KatJ - Pathology Flashcards

0
Q

2nd most common cause of death in pediatric age group

A

Prematurity

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1
Q

Most common cause of death in pediatric age group

A

Congenital anomalies

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2
Q

Primary errors of morphogenesis; intrinsically abnormal developmental process

A

Malformations

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3
Q

Secondary destruction of a structure that was previously normal in development; extrinsic disturbance in morphogenesis

A

Disruptions

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4
Q

Extrinsic distrurbance of development due to localized or generalized compression

A

Deformations

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5
Q

Most common cause of deformations?

A

Uterine constraint

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6
Q

Cascade of anomalies triggered by one initiating aberration?

A

Sequences

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7
Q

Mobius sequence is produced by which teratogen?

A

Misoprostol

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8
Q

Constellation of congenital anomalies that cannot be explained on the basis of a single defect

A

Syndromes

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9
Q

What diseases produce a “blueberry muffin” baby?

A

Rubella
CMV
Disseminated neuroblastoma

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10
Q

What test determines whether respiration took place on a newborn before death?

A

Fodere’s test (hydrostatic test)

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11
Q

What test involves floating of the stomach in water to determine presence of air?

A

Breslau’s test

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12
Q

What substance/mediator causes retinal neovascularization in retrolental fibroplasia (retinopathy of prematurity)?

A

VEGF

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13
Q

What is the charcteristic radiologic finding in necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

Pneumatosis intestinalis

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14
Q

When should Rhogam be administered to prevent hydrops fetalis?

A

At 28 weeks AOG, within 72 hours of delivery or following abortions

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15
Q

Deficient enzyme in phenylketonuria

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

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16
Q

Most common variant of galactosemia

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

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17
Q

Most common lethal genetic disease that affects Caucasian populations

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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18
Q

Sweat chloride test is used for what disease?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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19
Q

Respiratory infections in cystic fibrosis are commonly caused by which organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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20
Q

Most common cause of death of an infant younger than 1 year old

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

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21
Q

Most common finding in Sudden Infant Death Syndrome?

A

Multiple petechiae

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22
Q

What is the only safe sleeping position for infants that reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome?

A

Supine position

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23
Q

Most common tumor of infancy?

A

Hemangioma

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24
Q

Most common teratomas of childhood?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratomas

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25
Q

What disease involves amplification of the N-MYC oncogene?

A

Neuroblastoma

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26
Q

Most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood?

A

Neuroblastoma

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27
Q

What do you call the little round groupings of cells found in tumors with a spoke-wheel or halo arrangement surrounding a central, acellular region?

A

Rosettes

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28
Q

Where can you find Homer-Wright rosettes?

A

Neuroblastoma
Medulloblastoma
Primitive neuroectodermal tumors

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29
Q

Where can you find Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes?

A

Retinoblastoma

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30
Q

What is the most common primary renal tumor of childhood?

A

Wilm’a tumor

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31
Q

What gene is involved in Wilm’s tumor?

A

WT1 gene

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32
Q

What disease involves triphasic combination of blastemal, stromal, and epithelial cell types?

A

Wilm’s tumor

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33
Q

What causes cherry red color of the skin and mucous membranes?

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

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34
Q

_______ catalyzes the insertion of Fe2+ into protoporphyrin IX in heme synthesis.

A

Ferrochelatase

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35
Q

What do you call red cell precursors with iron-laden mitochondria?

A

Ringed sideroblasts

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36
Q

What kind of anemia is seen in lead poisoning?

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

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37
Q

What histologic finding is seen in lead poisoning?

A

Basophilic stippling

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38
Q

Peripheral demyelinating neuropathy from lead poisoning results in?

A

Wrist drop and foot drop

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39
Q

Saturnine gout can be found in what heavy metal poisoning?

A

Lead

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40
Q

What is the drug of choice for acute management of lead poisoning?

A

EDTA +/-Dimercaprol

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41
Q

What is the drug of choice for outpatient management of lead poisoning?

A

Succimer

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42
Q

What is the main protective mechanism against mercury poisoning?

A

Intracellular glutathione

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43
Q

In what heavy metal poisoning can you find ‘milk and roses complexion’, hyperkeratosis, and Mee’s lines?

A

Arsenic

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44
Q

What is the most exogenous cause of human cancers and the most preventable cause of human death?

A

Tobacco

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45
Q

Minamata disease is due to accumulation of what substance?

A

Methylmercury

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46
Q

An alkaloid that readily crosses the BBB and stimulate nicotinic receptors

A

Nicotine

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47
Q

What enzyme metabolizes acetaldehyde?

A

Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

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48
Q

What is the lethal dose of alcohol?

A

500 micrograms/dL

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49
Q

Differentiate viral hepatitis and alcoholic liver disease based on liver enzymes

A

AST:ALT = 1 (viral hepatitis)
AST:ALT > 1 (alcoholic liver disease)

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50
Q

What type of necrosis is seen in partial-thickness burns?

A

Coagulative necrosis

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51
Q

Most common hyperthermic syndrome

A

Heat exhaustion

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52
Q

What anesthetic drugs are implicated in malignant hyperthermia?

A

Halothane

Succinylcholine

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53
Q

What is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

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54
Q

What is the most radiosensitive tissue?

A

Lymphoid tissue

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55
Q

What is the least radiosensitive tissue?

A

Bone

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56
Q

Protein-energy malnutrition wherein there is a deficiency of all nutrients

A

Marasmus

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57
Q

What is the serum albumin level in marasmus?

(normal, increased, decreased)

A

Normal

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58
Q

Protein-energy malnutrition wherein protein deprivation is greater than reduction in calories

A

Kwashiorkor

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59
Q

Most common form of protein-energy malnutrition

A

Kwashiorkor

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60
Q

Where can you find flaky paint appearance of the skin and flag sign (hair)?

A

Kwashiorkor

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61
Q

What causes the enlarged fatty liver in Kwashiorkor?

A

Decreased apolipoprotein B-100

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62
Q

What is the mot common secondary immunodeficiency?

A

Malnutrition

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63
Q

Where can you see Russell’s sign (calluses on back of hands)?

A

Bulimia Nervosa

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64
Q

What vitamin toxicity causes pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Vitamin A

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65
Q

In what vitamin deficiency are Bitot spots found?

A

Vitamin A

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66
Q

What do you call the overgrowth of cartilage at the costochondral junctions?

A

Rachitic rosary

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67
Q

Acrodermatitis enteropathica is caused by a deficiency of?

A

Zinc

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68
Q

Keshan disease (cardiomyopathy) is seen in _______ deficiency.

A

Selenium

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69
Q

Koplik spots are located in?

A

Near the opening of Stensen ducts

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70
Q

Multinucleated giant cells found in measles

A

Warthin-Finkeldey cells

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71
Q

What potentially fatal neurologic complication of measles is prevented by vaccination?

A

SSPE

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72
Q

What vitamin has been shown to reduce the severity of measles infection?

A

Vitamin A

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73
Q

Large pink to purple intranuclear inclusions found in Herpes Simplex

A

Cowdry Type A

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74
Q

Whitish ulcerated oral mucosal lesions near the opening of Stensen ducts

A

Koplik spots

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75
Q

In what disease are Koplik spots found?

A

Measles

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76
Q

What lobe is affected in Herpes Simplex encephalitis?

A

Temporal lobe

77
Q

Cowdry Type A inclusion bodies are found in what disease?

A

Herpes Simplex infection

78
Q

Dewdrop on a rose petal appearance of rash

A

Varicella

79
Q

Herpes Zoster Oticus affects what structure?

A

Geniculate ganglion

80
Q

Heterophil-negative

A

CMV

Toxoplasmosis

81
Q

Heterophil-positive

A

Epstein-Barr virus

82
Q

Inclusion bodies seen in CMV

A

Owl’s eye inclusions

83
Q

Prominent intranuclear basophilic inclusions surrounded by a halo

A

Owl’s eye inclusions

84
Q

Owl’s eye inclusion bodies are seen in what disease?

A

CMV

85
Q

What is the drug of choice for CMV infection?

A

Ganciclovir

because CMV is highly resistant to Acyclovir

86
Q

Patients who underwet splenectomy are vulnerable to which organisms?

A
Encapsulated bacteria:
S. pneumoniae
H. Influenzae
N. meningitidis
K. pneumoniae
87
Q

What malignancies are associated with EBV?

A
Burkitt's lymphoma (Africans)
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Chinese)
88
Q

Downey cells are found in?

A

EBV infection

89
Q

Infection of the apocrine gland by S. aureus

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

90
Q

What do you call the collection of pus in a naturally occurring cavity?

A

Empyema

91
Q

What is the most common cause of post-viral pneumonia?

A

S. aureus

92
Q

What virulence factor is involved in scalded skin syndrome which cleaves desmoglein in desmosomes?

A

Exfoliatin

93
Q

Separation of the skin in scalded skin syndrome is in what level?

A

Stratum granulosum

94
Q

Separation of the skin in TEN is at what level?

A

Dermo-epidermal junction

95
Q

What causes scalded skin syndrome?

A

S. aureus

96
Q

What virulence factor is responsible for extension to subcutaneous tissue in Erysipelas?

A

Hyaluronidase / spreading factor

97
Q

Scarlet fever is due to what virulence factor?

A

Erythrogenic toxin

98
Q

What causes strawberry tongue in scarlet fever?

A

Sloughing off of filliform papilla

99
Q

In what diseases can you find strawberry tongue?

A

Kawasaki disease
TSS
Scarlet fever

100
Q

What is the Dick test?

A

Test for susceptibility for scarlet fever

101
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

102
Q

Swarming motility

A

Proteus mirabilis

103
Q

Shooting star motility

A

Vibrio cholera

104
Q

Falling leaf motility

A

Giardia lamblia

105
Q

None of the cephalosporins are effective against:

A

Listeria monocytogenesis
Enterococci
MRSA

106
Q

Box car shaped

A

Bacillus anthracis

107
Q

Slender beaded gram positive organisms arranged in branching filaments

A

Nocardia Asteroides

108
Q

Organism with Medusa Head Morphogy

A

Bacillus anthracis

109
Q

Most common cause of death in respiratory anthrax or Woolsorter’s disease

A

Hemorrhagic mediastinitis

110
Q

Capsule of bacillus anthracis

A

Poly-D-glutamate

111
Q

Culture medium used for Lyme disease

A

Bordet-Gengou / Regan-Lowe agar

112
Q

Which virulence factor causes whooping cough in pertussis infection?

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

113
Q

Fleur-de-lis pattern in necrotizing pneumonia is caused by which organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

114
Q

Treatment for Yersinia pestis

A

Streptomycin and/or Doxycycline

115
Q

Painful genital ulcer

A

Chancroid (H. ducreyi)

116
Q

Beefy red ulcer with velvety surface and paeudobuboes are found in?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

117
Q

Donovan bodies are found in?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

118
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by which organism?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis type L1-L3

119
Q

What makes up the Ghon’s complex?

A

Subpleural granuloma (Ghon’s focus) + associated lymph node

120
Q

What is the radiologically detectable calcification seen on X-ray in M. tuberculosis infection?

A

Ranke’s complex

121
Q

Reactivation tuberculosis is usually found in which part of the lung?

A

Apex

122
Q

What is the Simon’s focus?

A

Reactivation TB in the apex of the lung

123
Q

What type of cells are found in caseation necrosis/granuloma formation by M. tuberculosis?

A

Langhan’s type giant cell

124
Q

What is the most frequent presentation of extrapulmonary TB?

A

Lymphadenitis

125
Q

What is a scrofula?

A

Lymphadenitis in the cervical region found in M. tuberculosis infection

126
Q

What is the most common site of intestinal TB?

A

Ileum

127
Q

What substance drives the macrophages to become competent to contain the TB infection?

A

Gamma interferon

128
Q

What are the 2 nerves involved in lepromatous leprosy?

A

Ulnar n.

Peroneal n.

129
Q

What do you call the large aggregates of lipid-laden macrophages found in lepromatous leprosy?

A

Lepra cells

130
Q

What are ‘red snappers’?

A

Acid-fast bacilli;

M. leprae contained within the macrophages

131
Q

What causes the sterility in lepromatous leprosy?

A

Destruction of seminiferous tubules

132
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the aorta in tertiary syphilis?

A

Tree bark appearance

133
Q

Intense plasma infilitrates and proliferatuve endarteritis are found at what stage of syphilis?

A

Primary syphilis

134
Q

Condyloma lata can be found at what stage of syphilis?

A

Secondary syphilis

135
Q

At what stage of syphilis will you find obliterative invasion of small blood vessels and vasa vasorum?

A

Endarteritis = tertiary syphilis

136
Q

What do you call the pale and airless lungs found in congenital syphilis?

A

Pneumonia alba

137
Q

Small incisors shaped like a screwdriver/peg often with notches in enamel

A

Hutchinson’s teeth

138
Q

What diseases can have hemorrhagic mediatinitis as a complication?

A

Pulmonary anthrax (Woolsorter’s)
Congenital syphilis
Weil’s syndrome

139
Q

What is the most common cause of death in congenital syphilis?

A

Hemorrhagic mediastinitis

140
Q

Where is M. leprae cultured?

A

Footpad of mice or 9-banded armadillo

141
Q

What organism causes relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia reurrentis

142
Q

What organisms demonstrate erythrophagocytosis?

A

Borrelia recurrentis

E. histolytica

143
Q

What causes the antigenic variation in relapsing fever?

A

Programmed rearrangement

144
Q

What is acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans?

A

Atrophy of the skin with lymphadenopathy (chronic Lyme disease)

145
Q

What is the vector of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Ixodes tick

146
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the lesion in Lyme arthritis?

A

Onion skin-like

147
Q

What diseases does the vector Ixodes tick carry?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

Babesia

148
Q

What is the virulence factor involved in gas gangrene?

A

Alpha-toxin - acts as lecithinase, can break down RBC

149
Q

Urethritis in chlamydia is caused by what serotype/strain?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis D-K

150
Q

What do you call the inclusion bodies found in Chlamydia?

A

Halberstadtr-Prowazek inclusion bodies

151
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by what organism?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3

152
Q

Trachoma is caused by what organism?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

strains A, B, C

153
Q

What organism causes typhus fever and rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettsia

154
Q

What is the KOH finding in Candida albicans?

A

Yeast with pseudohyphae

155
Q

What stain is used to visualize Cryptococcus neoformans and what is the characteristic appearance?

A

Thick gelatinous capsule on India Ink stain

156
Q

Proliferating masses of acute-angle hyphae lying free within cavitations

A

Aspergilloma (fungus ball)

157
Q

Crescent sign on CXR

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

158
Q

Nonseptate, irregularly wide fungal hyphae with frequent right-angle branching

A

Mucormycosis

159
Q

Spherules in endospores?

A

Coccidioides Immitis

160
Q

Intracellular yeasts?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

161
Q

Systemic mycoses with a broad-based bud?

A

Blastomycoses Dermatitidis

162
Q

Mariner’s wheel?

A

Paracoccidioides Brasiliensis

163
Q

What causes the black or gray liver parenchyma in malaria?

A

Hemozoin

164
Q

What organism causes cerebral malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

165
Q

Durck granulomas are found in what disease?

A

Cerebral malaria

166
Q

Ring hemorrhages related to local hypoxia, vascular stasis and small focal inflammatory reactions

A

Durck granulomas

167
Q

Microscopic dots seen in P. vivax and P. ovale?

A

Schuffner’s dots

168
Q

Microscopic dots seen in P. malariae?

A

Ziemann’s dots

169
Q

Microscopic dots seen in P. falciparum?

A

Maurer’s dots

170
Q

What is the drug of choice for radical cure of benign tertian malaria?

A

Primaquine

171
Q

Maltese cross pattern

A

Babesia microti

172
Q

Black skin pigmentation (kala-azar) is found in?

A

Visceral Leishmaniasis

173
Q

Treatment for Leishmaniasis

A

Stibogluconate

174
Q

What disease are Mott cells found?

A

African sleeping sickness (trypanosoma)

175
Q

Plasma cells containing cytoplasmic globules filled with immunoglobulin

A

Mott cells

176
Q

What characteristic sign of Chagas disease is associated with unilateral periorbital edema?

A

Romana’s sign

177
Q

Other than myocarditis, what are the other expected complications in Chaga’s disease?

A

Megaeaophagus

Megacolon

178
Q

Chaga’s disease is caused by what organism?

A

T. Cruzi

179
Q

What organism causes neurocysticercosis?

A

Taenia solium

180
Q

Hydatid cysts are caused by what organism?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

181
Q

What is the treatment for hydatid cyst?

A

Albendazole

PAIR

182
Q

Coiled larvae surrounded by membrane-bound vacuoles within nurse cells

A

Trichinella spiralis

183
Q

Pipe-stem fibrosis in liver

A

Sever schistosomiasis

S. japonicum

184
Q

What is the characteristic seizure seen in cerebral schostosomiasis?

A

Jacksonian seizure

185
Q

Elephantiasis is caused by what organism?

A

Brugia malayi

186
Q

Meyers-Kouvenaar bodies

A

Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia

Filariasis

187
Q

Dead microfiariae surrounded by stellate, hyaline, eosinophilic precipitates embedded in small epitheloid granulomas

A

Meyers-Kouvenaar bodies

188
Q

What organism causes river blindness?

A

Onchocerca Volvulus

189
Q

What lesions are seen in river blindness caused by Onchocerca?

A

Opacification of cornea

Atrophy of choroid and retina

190
Q

What is the drug of choice for river blindness?

A

Ivermectin

191
Q

What complication may arise during initiation of treatment due to lysis of onchocercal worms?

A

Mazzotti reaction