KIAS or _____ M.
A

221; 0.51

1C-10(K)A-1

119
Q
  1. The _____ must be operational for dispatch.
A

No. 1 Auxiliary Pump Switch

1C-10(K)A-1

120
Q
  1. Do not attempt [engine] starter re-engagement _____ % N2 rpm. Starter damage may occur.
A

above 30

1C-10(K)A-1

121
Q
  1. The [engine] starter motor may be operated continuously for as long as _____.
A

5 minutes

1C-10(K)A-1

122
Q
  1. Normally, engine starter re-engagement should be made with N2 rpm below 20%. Under emergency conditions such as engine fire indication, re-engagement may be made with N2 rpm as high as _____.
A

30%

1C-10(K)A-1

123
Q
  1. During engine start, the normal EGT limit is _____ degrees C.
A

750

1C-10(K)A-1

124
Q
  1. During engine start, the maximum EGT limit is _____ degrees C.
A

900

1C-10(K)A-1

125
Q
  1. During engine start, EGT in excess of _____ degrees C requires a 781 entry.
A

750

1C-10(K)A-1

126
Q
  1. During engine start, EGT peaks between 750C and 900C are limited to _____ seconds.
A

40

1C-10(K)A-1

127
Q
  1. One start is allowed in the _____ degree C range and the intended flight may be completed before maintenance action.
A

800 to 900

1C-10(K)A-1

128
Q
  1. Following two consecutive 5 minute engine starting cycles, a _____ cooling period is required between additional 5 minute cycles.
A

10 minutes

1C-10(K)A-1

129
Q
  1. The limiting tailwind component is _____ knots.
A

10

1C-10(K)A-1

130
Q
  1. Autoslat extension maximum speed is _____ KIAS or _____ M whichever is lower.
A

270; 0.55

1C-10(K)A-1

131
Q
  1. Maximum N1 for takeoff, climb, and cruise and MCT is _____.
A

118.5%

1C-10(K)A-1

132
Q
  1. Max EGT during takeoff is _____ degrees C for 5 minutes and _____ degrees C for 2 minutes.
A

945; 960

1C-10(K)A-1

133
Q
  1. During takeoff, an EGT reading between 946 and 960 degrees C is limited to _____ minutes.
A

2

1C-10(K)A-1

134
Q
  1. The normal takeoff thrust duration of 5 minutes may be extended to _____ minutes for engine-out contingency.
A

10

1C-10(K)A-1

135
Q
  1. The normal engine oil consumption is _____ quarts per hour.
A

.35

1C-10(K)A-1

136
Q
  1. The maximum engine oil consumption is _____ quarts per hour.
A

.55

1C-10(K)A-1

137
Q
  1. For engine out of limit operations, _____ of any operations beyond the stated limits shall be recorded in the 781.
A

duration and extent

1C-10(K)A-1

138
Q
  1. The maximum unrestricted landing weight of the KC-10 is _____ pounds.
A

436,000

1C-10(K)A-1

139
Q
  1. Planned overweight landings are not recommended. Overweight landings may be accomplished when operational necessity dictates or in the case of emergency. Under these conditions, use _____.
A

a maximum of 35 flaps

1C-10(K)A-1

140
Q
  1. If the autoslats cannot be retracted, continued flight is allowed at speeds up to _____ KIAS or _____ M whichever is lower.
A

270; 0.75

1C-10(K)A-1

141
Q
  1. At the minimum air refueling speed under normal conditions, a bank angle of over _____ deg can result in moderate buffet.
A

25

1C-10(K)A-1

142
Q
  1. During landings at weights over maximum unrestricted landing weight (MLW), the rate of descent at touchdown must not exceed _____ fpm, and a flap overspeed/overweight as well as an aircraft overweight landing inspection must be performed.
A

360

1C-10(K)A-1

143
Q
  1. Maximum operating speed during fuel dump is _____ KIAS below 28,000 ft, or _____ M above 28,000 ft.
A

325; 0.82

1C-10(K)A-1

144
Q
  1. Acceptable starting of the APU may be accomplished in the Standby control mode up to _____ feet.
A

10,000

1C-10(K)A-1

145
Q
  1. APU starting, normal control mode, is unrestricted up to _____ feet.
A

25,000

1C-10(K)A-1

146
Q
  1. The APU starter duty cycle should not exceed 1 minute on, followed by _____ off for cooling.
A

5 minutes

1C-10(K)A-1

147
Q
  1. The maximum landing weight with the anti-skid inoperative is _____ pounds.
A

411,000

1C-10(K)A-1

148
Q
  1. The maximum landing weight with the center gear retracted is _____ pounds.
A

400,000

1C-10(K)A-1

149
Q
  1. Maximum taxi weight, normal operations is _____ pounds.
A

593,000

1C-10(K)A-1

150
Q
  1. Maximum start takeoff and inflight gross weight, normal operation is _____ pounds.
A

590,000

1C-10(K)A-1

151
Q
  1. Normal operation, max zero fuel weight is _____ pounds.
A

414,000

1C-10(K)A-1

152
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true concerning APU operation?
    APU can not be used for wing anti-ice
    APU can be used for engine anti-ice
    APU will not be used during aerial refueling
    APU will not be used with a known fuel leak in the boom pivot area.
A

The APU can be used for engine anti-ice.

1C-10(K)A-1

153
Q
  1. With the increased accommodation kit (IAK) installed, cabin crewmembers must be provided with demand crew oxygen masks adaptable to the demand regulators on the _____.
A

portable oxygen units.

1C-10(K)A-1

154
Q
  1. Minimum airspeed for centerline hose/drogue refueling from sea level to 20,000 ft MSL is:
A

200 KIAS

1C-10(K)A-1

155
Q
  1. The minimum speed for WARP hose extension is _____ knots and the maximum speed for hose retraction is _____ knots.
A

230; 280

1C-10(K)A-1

156
Q
  1. The wing air refueling pod fuel system, including the hose must be kept full of fuel to decrease the risk of lightning strike damage and for _____.
A

proper fuel pump lubrication

1C-10(K)A-1

157
Q
  1. The UARRSI hydraulic shutoff valve must remain _____ for all flight operations except when required for refueling operations.
A

closed

1C-10(K)A-1

158
Q
  1. Do not reset any tripped _____ circuit breakers.
A

fuel pump

1C-10(K)A-1

159
Q
  1. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is _____ pounds for gross weights less than 556,000 pounds.
A

4,000

1C-10(K)A-1

160
Q
  1. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is _____ pounds for gross weights of 556,000 pounds or more.
A

2,000

1C-10(K)A-1

161
Q
  1. When aircraft gross weight exceeds _____ pounds or the sum of the zero fuel weight and fuel in the body tanks exceeds _____ pounds, the main tanks must be maintained full.
A

556,000; 414,000

1C-10(K)A-1

162
Q
  1. The main tanks 1, 2, and 3 must be maintained full if the gross weight exceeds _____ pounds.
A

556,000

1C-10(K)A-1

163
Q
  1. The main tanks 1, 2, and 3 must be maintained full when the sum of zero fuel weight and weight of fuel in body tanks exceeds _____ pounds.
A

414,000

1C-10(K)A-1

164
Q
  1. Movement and use of reverse thrust are _____.
A

prohibited in flight

1C-10(K)A-1

165
Q
  1. The _____ function of the takeoff warning system must be operative for takeoff.
A

slat

1C-10(K)A-1

166
Q
  1. In the yaw damper system, any _____ channels must be operating prior to the start of takeoff.
A

2

1C-10(K)A-1

167
Q
  1. Use of elevator (Elevator Load Feel) switch is limited to _____ position except for an abnormal condition.
A

AUTO

1C-10(K)A-1

168
Q
  1. The speedbrakes are used only in the fully _____.
A

retracted flap configuration with or without slats extended

1C-10(K)A-1

169
Q
  1. Do not extend ground spoilers _____.
A

during flight

1C-10(K)A-1

170
Q
  1. The _____ must be disengaged when operating on emergency power.
A

autopilot

1C-10(K)A-1

171
Q
  1. The autopilot must be disengaged and the autopilot pitch trim (APT) disabled when an AP OUT OF TRIM light is illuminated continuously in excess of _____ seconds after the aircraft is stabilized and tracking the glideslope.
A

3

1C-10(K)A-1

172
Q
  1. Do not automatically capture glideslope above _____ during autopilot ILS coupled approaches.
A

250 knots

1C-10(K)A-1

173
Q
  1. Do not use autopilot go-around with _____.
A

an engine failure

1C-10(K)A-1

174
Q
  1. When executing takeoffs with derated thrust settings and using speeds limited by VMCG for maximum thrust, the flight director may command _____.
A

incorrect airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining engine’s thrust is increased.

1C-10(K)A-1

175
Q
  1. FMS instrument approaches must be accomplished in the FMS approach mode and GPS RAIM must be available _____.
A

at the final approach fix

1C-10(K)A-1

176
Q
  1. Under which conditions should the cockpit door be latched open during takeoffs and landings, since the cockpit windows may become the primary exits?
A

If only one slide raft is operable

1C-10(K)A-1

177
Q
  1. Ensure autothrottles are disconnected _____ during touch and go landings.
A

after touchdown

1C-10(K)A-1

178
Q
  1. Each door arming handle for the emergency evacuation system must be in the _____ position prior to removing the airstairs/ramp, and remain in position until arrival at the unloading ramp, and stand or ramp is in position.
A

SLIDE ARMED

1C-10(K)A-1

179
Q
  1. With only one operable slide raft, a one time flight may be made to a repair facility provided this flight is not an extended over water flight. The operable raft must be installed in _____ and total flight/ground crew will be _____ or less.
A

a forward door; 12

1C-10(K)A-1

180
Q
  1. For extended overwater operation, at least _____ slide rafts must be installed.
A

2

1C-10(K)A-1

181
Q
  1. Ensure that the center accessory compartment has been inspected for fuel leaks _____.
A

prior to the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing

1C-10(K)A-1

182
Q
  1. After an unsuccessful APU start, do not attempt another start until _____.
A

APU shutdown cycle is complete and APU DOOR OPEN light goes off.

183
Q
  1. Ensure the oxygen regulator is in the 100% and ON position at all times during flight when position is occupied. With the regulator in the OFF position, the mask _____.
A

may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe

1C-10(K)A-1

184
Q
  1. During engine start, if all pneumatic PRESS gages continue to indicate less than 25 PSI with the start valve closed and all ENG PNEU SUPPLY selectors rotated to OFF, and operational conditions necessitate the use of lower pneumatic pressure, a start may be made as low as _____.
A

15 PSI

1C-10(K)A-1

185
Q
  1. During a scramble situation, prior to starting the _____, the crew will ensure that engine start will not cause a hazard to responding crewmembers.
A

wing engines

1C-10(K)A-1

186
Q
  1. In a scramble situation, when responding, crewmembers must approach the entry ladder from the nose of the aircraft and avoid the engine intake danger area (_____).
A

20 foot radius

1C-10(K)A-1

187
Q
  1. The Takeoff Warning System does not provide notification of flaps being set to _____ during takeoff.
A

zero

1C-10(K)A-1

188
Q
  1. If there are any changes to takeoff procedures and/or clearances, _____ should acknowledge.
A

all crewmembers

1C-10(K)A-1

189
Q
  1. Always comply with a TCAS RA unless _____.
A

the pilot considers it unsafe to do so or has better information about the sources of the RA and can maintain safe separation.

1C-10(K)A-1

190
Q
  1. If the takeoff warning horn sounds while advancing throttles for takeoff, _____.
A

discontinue the takeoff

1C-10(K)A-1

191
Q
  1. If the vertical speed selector and speed select knob are used to command climb rate and IAS, it is possible to _____.
A

command a climb rate in excess of aircraft capability

1C-10(K)A-1

192
Q
  1. Engaging autothrottle(s) immediately after takeoff while thrust computer is in _____ can result in engine overboost. Such an overboost results from engine bleed changes.
A

TO

1C-10(K)A-1

193
Q
  1. As you approach V1 the decision to abort should be based upon _____.
A

an increased level of criticality

1C-10(K)A-1

194
Q
  1. To reduce liability of loss of a second engine (TRT or Reduced Thrust takeoff), do not advance power beyond Takeoff Rated Thrust _____.
A

unless needed to maintain flight

1C-10(K)A-1

195
Q
  1. During a Reduced Thrust takeoff, since VMCG is calculated using assumed temperature, if power is advanced prior to reaching _____ KIAS, there may not be sufficient lateral control to keep the aircraft on the runway.
A

135

1C-10(K)A-1

196
Q
  1. The PF will announce to the crew whenever the AP/ATS is disengaged for any reason. This will be acknowledged by the _____.
A

PNF and FE

1C-10(K)A-1

197
Q
  1. If takeoff power is not set by 80 knots, _____.
A

charted takeoff performance may not be achieved

1C-10(K)A-1

198
Q
  1. When using the FMS for navigation, _____.
A

crosscheck information with traditional ground based NAVAIDS in the terminal area when available.

it may be used as the sole-source of navigation information for all arrival, approach and departure procedures extracted from the aircraft database

arrival, approach and departure procedures must be flown as extracted, with no additions, changes or deletions from the aircrew

1C-10(K)A-1

199
Q
  1. When climbing with _____, the engines may overboost if the throttles are not adjusted for lapse rate temperature deviation.
A

autothrottles off

1C-10(K)A-1

200
Q
  1. The autopilot will not be used during high rates of climb (more than_____fpm) or high rates of descent (more than_____fpm).
A

4000; 8000

1C-10(K)A-1

KC-10 Pilot MQF (1 decks)

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