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Kaplan > Kaplan > Flashcards

Kaplan Flashcards

1
Q

[…] inhibits peroxidase and catalyzing oxidation of iodide to iodine.

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU) inhibits peroxidase and catalyzing oxidation of iodide to iodine.

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2
Q

Major side effect of PTU is […].

A

Major side effect of PTU is agranulocytosis.

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3
Q

Resitance in strep pneumo infections occurs through […].

A

Resitance in strep pneumo infections occurs through transformation.

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4
Q

[…]= RR x (VT-VD)

A

VA= RR x (VT-VD)

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5
Q

VA= […] x (VT-VD)

A

VA= RR x (VT-VD)

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6
Q

VA= RR x ([…]-VD)

A

VA= RR x (VT-VD)

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7
Q

VA= RR x (VT-[…])

A

VA= RR x (VT-VD)

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8
Q

Paget disease is thought to result from […] infection in osteoclasts.

A

Paget disease is thought to result from paramyxovirus infection in osteoclasts.

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9
Q

[…] is thought to result from paramyxovirus infection in osteoclasts.

A

Paget disease is thought to result from paramyxovirus infection in osteoclasts.

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10
Q

[…] increases in skeletal muscle within an hour after exercise.

A

VEGF increases in skeletal muscle within an hour after exercise.

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11
Q

Botox cleaves […], preventing ACh release.

A

Botox cleaves SNARE, preventing ACh release.

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12
Q

Botox cleaves SNARE, […] ACh release.

A

Botox cleaves SNARE, preventing ACh release.

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13
Q

Pharyngeal arch 3 becomes the […] artery.

A

Pharyngeal arch 3 becomes the carotid artery.

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14
Q

Pharyngeal arch […] becomes the carotid artery.

A

Pharyngeal arch 3 becomes the carotid artery.

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15
Q

Pharyngeal arch 4 becomes the […] artery.

A

Pharyngeal arch 4 becomes the subclavian artery.

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16
Q

Pharyngeal arch […] becomes the subclavian artery.

A

Pharyngeal arch 4 becomes the subclavian artery.

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17
Q

Obligate intracellular microorganisms have lost the ability to make […].

A

Obligate intracellular microorganisms have lost the ability to make ATP.

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18
Q

[…] microorganisms have lost the ability to make ATP.

A

Obligate intracellular microorganisms have lost the ability to make ATP.

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19
Q

Defective signaling from the IL-7 receptor results in decreased […] and SCID.

A

Defective signaling from the IL-7 receptor results in decreased T-cells and SCID.

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20
Q

Defective signaling from the […] receptor results in decreased T-cells and SCID.

A

Defective signaling from the IL-7 receptor results in decreased T-cells and SCID.

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21
Q

Actinic keratosis = skin; actinic […] = mucosa

A

Actinic keratosis = skin; actinic chelitis = mucosa

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22
Q

Actinic keratosis = skin; actinic chelitis = […]

A

Actinic keratosis = skin; actinic chelitis = mucosa

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23
Q

Acetazolamide is contraindicated in […].

A

Acetazolamide is contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma.

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24
Q

[…] is contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma.

A

Acetazolamide is contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma.

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25
Q

First line Tx for klebsiella pneumonia is […]

A

First line Tx for klebsiella pneumonia is 3rd gen cephalosporin

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26
Q

1/4 of cri-du-chat patients have this heart defect: […]

A

1/4 of cri-du-chat patients have this heart defect: VSD

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27
Q

Chylomicrons are produced by […].

A

Chylomicrons are produced by enterocytes.

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28
Q

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies are found in […].

A

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies are found in type I diabetes mellitus.

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29
Q

[…] transduction is an error of lytic virus life cycle.

A

Generalized transduction is an error of lytic virus life cycle.

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30
Q

Generalized transduction is an error of […] virus life cycle.

A

Generalized transduction is an error of lytic virus life cycle.

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31
Q

[…] transduction is an error of temperate virus life cycle.

A

Specialized transduction is an error of temperate virus life cycle.

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32
Q

Specialized transduction is an error of […] virus life cycle.

A

Specialized transduction is an error of temperate virus life cycle.

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33
Q

When glioblastoma multiforme occurs in children, it is often in the […].

A

When glioblastoma multiforme occurs in children, it is often in the brainstem.

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34
Q

[…] contain major basic protein in crystalline core.

A

Eosinophils contain major basic protein in crystalline core.

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35
Q

Positive allosteric modulators, or […], suppress PTH.

A

Positive allosteric modulators, or calcimimetics, suppress PTH.E.g. cinacalcet

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36
Q

Positive allosteric modulators, or calcimimetics, suppress […].

A

Positive allosteric modulators, or calcimimetics, suppress PTH.E.g. cinacalcet

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37
Q

Negative-sense RNA viruses must carry an […].

A

Negative-sense RNA viruses must carry an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

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38
Q

[…] RNA viruses must carry an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

A

Negative-sense RNA viruses must carry an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

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39
Q

Electron microscopy of small cell carcinoma of the lung will show […] vesicles.

A

Electron microscopy of small cell carcinoma of the lung will show neurosecretory vesicles.

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40
Q

Mid-humeral fracture tends to result in […] nerve damage.

A

Mid-humeral fracture tends to result in radial nerve damage.

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41
Q

Serum AA is produced in the […].

A

Serum AA is produced in the liver.

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42
Q

Translocation in Ewing’s sarcoma: […]

A

Translocation in Ewing’s sarcoma: t(11;22)

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43
Q

Translocation in […]: t(11;22)

A

Translocation in Ewing’s sarcoma: t(11;22)

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44
Q

Oral glucose […] GIP and insulin.

A

Oral glucose increases GIP and insulin.

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45
Q

Somatostatin acts on the anterior pituitary, blocking release of […].

A

Somatostatin acts on the anterior pituitary, blocking release of GH and TSH.

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46
Q

Somatostatin acts on the […] pituitary, blocking release of GH and TSH.

A

Somatostatin acts on the anterior pituitary, blocking release of GH and TSH.

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47
Q

Amino acid increased in homocysteinuria: […]

A

Amino acid increased in homocysteinuria: methionine

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48
Q

The cerebral acquaduct is located in the […].

A

The cerebral acquaduct is located in the midbrain.

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49
Q

Major electrolyte side effect of succinylcholine: […]

A

Major electrolyte side effect of succinylcholine: hyperkalemiaFrom prolonged muscle depolarization

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50
Q

Apolipoprotein […] activates LPL.

A

Apolipoprotein C-II activates LPL.

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51
Q

Apolipoprotein C-II activates […].

A

Apolipoprotein C-II activates LPL.

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52
Q

Chondrocalcinosis = […]

A

Chondrocalcinosis = pseudogoutPrecipitation of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate

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53
Q

[…] = nuclear enlargement, perinuclear vacuolization

A

Koliocytic atypia = nuclear enlargement, perinuclear vacuolization

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54
Q

Toxoplasma’s active form are […].

A

Toxoplasma’s active form are crescent-shaped tachyzoites.

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55
Q

Nicotinic acid = niacin = vitamin […]

A

Nicotinic acid = niacin = vitamin B3

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56
Q

Nicotinic acid = […] = vitamin B3

A

Nicotinic acid = niacin = vitamin B3

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57
Q

[…] = niacin = vitamin B3

A

Nicotinic acid = niacin = vitamin B3

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58
Q

[…] disease = proteinuria + nodular PAS+ deposites of mesangial matrix (hyaline) + thickened BM

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease = proteinuria + nodular PAS+ deposites of mesangial matrix (hyaline) + thickened BM

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59
Q

The […] artery is in danger of rupture when there is an ulcer on the distal portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach.

A

The right gastric artery is in danger of rupture when there is an ulcer on the distal portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach.

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60
Q

An […] would result in increased MSFP and CO – would show a right-shifted and upward-rotated venous return curve.

A

An AV fistula would result in increased MSFP and CO – would show a right-shifted and upward-rotated venous return curve.

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61
Q

The […] nerve innervates the fingernails of the index and middle fingers.

A

The median nerve innervates the fingernails of the index and middle fingers.

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62
Q

HbA is located on chromosome […].

A

HbA is located on chromosome 16.Patient with cis deletion and trait has a 50% chance of a child with trait when partner is normal.

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63
Q

In syringomyelia, there is damage to crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract, resulting in loss of […] in a cape-like distribution.

A

In syringomyelia, there is damage to crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution.

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64
Q

In […], there is damage to crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution.

A

In syringomyelia, there is damage to crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution.

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65
Q

In syringomyelia, there is damage to crossing fibers of the […] tract, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution.

A

In syringomyelia, there is damage to crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution.

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66
Q

Tay-Sachs enzyme = […]

A

Tay-Sachs enzyme = hexosaminidase A

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67
Q

[…] enzyme = hexosaminidase A

A

Tay-Sachs enzyme = hexosaminidase A

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68
Q

Metachromatic leukodystrophy enzyme = […]

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy enzyme = arylsulfatase A

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69
Q

[…] enzyme = arylsulfatase A

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy enzyme = arylsulfatase A

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70
Q

Fabry’s enzyme = […]

A

Fabry’s enzyme = alpha-galactosidase A

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71
Q

[…] enzyme = alpha-galactosidase A

A

Fabry’s enzyme = alpha-galactosidase A

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72
Q

[…] enzyme = glucocerebrocidase

A

Gaucher’s enzyme = glucocerebrocidase

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73
Q

Gaucher’s enzyme = […]

A

Gaucher’s enzyme = glucocerebrocidase

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74
Q

Neiman-Pick enzyme = […]

A

Neiman-Pick enzyme = sphingomyelinase

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75
Q

[…] enzyme = sphingomyelinase

A

Neiman-Pick enzyme = sphingomyelinase

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76
Q

A hexose monophosphate shunt enzyme deficit leads to […] deficiency.

A

A hexose monophosphate shunt enzyme deficit leads to G6PD deficiency.

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77
Q

Phototherapy degrades […].

A

Phototherapy degrades riboflavin.B2

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78
Q

Two tetracyclines whose extretion does not depend on good renal function: […]

A

Two tetracyclines whose extretion does not depend on good renal function: doxycycline and minocycline

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79
Q

Failure of the […] to develop in utero leads to Potter sequence.

A

Failure of the ureteric buds to develop in utero leads to Potter sequence.(the pronephros degenerates)

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80
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma is not uncommon in […] patients and is associated with EBV infection.

A

Primary CNS lymphoma is not uncommon in AIDS patients and is associated with EBV infection.It can be an intermediate to high-grade B-cell lymphoma.

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81
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma is not uncommon in AIDS patients and is associated with […] infection.

A

Primary CNS lymphoma is not uncommon in AIDS patients and is associated with EBV infection.It can be an intermediate to high-grade B-cell lymphoma.

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82
Q

Oocytes arrest in […] stage of meiosis I.

A

Oocytes arrest in diplotene stage of meiosis I.Diplotene is part of prophase

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83
Q

In priapism, first treatment is an injection of […].

A

In priapism, first treatment is an injection of alpha-adrenergic agonist.If that doesn’t work, emergent surgery.

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84
Q

Atherosclerosis of the carotid vessels and transient painless vision loss describe […].

A

Atherosclerosis of the carotid vessels and transient painless vision loss describe amaurosis fugax.

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85
Q

Female athlete triad (chronic dieting + low weight + primary amenorrhea) leads to suppression of […].

A

Female athlete triad (chronic dieting + low weight + primary amenorrhea) leads to suppression of pulsatile GnRH.

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86
Q

Aortic dissection usually progresses […].

A

Aortic dissection usually progresses distally.Can lead to bilateral renal infarction

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87
Q

Dactylitis (“sausage digit”) is a diffuse swelling of a solitary finger or toe – a distinctive feature of […].

A

Dactylitis (“sausage digit”) is a diffuse swelling of a solitary finger or toe – a distinctive feature of reactive arthritis and psoriatic arthritis.

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88
Q

[…] is a diffuse swelling of a solitary finger or toe – a distinctive feature of reactive arthritis and psoriatic arthritis.

A

Dactylitis (“sausage digit”) is a diffuse swelling of a solitary finger or toe – a distinctive feature of reactive arthritis and psoriatic arthritis.

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89
Q

[…] is an alpha-1 and alpha-2 antagonist.

A

Phentolamine is an alpha-1 and alpha-2 antagonist.

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90
Q

Phentolamine is an […].

A

Phentolamine is an alpha-1 and alpha-2 antagonist.

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91
Q

Each liter of plasma contains about […] mEq of sodium.

A

Each liter of plasma contains about 140 mEq of sodium.

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92
Q

The C in CREST is […].

A

The C in CREST is calcinosis.Also anti-centromere Abs

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93
Q

The R in CREST is […].

A

The R in CREST is Raynaud’s phenomenon.

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94
Q

The E in CREST is […].

A

The E in CREST is esophageal motility syndrome.

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95
Q

The S in CREST is […].

A

The S in CREST is sclerodactyly.

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96
Q

The T in CREST is […].

A

The T in CREST is telangiectasia.

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97
Q

[…] activation occurs through renal nerves to increase renin secretion.

A

Sympathetic nervous system activation occurs through renal nerves to increase renin secretion.

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98
Q

Low hematocrit leads to […] venous return.

A

Low hematocrit leads to increased venous return.

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99
Q

Lysosomal alpha1,4-glucosidase = […]

A

Lysosomal alpha1,4-glucosidase = acid maltasePompe’s disease

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100
Q

Von Gierke’s enzyme = […]

A

Von Gierke’s enzyme = glucose-6-phosphatase

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101
Q

Wasting of the thenar eminence is associated with lesions of the […] nerve.

A

Wasting of the thenar eminence is associated with lesions of the median nerve.

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102
Q

[…] nerve leasions can cause wasting of the hypothenar eminence and dorsal interosseous muscles.

A

Ulnar nerve leasions can cause wasting of the hypothenar eminence and dorsal interosseous muscles.

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103
Q

Necrotizing entercolitis is more common in infants who are […].

A

Necrotizing entercolitis is more common in infants who are formula-fed.Also premature and low birth weight

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104
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids are associated with the development of […] in asthmatic patients.

A

Inhaled corticosteroids are associated with the development of candidiasis in asthmatic patients.

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105
Q

[…] are associated with the development of candidiasis in asthmatic patients.

A

Inhaled corticosteroids are associated with the development of candidiasis in asthmatic patients.

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106
Q

More than 95% of coarctations occur just distal to the […] artery.

A

More than 95% of coarctations occur just distal to the left subclavian artery.

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107
Q

Cardiac output = […] / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)

A

Cardiac output = O2 consumption / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)Fick principle

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108
Q

[…] = O2 consumption / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)

A

Cardiac output = O2 consumption / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)Fick principle

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109
Q

Cardiac output = O2 consumption / ([…])

A

Cardiac output = O2 consumption / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)Fick principle

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110
Q

Anorectal manometry (on an infant) = […]

A

Anorectal manometry (on an infant) = Hirschprung’s

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111
Q

Optic nerve from […]encephalon

A

Optic nerve from diencephalon

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112
Q

LPL is in […] cells.

A

LPL is in endothelial cells.

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113
Q

Prochlorperazine is a phenothiazine antiemitic that acts by blocking […].

A

Prochlorperazine is a phenothiazine antiemitic that acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.Side effects: tarditive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, blood dyscrasias, and lupus erythematous

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114
Q

Prochlorperazine is a […] that acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

A

Prochlorperazine is a phenothiazine antiemitic that acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.Side effects: tarditive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, blood dyscrasias, and lupus erythematous

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115
Q

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head = […] artery compromise

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head = medial circumflex femoral artery compromise

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116
Q

Avascular necrosis of the […] = medial circumflex femoral artery compromise

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head = medial circumflex femoral artery compromise

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117
Q

The ischial spine is the boundary between the […] foramina.

A

The ischial spine is the boundary between the greater and lesser sciatic foramina.

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118
Q

The […] is the boundary between the greater and lesser sciatic foramina.

A

The ischial spine is the boundary between the greater and lesser sciatic foramina.

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119
Q

Verapamil has […] inotropic effects.

A

Verapamil has negative inotropic effects.

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120
Q

Fasting hypoglycemia and hypoketosis indicate a block in […].

A

Fasting hypoglycemia and hypoketosis indicate a block in fatty acid oxidation.Long-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (LCAD) deficiency can cause this.

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121
Q

Fasting hypoglycemia and […] indicate a block in fatty acid oxidation.

A

Fasting hypoglycemia and hypoketosis indicate a block in fatty acid oxidation.Long-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (LCAD) deficiency can cause this.

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122
Q

Biogenic amines = […]

A

Biogenic amines = norepinephrine and serotoninTCAs inhibit reuptake at presynaptic neuron

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123
Q

Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma = […]

A

Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma = tuberous sclerosis+ shagreen patches, ash-leaf spots, cardiac rhabdomyomas, renal angiomyolipomas

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124
Q

Fibrates increase the […] of bile.

A

Fibrates increase the cholesterol content of bile.

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125
Q

[…] is a cell adhesion marker that is deficient in leukocyte adhesion deficiency.

A

CD18 is a cell adhesion marker that is deficient in leukocyte adhesion deficiency.Present with omphalitis

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126
Q

CD18 is a cell adhesion marker that is deficient in […].

A

CD18 is a cell adhesion marker that is deficient in leukocyte adhesion deficiency.Present with omphalitis

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127
Q

Spinal infection can spread along the […] sheath.

A

Spinal infection can spread along the psoas major sheath.”Psoas abcess” - most common pathogen is staph aureus

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128
Q

Docusate sodium is a […].

A

Docusate sodium is a stool softener.Anionic surfactant

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129
Q

Primidone is an anticonvulsant and a potent CYP450 […].

A

Primidone is an anticonvulsant and a potent CYP450 inducer.Metabolites: phenobarbital and PEMA

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130
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia is a common cause of […] stenosis.

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia is a common cause of renovascular stenosis.Especially in middle-aged women

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131
Q

The most common cause of superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome is […].

A

The most common cause of superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome is small cell carcinoma.Less common causes ae epidermoid carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and large cell carcinoma.

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132
Q

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors include allopurinol and […].

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors include allopurinol and febuxostat.

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133
Q

[…] kidney stones can occur in patients with leukemia (secondary to increased purine breakdown during periods of active cell proliferation).

A

Uric acid kidney stones can occur in patients with leukemia (secondary to increased purine breakdown during periods of active cell proliferation).

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134
Q

Uric acid kidney stones can occur in patients with leukemia (secondary to increased […] during periods of active cell proliferation).

A

Uric acid kidney stones can occur in patients with leukemia (secondary to increased purine breakdown during periods of active cell proliferation).

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135
Q

Stress ulcers are commonly a result of an increase in […] production.

A

Stress ulcers are commonly a result of an increase in pepsin production.Alternatively, pepsin and gastric acid production may remain unchanged and still result in gastric ulcers if gastric defenses are weakened by stress.

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136
Q

The occurence of […] is the most serious complication of Sjogren syndrome.

A

The occurence of non-Hodgkin lymphoma is the most serious complication of Sjogren syndrome.Approximately 5% of patients with Sjogrens will develop a marginal zone lymphoma.

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137
Q

[…] is characterized by the presence of endometrial glands within the myometrium of the uterus.

A

Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial glands within the myometrium of the uterus.

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138
Q

Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of […] within the myometrium of the uterus.

A

Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial glands within the myometrium of the uterus.

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139
Q

Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial glands within the […] of the uterus.

A

Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial glands within the myometrium of the uterus.

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140
Q

[…] = canker sores

A

Aphthous ulcers = canker soresFrequently associated with SLE and Crohn’s

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141
Q

The classic cause of chronic meningitis is […].

A

The classic cause of chronic meningitis is tuberculosis.Other causese include syphilis, brucellosis, and chronic fungal infections.

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142
Q

[…] is the most common source of peritoneal carcinomatosis.

A

Ovarian carcinoma is the most common source of peritoneal carcinomatosis.

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143
Q

[…] cells in the germinal centers of lymph nodes are important reservoirs of HIV.

A

Follicular dendritic cells in the germinal centers of lymph nodes are important reservoirs of HIV.Asymptomatic phase

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144
Q

Acute mastitis is frequently complicated by […] formation.

A

Acute mastitis is frequently complicated by breast abscess formation.Typically develops post-partum as a result of breastfeeding

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145
Q

[…] is frequently complicated by breast abscess formation.

A

Acute mastitis is frequently complicated by breast abscess formation.Typically develops post-partum as a result of breastfeeding

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146
Q

[…] may be a trigger for the release of vasoactive substances in carcinoid syndrome.

A

Alcohol may be a trigger for the release of vasoactive substances in carcinoid syndrome.

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147
Q

IL-1 is a product of […].

A

IL-1 is a product of macrophages.

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148
Q

IL-4 is a product of […].

A

IL-4 is a product of TH2 lymphocytes.

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149
Q

IL-6 is a product of […].

A

IL-6 is a product of activated macrophages and TH2 lymphocytes.

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150
Q

TNF-alpha is a product of […].

A

TNF-alpha is a product of activated macrophages.

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151
Q

IFN-gamma is a product of […].

A

IFN-gamma is a product of TH1 lymphocytes.

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152
Q

Failure of the conotruncal ridges to form the aorticopulmonary septum leads to […].

A

Failure of the conotruncal ridges to form the aorticopulmonary septum leads to persistent truncus arteriosus.Will also have VSD

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153
Q

Protein-losing gastroenteropathy = […]

A

Protein-losing gastroenteropathy = Menetrier’s diseaseIncreased mucus production leads to protein losses from excessive gastric secretions – may cause hypoalbuminemia

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154
Q

Ergotamine is contraindicated in patients with […].

A

Ergotamine is contraindicated in patients with Prinzmetal angina.Other toxic effects: cyanosis, absence of peripheral pulse, cold extremities, potentially gangrene

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155
Q

A serious side effect of halothane is […].

A

A serious side effect of halothane is hepatitis.With focal to massive hepatic necrosis – this is why halothane is no longer commonly used in the USA.

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156
Q

[…] deficiency is the most common of the urea cyle disorders.

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency is the most common of the urea cyle disorders.X-linked (mostly recessive) – ammonia accumulates in the blood, can cause coma, brain damage, death

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157
Q

[…] deficiency may result in a megaloblastic anemia that is unresponsive to B12 and folate supplementation.

A

UMP synthase deficiency may result in a megaloblastic anemia that is unresponsive to B12 and folate supplementation.+hypochromic, macrocytic circulating erythrocytes

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158
Q

Orotic aciduria resulting from UMP synthase deficiency can be differentially diagnosed from that resulting from OTC deficiency by the fact that the latter is not associated with […].

A

Orotic aciduria resulting from UMP synthase deficiency can be differentially diagnosed from that resulting from OTC deficiency by the fact that the latter is not associated with megaloblastic anemia.

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159
Q

Deficiencies in […] result in the most severe levels of hyperammonemia associated with any defect in the urea cycle.

A

Deficiencies in carbamoylphosphate synthetase I result in the most severe levels of hyperammonemia associated with any defect in the urea cycle.Classic symptoms appear 24-48 hrs after birth (but not prior to 24 hrs) and include convulsions, hyperventilation, ataxia, hypothermia, lethargy, vomiting, and poor feeding. NO orotic aciduria.

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160
Q

Erythema nodosum, or desert bumps, can be caused by (the microorganism) […].

A

Erythema nodosum, or desert bumps, can be caused by (the microorganism) coccidioides.

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161
Q

Neutrophils lacking […] fail to migrate into sites of inflammation.

A

Neutrophils lacking integrins fail to migrate into sites of inflammation.

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162
Q

LAD-1 results from mutations of the gene that encodes […].

A

LAD-1 results from mutations of the gene that encodes CD18.

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163
Q

[…] results from mutations of the gene that encodes CD18.

A

LAD-1 results from mutations of the gene that encodes CD18.

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164
Q

The diagnosis of […] is made by finding large inclusions in all nucleated blood cells.

A

The diagnosis of Chediak-Higashi is made by finding large inclusions in all nucleated blood cells.

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165
Q

The […] test has replaced the nitroblue tetrazolium test for diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease.

A

The flow cytometric DHR fluorescence test has replaced the nitroblue tetrazolium test for diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease.DHR = dihydrorhodamine 123

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166
Q

The splenic artery and vein are contained within the […] ligament.

A

The splenic artery and vein are contained within the splenorenal ligament.This ligament also contains the tail of the pancreas, which is the only part of the pancreas that is peritoneal.

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167
Q

The right and left gastro-omental arteries are contained within the […] ligament.

A

The right and left gastro-omental arteries are contained within the gastrocolic ligament.

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168
Q

The short gastric arteries are contained within the […] ligament.

A

The short gastric arteries are contained within the gastrosplenic ligament.

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169
Q

[…] and cytotoxic T lymphocytes are the predominant response to viral agents.

A

Natural killer cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes are the predominant response to viral agents.

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170
Q

The […] is predominantly TH cell/macrophage mediated.

A

The superantigen response is predominantly TH cell/macrophage mediated.

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171
Q

Increased […] dilates the coronary blood vessels when oxygen consumption in the heart increases.

A

Increased adenosine dilates the coronary blood vessels when oxygen consumption in the heart increases.

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172
Q

In type IV hypersensitivity, […] attract macrophages to the area.

A

In type IV hypersensitivity, CD4 TH1 lymphocytes attract macrophages to the area.

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173
Q

In type IV hypersensitivity, CD4 TH1 lymphocytes attract […] to the area.

A

In type IV hypersensitivity, CD4 TH1 lymphocytes attract macrophages to the area.

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174
Q

[…] is the only diuretic that acts upstream of the macula densa.

A

Acetazolamide is the only diuretic that acts upstream of the macula densa.Increases delivery of NaCl to macula densa

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175
Q

Sulfonylureas are contraindicated for patients with significant […] dysfunction.

A

Sulfonylureas are contraindicated for patients with significant hepatic dysfunction.

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176
Q

The […] forms the posterior wall of the heart.

A

The left atrium forms the posterior wall of the heart.Enlargement may compress esophagus -> dysphagia

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177
Q

Deficiencies of laminin (A/C) cause X-linked […].

A

Deficiencies of laminin (A/C) cause X-linked Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy (EDMD).Deficiencies of emerin cause the autosomal dominant form of EDMD.

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178
Q

Floor of 4th ventricle contains area postrema; floor of 3rd ventricle contains […].

A

Floor of 4th ventricle contains area postrema; floor of 3rd ventricle contains hypothalamus.

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179
Q

Floor of 4th ventricle contains […]; floor of 3rd ventricle contains hypothalamus.

A

Floor of 4th ventricle contains area postrema; floor of 3rd ventricle contains hypothalamus.

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180
Q

Cyproheptadine is a […] antagonist.

A

Cyproheptadine is a 5-HT2 antagonist.Serotonin syndrome

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181
Q

Treat chlamydia with doxycycline OR […].

A

Treat chlamydia with doxycycline OR azithromycin.

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182
Q

Antibiotic regimen for acute cholecystitis = […] + metronidazole

A

Antibiotic regimen for acute cholecystitis = 3rd gen ceph + metronidazoleInfection usually caused by anaerobic gram-neg or selec gram-pos

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183
Q

Antibiotic regimen for acute cholecystitis = 3rd gen ceph + […]

A

Antibiotic regimen for acute cholecystitis = 3rd gen ceph + metronidazoleInfection usually caused by anaerobic gram-neg or selec gram-pos

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184
Q

In chronic HTN, the total number of […] is decreased.

A

In chronic HTN, the total number of arterioles is decreased.Lower numerical density and total luminal cross-sectional area

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185
Q

[…] are mobile segments of DNA that have played a major role in explosive spread of drug resistances in bacteria.

A

Transposons are mobile segments of DNA that have played a major role in explosive spread of drug resistances in bacteria.

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186
Q

Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (Erlotinib) is used to treat […] carcinoma.

A

Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase inhibitor (Erlotinib) is used to treat non-small cell carcinoma.

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187
Q

[…] inhibits 5alpha-reductase.

A

Finasteride inhibits 5alpha-reductase.Treats symptomatic BPH and male pattern baldness

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188
Q

Atenolol can cause varying degrees of […].

A

Atenolol can cause varying degrees of AV block.

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189
Q

17-alpha-hydroxylase is not present in the zona […].

A

17-alpha-hydroxylase is not present in the zona glomerulosa.Allows it to be the zone that produces aldosterone

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190
Q

In aortic coarctation, flow distal to the coarctation is maintained by collateral flow from the […] arteries.

A

In aortic coarctation, flow distal to the coarctation is maintained by collateral flow from the internal thoracic (mammary) arteries.Branches of the subclavian arteries – the internal thoracic aa give off anterior intercostal aa, which anastamose with posterior intercostal aa that branch from the descending aorta.

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191
Q

“Drop” seizure = […] seizure

A

“Drop” seizure = atonic seizure

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192
Q

Anti-Scl-70 = Antibodies to […]

A

Anti-Scl-70 = Antibodies to DNA topoisomerase IDiffuse scleroderma

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193
Q

In the liver, glucocorticoids act to […] glycogen synthesis.

A

In the liver, glucocorticoids act to increase glycogen synthesis.

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194
Q

SGLT are found in the musoca of the small intestine and the […] of the nephron.

A

SGLT are found in the musoca of the small intestine and the PCT of the nephron.

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195
Q

Herpesvirus, poliovirus, rabies virus, and tetanus toxin are examples of exogenous substances that affect neuron cell bodies as a result of […] axonal transport.

A

Herpesvirus, poliovirus, rabies virus, and tetanus toxin are examples of exogenous substances that affect neuron cell bodies as a result of retrograde axonal transport.

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196
Q

The erythrocyte stage of malaria is cleared by […] cells.

A

The erythrocyte stage of malaria is cleared by NK cells.No MHC on RBCs

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197
Q

The neoplastic cells of seminoma are characteristically immunoreactive with […].

A

The neoplastic cells of seminoma are characteristically immunoreactive with placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP).

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198
Q

[…] testicular tumors originate from Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and fibroblasts.

A

Non-germ cell testicular tumors originate from Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and fibroblasts.Germ cell tumors represent 95% of all testicular neoplasms.

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199
Q

The most important chemotactic factors for neutrophils are […].

A

The most important chemotactic factors for neutrophils are C5a and IL-8.

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200
Q

Fluoroquinolones are generally ineffective in the treatment of […] infections.

A

Fluoroquinolones are generally ineffective in the treatment of anaerobic infections.

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201
Q

Furosemide increases activity of the R-A-A system through a […]-mediated increase in sympathetic input to renin-secreting granular cells.

A

Furosemide increases activity of the R-A-A system through a baroreceptor-mediated increase in sympathetic input to renin-secreting granular cells.

202
Q

Patients who take glucocorticoids chronically may experience increased levels of blood […].

A

Patients who take glucocorticoids chronically may experience increased levels of blood glucose.Glucocorticoids increase hepatic gluconeogenesis, inhibit glucose uptake, and induce insulin resistance.

203
Q

Solar elastosis is found in […].

A

Solar elastosis is found in actinic keratoses.Solar elastosis = an accumulation of elastin in the dermis

204
Q

Doxepin is approved for use in the topical treatment of […].

A

Doxepin is approved for use in the topical treatment of eczematous dermatitis.E.g. atopic dermatitis, eczema, lichen simplex chronicus

205
Q

Cells similar to fibroblasts growing in a storiform (“pinwheel”) pattern are characteristic of […].

A

Cells similar to fibroblasts growing in a storiform (“pinwheel”) pattern are characteristic of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.=a slow growing type of fibrosarcoma

206
Q

Pautrier microabscesses are a feature of […].

A

Pautrier microabscesses are a feature of mycosis fungoides.=cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

207
Q

Something that looks like TEN but appears in a newborn is likely […].

A

Something that looks like TEN but appears in a newborn is likely staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome.These babies should be treated as if they had been burned – also give anti-staph abx immediately.

208
Q

The […] test is used to distunguish group B streptococci from other streptococci.

A

The CAMP test is used to distunguish group B streptococci from other streptococci.

209
Q

The ELEK test is used to identify toxin-producing strains of […].

A

The ELEK test is used to identify toxin-producing strains of C. diphtheriae.

210
Q

Chronic lower leg edema can lead to the skin condition […].

A

Chronic lower leg edema can lead to the skin condition stasis dermatitis.Secondary to venous stasis

211
Q

Thumb extension = […] nerve

A

Thumb extension = radial nerveExtensors pollicis longus and brevis

212
Q

Zileuton inhibits 5-lipoxygenase, the enzyme that converts arachidonic acid to […].

A

Zileuton inhibits 5-lipoxygenase, the enzyme that converts arachidonic acid to hydroperoxides.AA -> hydroperoxides -> leukotrienesAA -> endoperoxides -> prostaglandins

213
Q

Atropine has no effect on […] receptors (located on skeletal muscle).

A

Atropine has no effect on nicotinic receptors (located on skeletal muscle).

214
Q

Piriform cortex = primary […] cortex

A

Piriform cortex = primary olfactory cortexSmell is the only sensation that doesn’t require thalamic relay.

215
Q

Misoprostol = analogue of prostaglandin […]

A

Misoprostol = analogue of prostaglandin E1Used to prevent gastric/duodenal ulcers and to induce labor

216
Q

Dinoprostone =analogue of prostaglandin […]

A

Dinoprostone =analogue of prostaglandin E2Induces cervical softening/dilation and causes uterus to contract

217
Q

Alprostadil =analogue of prostaglandin […]

A

Alprostadil =analogue of prostaglandin E1Used to treat ED

218
Q

Epoprostenol =analogue of prostaglandin […]

A

Epoprostenol =analogue of prostaglandin I2Used to treat pulmonary HTN

219
Q

Latanoprost =analogue of prostaglandin […]

A

Latanoprost =analogue of prostaglandin F2alphaIncreases aq. humor outflow

220
Q

Culturing Haemophilus can be done on blood agar with a […] co-culture.

A

Culturing Haemophilus can be done on blood agar with a Staph aureus co-culture.Releases factors V and X

221
Q

“Cavitary lesion with an air-fluid level” on chest radiograph = […]

A

“Cavitary lesion with an air-fluid level” on chest radiograph = lung abscess / aspiration pneumoniaAnaerobic bacteria derived from oral flora (Bacteroides, Peptococcus, Fusobacterium)

222
Q

A mixed acidosis commonly occurs with […].

A

A mixed acidosis commonly occurs with cardiopulmonary arrest.Poorly perfused tissues -> lactic acidosis… ventilatory standstill -> no respiratory compensation

223
Q

Cyst with a mural node = […]

A

Cyst with a mural node = juvenile pilocytic astrocytomaAssociated with type 1 neurofibromatosis

224
Q

The order of transfer from Hfr donor bacteria to F- recipient cells is from […] toward thetra operon.

A

The order of transfer from Hfr donor bacteria to F- recipient cells is from oriT toward thetra operon.tra operon is never successfully transferred – genes closest to oriT are most likely to be transferred

225
Q

The order of transfer from Hfr donor bacteria to F- recipient cells is from oriT toward the[…].

A

The order of transfer from Hfr donor bacteria to F- recipient cells is from oriT toward thetra operon.tra operon is never successfully transferred – genes closest to oriT are most likely to be transferred

226
Q

[…] cells are important in humoral immunity, but antibodies do not usually play important roles against intracellular pathogens.

A

TH2 cells are important in humoral immunity, but antibodies do not usually play important roles against intracellular pathogens.

227
Q

Although India ink is often mentioned, it is not the preferred diagnostic test for cryptococcal meningitis – that would be […].

A

Although India ink is often mentioned, it is not the preferred diagnostic test for cryptococcal meningitis – that would be latex particle agglutination.More sensitive test, detects capsular antigens shed into CSF

228
Q

Long-segment aganglionosis still involving the rectum (in Hirschprung’s disease) is more likely in a […] patient.

A

Long-segment aganglionosis still involving the rectum (in Hirschprung’s disease) is more likely in a female patient.Males are more commonly affected and usually have a short segment involved.

229
Q

Type II error = 1 - […]

A

Type II error = 1 - Power

230
Q

[…] = 1 - Power

A

Type II error = 1 - Power

231
Q

CrCl = (V xUcreatinine) /[…]

A

CrCl = (V xUcreatinine) /PcreatinineConvert urine volume into mL/min

232
Q

CrCl = (V x[…]) /Pcreatinine

A

CrCl = (V xUcreatinine) /PcreatinineConvert urine volume into mL/min

233
Q

Goodpasture’s is an example of type II […] hypersensitivity.

A

Goodpasture’s is an example of type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

234
Q

The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the […] artery, which is a branch of the common hepatic artery.

A

The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery, which is a branch of the common hepatic artery.Common hepatic is a branch of the celiac trunk.

235
Q

The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery, which is a branch of the […] artery.

A

The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery, which is a branch of the common hepatic artery.Common hepatic is a branch of the celiac trunk.

236
Q

The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the […] artery.

A

The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery.

237
Q

[…] HIT is a nonimmune response to heparin and begins 1-2 days after heparin initiation.

A

Type 1 HIT is a nonimmune response to heparin and begins 1-2 days after heparin initiation.Occurs in 30% of heparin patients. Results in mild to moderate thrombocytopenia. Platelet count rarely falls below 100,000/mm3.

238
Q

[…] HIT is immune-mediated and commonly known as HITT.

A

Type 2 HIT is immune-mediated and commonly known as HITT.Can include skin necrosis and gangrene. Typically occurs 4-14 days after heparin initiation.

239
Q

Inflammatory breast cancer is a pattern of invasive breast cancer that involves […] channels.

A

Inflammatory breast cancer is a pattern of invasive breast cancer that involves dermal lymphatic channels.Therefore has a high stage at Dx – it also has swollen, red, warm lymphedema that is commonly mistaken for acute mastitis

240
Q

The floor of the orbit is also the roof of the […].

A

The floor of the orbit is also the roof of the maxillary sinus.Bone separating the orbit from the maxillary sinus is frequently quite thin and may fracture from a blow to the eye.

241
Q

Branchial / lateral cervical cysts are found over the sternocleidomastoid and are usually derived from the […].

A

Branchial / lateral cervical cysts are found over the sternocleidomastoid and are usually derived from the second pharyngeal cleft.

242
Q

[…] is an anti-inflammatory cytokine produced by TH2 cells, which inhibits TH1 cells.

A

IL-10 is an anti-inflammatory cytokine produced by TH2 cells, which inhibits TH1 cells.

243
Q

[…] is one of the most debilitating complications of glucocorticoid therapy.

A

Osteoporosis is one of the most debilitating complications of glucocorticoid therapy.Glucocorticoids are used on an acute basis for severe RA flares as well as for “bridging therapy” (in conjunction with DMARDs).

244
Q

Acini in the parotid gland are mostly pure […] cells.

A

Acini in the parotid gland are mostly pure serous cells.

245
Q

Acini in the sublingual gland are almost pure […] cells.

A

Acini in the sublingual gland are almost pure mucous cells.

246
Q

The […] glutamate receptor is both ligand-gated and voltage-gated.

A

The NMDA glutamate receptor is both ligand-gated and voltage-gated.Ketamine = NMDA receptor antagonist

247
Q

The nerve that lies in the tonsillar fossa is the […] nerve.

A

The nerve that lies in the tonsillar fossa is the glossopharyngeal nerve.

248
Q

The […] nerve lies on the anterior surface of the anterior scalene muscle.

A

The phrenic nerve lies on the anterior surface of the anterior scalene muscle.Deep to the prevertebral fascia

249
Q

The phrenic nerve lies on the anterior surface of the […] muscle.

A

The phrenic nerve lies on the anterior surface of the anterior scalene muscle.Deep to the prevertebral fascia

250
Q

[…] is present if the pelvis drops on the side opposite to the stance leg, while the opposite limb is off the ground.

A

Trendelenburg sign is present if the pelvis drops on the side opposite to the stance leg, while the opposite limb is off the ground.The abductor actions of the gluteus minimus and medius allow them to hold the pelvis over the leg planted on the ground while raising the other leg.

251
Q

Medial medullary syndrome is caused by occlusion of the […] artery.

A

Medial medullary syndrome is caused by occlusion of the anterior spinal artery.Ipsilateral paralysis of half the tongue, contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of tactile and vibratory sensation

252
Q

[…] syndrome is caused by occlusion of the anterior spinal artery.

A

Medial medullary syndrome is caused by occlusion of the anterior spinal artery.Ipsilateral paralysis of half the tongue, contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of tactile and vibratory sensation

253
Q

The femoral ring is bounded medially by the […].

A

The femoral ring is bounded medially by the lacunar ligament.Compression of the herniated intestine against the sharp edge of the lacunar ligament may cause strangulation of the intestine.

254
Q

Diseases involving […] are usually genetic diseases such as Zellweger syndrome, neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy, infantile Refsum disease, and hyperpipecolatemia.

A

Diseases involving peroxisomes are usually genetic diseases such as Zellweger syndrome, neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy, infantile Refsum disease, and hyperpipecolatemia.

255
Q

Two main factors contribute to force summation: (1) […] summation and (2) frequency summation.

A

Two main factors contribute to force summation: (1) multiple fiber summation and (2) frequency summation.Occurs when a person attempts to lift a heavy weight

256
Q

Two main factors contribute to force summation: (1) multiple fiber summation and (2) […] summation.

A

Two main factors contribute to force summation: (1) multiple fiber summation and (2) frequency summation.Occurs when a person attempts to lift a heavy weight

257
Q

Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against […].

A

Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against the fusion protein of RSV.Indicated for RSV prophylaxis in high-risk patients.

258
Q

[…] is a monoclonal antibody directed against the fusion protein of RSV.

A

Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody directed against the fusion protein of RSV.Indicated for RSV prophylaxis in high-risk patients.

259
Q

The […] type of ASD is a failure of septum primum fusion with the endocardial cushions.

A

The ostium primum type of ASD is a failure of septum primum fusion with the endocardial cushions.

260
Q

An aneurysm of the axillary artery may compress any of the […] of the brachial plexus.

A

An aneurysm of the axillary artery may compress any of the cords of the brachial plexus.

261
Q

Only a few medically important species undergo […]: Haemophilus, Streptococcus, Neisseria, and Helicobacter pylori.

A

Only a few medically important species undergo natural transformation: Haemophilus, Streptococcus, Neisseria, and Helicobacter pylori.When lysates of bacteria are added to cultures

262
Q

Citrate is a negative allosteric regulator of […].

A

Citrate is a negative allosteric regulator of phosphofructokinase I.

263
Q

The most numerous cell in any granuloma is an […].

A

The most numerous cell in any granuloma is an epithelioid macrophage.

264
Q

[…], which is a condition resulting from compression of the tectum, is the most important clinical presentation of pineal germinomas.

A

Parinaud syndrome, which is a condition resulting from compression of the tectum, is the most important clinical presentation of pineal germinomas.Consists of a palsy of upward gaze, dissociation of light and accomodation = light-near dissociation, and a failure of convergence… can also cause hydrocephalus because of acqueduct compression

265
Q

Parinaud syndrome, which is a condition resulting from compression of the […], is the most important clinical presentation of pineal germinomas.

A

Parinaud syndrome, which is a condition resulting from compression of the tectum, is the most important clinical presentation of pineal germinomas.Consists of a palsy of upward gaze, dissociation of light and accomodation = light-near dissociation, and a failure of convergence… can also cause hydrocephalus because of acqueduct compression

266
Q

Parinaud syndrome, which is a condition resulting from compression of the tectum, is the most important clinical presentation of […].

A

Parinaud syndrome, which is a condition resulting from compression of the tectum, is the most important clinical presentation of pineal germinomas.Consists of a palsy of upward gaze, dissociation of light and accomodation = light-near dissociation, and a failure of convergence… can also cause hydrocephalus because of acqueduct compression

267
Q

Basophilic stippling = aggregates of […] and mitochondria

A

Basophilic stippling = aggregates of ribosomes and mitochondriaLead poisoning can lead to this

268
Q

Basophilic stippling = aggregates of ribosomes and […]

A

Basophilic stippling = aggregates of ribosomes and mitochondriaLead poisoning can lead to this

269
Q

[…] is present in primary adrenocortical insufficiency (Addision disease) but absent in secondary adrenocortical insufficiency.

A

Skin hyperpigmentation is present in primary adrenocortical insufficiency (Addision disease) but absent in secondary adrenocortical insufficiency.Results from increased production of ACTH precursor

270
Q

The […] nerve passes around the neck of the fibula, where it is susceptible to injury.

A

The common fibular (peroneal) nerve passes around the neck of the fibula, where it is susceptible to injury.

271
Q

All SSTR subtypes are GPCRs and involve an inhibition of […].

A

All SSTR subtypes are GPCRs and involve an inhibition of adenylyl cyclase.SSTR = somatostatin receptor

272
Q

In tuberous sclerosis, constitutive […] signaling mediates many effects on cell growth, resulting in the development of TSC-associated tumors.

A

In tuberous sclerosis, constitutive mTOR signaling mediates many effects on cell growth, resulting in the development of TSC-associated tumors.mTOR = mammalian target of rapamycin — when Rheb is in the active, GTP-bound state, it acts as a positive effector of mTOR

273
Q

Propanolol and primidone are effective first-line therapies for […].

A

Propanolol and primidone are effective first-line therapies for benign essential tremor.Second-line therapies include gabapentin, topiramate, and alprazolam.

274
Q

[…] are effective first-line therapies for benign essential tremor.

A

Propanolol and primidone are effective first-line therapies for benign essential tremor.Second-line therapies include gabapentin, topiramate, and alprazolam.

275
Q

The paired umbilical arteries arise from the […] arteries.

A

The paired umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.After birth, the umbilical arteries obliterate and their vistigial remnants are the components of the mediaL umbilical ligaments.

276
Q

[…] cannot be used for gluconeogenesis, and thus fatty acids are not gluconeogenic.

A

Aceytl-CoA cannot be used for gluconeogenesis, and thus fatty acids are not gluconeogenic.But the glycerol backbone of triglycerides IS gluconeogenic. This pathway contributes about 80% of the glucose in dieting obese individuals and about 20% (behind amino acid pathways) in truly starving individuals.

277
Q

Notochord formation begins about day […], and the neuroenteric canal forms on about day 18.

A

Notochord formation begins about day 16, and the neuroenteric canal forms on about day 18.

278
Q

Notochord formation begins about day 16, and the neuroenteric canal forms on about day […].

A

Notochord formation begins about day 16, and the neuroenteric canal forms on about day 18.

279
Q

“Wet” beriberi = […] cardiomyopathy

A

“Wet” beriberi = dilated cardiomyopathy”Dry” beriberi = polyneuritis

280
Q

An acute side effect of lithium is […] – this can be treated with propanolol.

A

An acute side effect of lithium is tremor – this can be treated with propanolol.

281
Q

An acute side effect of lithium is tremor – this can be treated with […].

A

An acute side effect of lithium is tremor – this can be treated with propanolol.

282
Q

[…] (hormone) is usually high in prerenal failure.

A

ADH (hormone) is usually high in prerenal failure.Favors reabsorption of urea, water, and (secondarily) sodium

283
Q

The usual cause of death in renal shutdown is […] (electrolyte abnormality).

A

The usual cause of death in renal shutdown is hyperkalemia (electrolyte abnormality).Renal shutdown causes generalized edema, metabolic acidosis, increases in non-protein nitrogens, and increases in the plasma levels of ions usually excreted by the kidney (e.g. Na, K, H, etc.).

284
Q

The very high osmolatiry of the renal medulla particularly favors sickling of the erythrocytes in the […].

A

The very high osmolatiry of the renal medulla particularly favors sickling of the erythrocytes in the vasa recta.Can lead to patchy papillary necrosis, proteinuria, and sometimes cortical scarring.The glomerular capillaries are small enough to be occluded by sickled cells but they are well oxygenated and the blood within them is not hypertonic – so they are less likely to be occluded than the vasa recta.

285
Q

The third pharyngeal pouch usually gives rise to the […].

A

The third pharyngeal pouch usually gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus.DiGeorge is caused by abnormal 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch development.

286
Q

The […] usually gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus.

A

The third pharyngeal pouch usually gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus.DiGeorge is caused by abnormal 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch development.

287
Q

HER-2 is a receptor with […] activity.

A

HER-2 is a receptor with intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity.Others include epidermal GF, transforming GF alpha, and insulin.

288
Q

The RET gene encodes a […] that binds to neutrophic factors that signal the cell to grow and divide.

A

The RET gene encodes a receptor tyrosine kinase that binds to neutrophic factors that signal the cell to grow and divide.Gain of function mutations of the RET gene -> continuous signaling -> tendency toward growth/survival of the cell

289
Q

[…] = expanded GAA repeat on chromosome 9

A

Friedreich ataxia = expanded GAA repeat on chromosome 9Most common hereditary ataxia – caused by a mutation in the frataxin (FXN) gene

290
Q

[…] (anti-seizure drug) is associated with thrombocytopenia.

A

Valproic acid (anti-seizure drug) is associated with thrombocytopenia.This effect is dose-related – other drugs assoc. with thrombocytopenia include furosemide, gold salts, NSAIDs, quinidine, quinine, and sulfonamides.

291
Q

Large losses of extracellular fluid that occur with loop diuretics can cause a “[…]” (pH abnormality).

A

Large losses of extracellular fluid that occur with loop diuretics can cause a “contraction alkalosis” (pH abnormality).

292
Q

[…] (drug of abuse) are weak bases, and the addition of a weak acid will facilitate urinary excretion.

A

Amphetamines (drug of abuse) are weak bases, and the addition of a weak acid will facilitate urinary excretion.

293
Q

A positive […] test on urine will confirm the diagnosis of cystinuria.

A

A positive nitroprusside cyanide test on urine will confirm the diagnosis of cystinuria.

294
Q

The body responds to hypoglycemia with an […] burst.

A

The body responds to hypoglycemia with an epinephrine burst.

295
Q

[…] catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid biosynthesis.

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid biosynthesis.Activated by insulin

296
Q

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step in […].

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid biosynthesis.Activated by insulin

297
Q

Doxepin cream is a topical […] cream.

A

Doxepin cream is a topical antipruritic cream.

298
Q

[…] is the name of the characteristic lesion that occurs during Pseudomonas septicemias.

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum is the name of the characteristic lesion that occurs during Pseudomonas septicemias.

299
Q

The initiating event of DIC is excessive […] release.

A

The initiating event of DIC is excessive tissue factor release.

300
Q

[…] is instrumental in the metabolism of azathioprine metabolites, and coadministration with allopurinol can result in toxicity.

A

Xanthine oxidase is instrumental in the metabolism of azathioprine metabolites, and coadministration with allopurinol can result in toxicity.

301
Q

Xanthine oxidase is instrumental in the metabolism of […] metabolites, and coadministration with allopurinol can result in toxicity.

A

Xanthine oxidase is instrumental in the metabolism of azathioprine metabolites, and coadministration with allopurinol can result in toxicity.

302
Q

Xanthine oxidase is instrumental in the metabolism of azathioprine metabolites, and coadministration with […] can result in toxicity.

A

Xanthine oxidase is instrumental in the metabolism of azathioprine metabolites, and coadministration with allopurinol can result in toxicity.

303
Q

In familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (familial benign hypercalcemia), a mutation of the […] produces a mild autosomal dominant condition.

A

In familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (familial benign hypercalcemia), a mutation of the CaSR gene produces a mild autosomal dominant condition.CaSR = calcium-sensing receptor

304
Q

The clinical hallmark of […] (leukemia) is the uncontrolled production of myeloid cells.

A

The clinical hallmark of CML (leukemia) is the uncontrolled production of myeloid cells.CML is classified as a myeloproliferative disorder.

305
Q

In thoracic outlet syndrome, the neurovascular structures typically involved include the subclavian artery and the […].

A

In thoracic outlet syndrome, the neurovascular structures typically involved include the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus.Both structures pass laterally over the upper surface of the first rib and lie posterior to the scalenus anterior.

306
Q

[…] is a pleomorphic, gram-negative rod that displays a characteristic pattern (“school of fish”) on gram-stained slides.

A

Haemophilus ducreyi is a pleomorphic, gram-negative rod that displays a characteristic pattern (“school of fish”) on gram-stained slides.Treat with azithromycin or ceftriaxone.

307
Q

Either surgery or […] are the preferred therapy of hyperthyroidism in a pregnant patient in the first trimester.

A

Either surgery or thioamides are the preferred therapy of hyperthyroidism in a pregnant patient in the first trimester.PTU is generally limited to the first trimester of pregnancy – after the first trimester, it is recommended that methimazole be used.

308
Q

Measurement of both the serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA and […] can be useful in the dx of carcinoid syndrome.

A

Measurement of both the serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA and chromogranin A (CgA) can be useful in the dx of carcinoid syndrome.5-HIAA is not always increased, depending on the location of the tumor.Chromogranins are secretory proteins found in vesicles of neuroendocrine cells – levels in plasma correlate with the size and extent of neuroendocrine tumors.

309
Q

The […] is formed by the teres minor, teres major, long head of the triceps, and the surgical neck of the humerus.

A

The quadrangular space is formed by the teres minor, teres major, long head of the triceps, and the surgical neck of the humerus.Along this route, the axillary nerve runs in close proximity to the surgical neck of the humerus and is accompanied by the posterior humeral circumflex artery, which may also be injured in such a fracture.

310
Q

Schuffner dots are associated with […].

A

Schuffner dots are associated with Plasmodium vivax/ovale.Only P. vivax occurs in the western hemisphere.

311
Q

[…] dots are associated with Plasmodium vivax/ovale.

A

Schuffner dots are associated with Plasmodium vivax/ovale.Only P. vivax occurs in the western hemisphere.

312
Q

The presence of lysosomal enzymes in the extracellular space is highly indicative of […].

A

The presence of lysosomal enzymes in the extracellular space is highly indicative of I-cell disease.Caused by deficiency in the enzyme N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase –> defect in protein-associated mannose phosphorylation

313
Q

Abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis = thenar muscles = […] (innervation)

A

Abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis = thenar muscles = median nerve (innervation)

314
Q

Abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis = […] muscles = median nerve (innervation)

A

Abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis = thenar muscles = median nerve (innervation)

315
Q

[…] converts norepinephrine to epinephrine.

A

PNMT converts norepinephrine to epinephrine.Cytoplasm

316
Q

The preferred benzodiazepines in liver disease are […], oxazepam, and temazepam.

A

The preferred benzodiazepines in liver disease are lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam.These agents are primarily metabolized by phase II processes (conjugation) – less effected by liver disease.

317
Q

The preferred benzodiazepines in liver disease are lorazepam, […], and temazepam.

A

The preferred benzodiazepines in liver disease are lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam.These agents are primarily metabolized by phase II processes (conjugation) – less effected by liver disease.

318
Q

The preferred benzodiazepines in liver disease are lorazepam, oxazepam, and […].

A

The preferred benzodiazepines in liver disease are lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam.These agents are primarily metabolized by phase II processes (conjugation) – less effected by liver disease.

319
Q

Sagittal sinus thrombosis occurs with increased frequency during […].

A

Sagittal sinus thrombosis occurs with increased frequency during pregnancy.And during the first few weeks postpartumCan lead to increased intracranial pressure, seizures, parasagittal hemorrhages, and infarcts

320
Q

Which deficiency causes fructose intolerance: fructokinase or fructose-1-phosphate aldolase? […]

A

Which deficiency causes fructose intolerance: fructokinase or fructose-1-phosphate aldolase? Fructose-1-phosphate aldolaseEssential fructosuria involves a defect in fructokinase and is a benign, asymptomatic condition.

321
Q

Lens of the eye = type […] collagen

A

Lens of the eye = type IV collagenCan be damaged in Goodpasture’s

322
Q

Epiphyseal plates = type […] collagen

A

Epiphyseal plates = type X collagen

323
Q

CN III innvervates the […], which elevates the eyelid.

A

CN III innvervates the levator palpebrae superioris, which elevates the eyelid.

324
Q

The earliest symptom of salicylate intoxication is […].

A

The earliest symptom of salicylate intoxication is tinnitus.

325
Q

t1/2= (0.7 x Vd) / […]

A

t1/2= (0.7 x Vd) / CLVd = volume of distr., CL = clearance

326
Q

t1/2= ([…]) / CL

A

t1/2= (0.7 x Vd) / CLVd = volume of distr., CL = clearance

327
Q

[…]= (0.7 x Vd) / CL

A

t1/2= (0.7 x Vd) / CLVd = volume of distr., CL = clearance

328
Q

Vd= Dose /[…]

A

Vd= Dose /C0C0 = drug concentration in plasma at time 0

329
Q

Vd= […] /C0

A

Vd= Dose /C0C0 = drug concentration in plasma at time 0

330
Q

[…]= Dose /C0

A

Vd= Dose /C0C0 = drug concentration in plasma at time 0

331
Q

The free edge of the lesser omentum is also called the […].

A

The free edge of the lesser omentum is also called the hepatoduodenal ligament.

332
Q

The free edge of the […] is also called the hepatoduodenal ligament.

A

The free edge of the lesser omentum is also called the hepatoduodenal ligament.

333
Q

The hepatoduodenal ligament contains three important structures known as the […].

A

The hepatoduodenal ligament contains three important structures known as the portal triad.1. Common bile duct2. Proper hepatic artery (branch of common hepatic)3. Portal vein

334
Q

The […] contains three important structures known as the portal triad.

A

The hepatoduodenal ligament contains three important structures known as the portal triad.1. Common bile duct2. Proper hepatic artery (branch of common hepatic)3. Portal vein

335
Q

[…] is the most common immunodeficiency disease in the United States.

A

Selective IgA deficiency is the most common immunodeficiency disease in the United States.Patients with selective IgA deficiency have a tendency to having increased amounts of atopic allergy.

336
Q

[…] is the most common cause of staghorn calculi.

A

Proteus mirabillis is the most common cause of staghorn calculi.Other bacteria that produce a urease are Ureaplasma, Klebsiella, Psuedomonas, and Enterobacter.

337
Q

Central pontine myelinolysis is a specific, and nearly always iatrogenic, condition following overly rapid correction of severe […].

A

Central pontine myelinolysis is a specific, and nearly always iatrogenic, condition following overly rapid correction of severe hyponatremia.Characterized by demyelination of the central pons – axons and neuronal cell bodies are relatively preserved. Lesion usually involved basis pontis and portions of the pontine tegmentum.

338
Q

[…] is a specific, and nearly always iatrogenic, condition following overly rapid correction of severe hyponatremia.

A

Central pontine myelinolysis is a specific, and nearly always iatrogenic, condition following overly rapid correction of severe hyponatremia.Characterized by demyelination of the central pons – axons and neuronal cell bodies are relatively preserved. Lesion usually involved basis pontis and portions of the pontine tegmentum.

339
Q

In GBS-positive mothers, IV […] should be started during labor.

A

In GBS-positive mothers, IV ampicillin should be started during labor.

340
Q

“Sawtooth glandular epithelium with proliferation of goblet and columnar epithelial cells” = […]

A

“Sawtooth glandular epithelium with proliferation of goblet and columnar epithelial cells” = hyperplastic polypNo malignant potential

341
Q

“Iodine-staining, intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies” = […]

A

“Iodine-staining, intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies” = chlamydiaThe form that would be grown in tissue culture cells is the reticulate body.

342
Q

When a joint is immobilized in a cast, the muscles are inactive and their metabolic rate decreases, leading to a decrease in […].

A

When a joint is immobilized in a cast, the muscles are inactive and their metabolic rate decreases, leading to a decrease in capillarity.Mechanisms poorly understood

343
Q

[…] is the most common opportunistic infection affecting HIV-positive individuals and is the most common cause of death in patients with AIDS.

A

TB is the most common opportunistic infection affecting HIV-positive individuals and is the most common cause of death in patients with AIDS.

344
Q

Incomplete fusion of the lateral body folds leads to […].

A

Incomplete fusion of the lateral body folds leads to gastroschisis.

345
Q

What do quinidine, procainamide, sotalol, amiodarone, disopyramide, dofetilide, phenothiazines, and TCAs have in common? […]

A

What do quinidine, procainamide, sotalol, amiodarone, disopyramide, dofetilide, phenothiazines, and TCAs have in common? Prolong the QT inverval

346
Q

Niacin’s most severe adverse effect is […].

A

Niacin’s most severe adverse effect is chemical hepatitis.Most common adverse effect is flushing of the face and neck.

347
Q

[…] is a competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist indicated for the treatment of urinary incontinence, urinary urgency, and urinary frequency.

A

Tolterodine is a competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist indicated for the treatment of urinary incontinence, urinary urgency, and urinary frequency.

348
Q

Hypoglycemia is a potential complication of […] seen in diabetic patients taking insulin products.

A

Hypoglycemia is a potential complication of beta blockade seen in diabetic patients taking insulin products.Blockade may be blunt or prevent some of the premonitory signs and symptoms of acute episodes of hypoglycemia mediated by the autonomic nervous system.

349
Q

The […] duct drains the right arm, the right side of the chest, and the right side of the head.

A

The right lymphatic duct drains the right arm, the right side of the chest, and the right side of the head.The thoracic duct drains the rest of the body.

350
Q

[…] is indicative of air in the mediastinum.

A

Hamman’s sign is indicative of air in the mediastinum.A crunching sound heard simultaneously with heartbeat

351
Q

Kernicterus can occur if the mother takes […] antibiotics during the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy.

A

Kernicterus can occur if the mother takes sulfonamide antibiotics during the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy.Assoc. with opisthotonos, a high-pitched cry, an abnormal Moro, and abnormal eye movements

352
Q

The alpha toxins of S. aureus and C. perfringens are […].

A

The alpha toxins of S. aureus and C. perfringens are cytolysins.S. aureus’s is a pore former; C. perfringens’ is a lecithinase.

353
Q

The […] of S. aureus and C. perfringens are cytolysins.

A

The alpha toxins of S. aureus and C. perfringens are cytolysins.S. aureus’s is a pore former; C. perfringens’ is a lecithinase.

354
Q

Usually BUN and creatinine rise together, but […] can lead to a selective rise in BUN.

A

Usually BUN and creatinine rise together, but early congestive heart failure can lead to a selective rise in BUN.Other conditions that lead to a selective rise in BUN are burns and prolonged high fever (due to increased urea synthesis).

355
Q

Usually BUN and creatinine rise together, but early congestive heart failure can lead to a selective rise in […].

A

Usually BUN and creatinine rise together, but early congestive heart failure can lead to a selective rise in BUN.Other conditions that lead to a selective rise in BUN are burns and prolonged high fever (due to increased urea synthesis).

356
Q

The […] artery is the terminal branch of the maxillary artery.

A

The sphenopalatine artery is the terminal branch of the maxillary artery.

357
Q

The sphenopalatine artery is the terminal branch of the […] artery.

A

The sphenopalatine artery is the terminal branch of the maxillary artery.

358
Q

[…] valve insufficiency is common in IV drug abusers with acute bacterial endocarditis.

A

Tricuspid valve insufficiency is common in IV drug abusers with acute bacterial endocarditis.

359
Q

Tricuspid valve insufficiency is common in […].

A

Tricuspid valve insufficiency is common in IV drug abusers with acute bacterial endocarditis.

360
Q

[…] is due to abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch and the second pharyngeal arch, groove, and pouch.

A

Mandibulofacial dysostosis is due to abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch and the second pharyngeal arch, groove, and pouch.Abnormally formed mandible, ears, and palate

361
Q

Myosin, including non-muscle myosin in epithelial cells, is associated with actin filaments and thus contributes to the function of […].

A

Myosin, including non-muscle myosin in epithelial cells, is associated with actin filaments and thus contributes to the function of microvilli.Microvillous atrophy is the leading cause of secretory diarrhea in the first few weeks of life.

362
Q

An increase in calcium and alk phos + a decrease in phosphate = […]

A

An increase in calcium and alk phos + a decrease in phosphate = hyperparathyroidismPTH has opposing effects on calcium and phosphate, leading to increase Ca2+ reabsorption from bone and kidney as well as reduced renal reabsorption of phosphate.

363
Q

Decreased calcium + increased phosphate = […]

A

Decreased calcium + increased phosphate = renal insufficiencyReduced production of Vit D via direct renal cell damage + decreased renal excretion of phosphate

364
Q

Decreased calcium + decreased phosphate = […]

A

Decreased calcium + decreased phosphate = Vit D deficiency

365
Q

Increased calcium + increased phosphate = […]

A

Increased calcium + increased phosphate = Vit D intoxication

366
Q

The final component of nephrotic syndrome is […].

A

The final component of nephrotic syndrome is hyperlipidemia.LDL is up, HDL is down

367
Q

[…] =Cssx CL

A

Dosing rate =Cssx CLCss = conc. at steady state

368
Q

Dosing rate =[…]x CL

A

Dosing rate =Cssx CLCss = conc. at steady state

369
Q

Dosing rate =Cssx […]

A

Dosing rate =Cssx CLCss = conc. at steady state

370
Q

The […] isoenzyme of creatinine kinase is associated with heart damage; the MM isoenzyme is associated with skeletal muscle damage; the BB isoenzyme is associated with brain damage.

A

The MB isoenzyme of creatinine kinase is associated with heart damage; the MM isoenzyme is associated with skeletal muscle damage; the BB isoenzyme is associated with brain damage.

371
Q

The MB isoenzyme of creatinine kinase is associated with heart damage; the […] isoenzyme is associated with skeletal muscle damage; the BB isoenzyme is associated with brain damage.

A

The MB isoenzyme of creatinine kinase is associated with heart damage; the MM isoenzyme is associated with skeletal muscle damage; the BB isoenzyme is associated with brain damage.

372
Q

The MB isoenzyme of creatinine kinase is associated with heart damage; the MM isoenzyme is associated with skeletal muscle damage; the […] isoenzyme is associated with brain damage.

A

The MB isoenzyme of creatinine kinase is associated with heart damage; the MM isoenzyme is associated with skeletal muscle damage; the BB isoenzyme is associated with brain damage.

373
Q

[…] is the most common cause of fatal sporadic encephalitis in the United States.

A

HSV-1 is the most common cause of fatal sporadic encephalitis in the United States.Will see Cowdry type A inclusions in neurons and glia

374
Q

The re-infection site of TB is usually in the […] of the lung and is called a Simon focus.

A

The re-infection site of TB is usually in the apex of the lung and is called a Simon focus.

375
Q

The re-infection site of TB is usually in the apex of the lung and is called a […].

A

The re-infection site of TB is usually in the apex of the lung and is called a Simon focus.

376
Q

Ketoacids are normally produced in roughly equal amounts, but in pathologic conditions (e.g. DM, alcoholism) the ratio shifts to […] predominating.

A

Ketoacids are normally produced in roughly equal amounts, but in pathologic conditions (e.g. DM, alcoholism) the ratio shifts to 3-hydroxybutyrate predominating.(the other one is acetoacetate)

377
Q

[…] is the amyloid protein associated with hemodialysis.

A

Beta-2 microglobulin is the amyloid protein associated with hemodialysis.

378
Q

A decreased ESR can be seen in […], polycythemia, and CHF.

A

A decreased ESR can be seen in sickle-cell anemia, polycythemia, and CHF.Diseases associaed with increased antibody formation tend to markedly increase the ESR (by causing erythrocytes to stick to each other better and consequently settle faster).

379
Q

A decreased ESR can be seen in sickle-cell anemia, […], and CHF.

A

A decreased ESR can be seen in sickle-cell anemia, polycythemia, and CHF.Diseases associaed with increased antibody formation tend to markedly increase the ESR (by causing erythrocytes to stick to each other better and consequently settle faster).

380
Q

A decreased ESR can be seen in sickle-cell anemia, polycythemia, and […].

A

A decreased ESR can be seen in sickle-cell anemia, polycythemia, and CHF.Diseases associaed with increased antibody formation tend to markedly increase the ESR (by causing erythrocytes to stick to each other better and consequently settle faster).

381
Q

The most common cause of CAIS is a mutation in the […] gene.

A

The most common cause of CAIS is a mutation in the androgen receptor (AR) gene.Renders the AR inactive

382
Q

Old age is more similar to obstructive or restrictive pattern of lung disease? […]

A

Old age is more similar to obstructive or restrictive pattern of lung disease? ObstructiveThe elastic recoil of the lungs is slightly decreased.

383
Q

[…] acts by binding to activated lymphocyte IL-2 receptor alpha chains, antagonizing IL-2.

A

Daclizumab acts by binding to activated lymphocyte IL-2 receptor alpha chains, antagonizing IL-2.

384
Q

[…] is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a defective neutral amino acid transport.

A

Hartnup disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a defective neutral amino acid transport.Presents with pellagra-like skin eruptions, cerebellar ataxia, and aminoaciduria

385
Q

Glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency = […]

A

Glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency = Von Gierke’sHypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia, short stature

386
Q

[…] is useful to destroy the luminal stages of Entamoeba histolytica.

A

Iodoquinol is useful to destroy the luminal stages of Entamoeba histolytica.

387
Q

Woolsorter’s disease = […]

A

Woolsorter’s disease = inhalational anthraxNaturally-acquired anthrax… maximum spore formation occurs during the stationary phase, when cell growth ceases because of a developing lack of nutrients or accumulation of toxins.

388
Q

[…] is the neurotransmitter of primary important for the induction of REM sleep.

A

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter of primary important for the induction of REM sleep.Other neurotransmitters do function in sleep, but REM sleep can occur in their absence.

389
Q

[…] tends to cause a shift of potassium from the intracellular compartment to the extracellular fluid.

A

Metabolic acidosis tends to cause a shift of potassium from the intracellular compartment to the extracellular fluid.This increases a plasma potassium concentration and, along with other effects of chronic acidosis, causes increased urinary potassium extrection –> progressive depletion of Ca2+ from the body

390
Q

Metabolic acidosis tends to cause a shift of […] from the intracellular compartment to the extracellular fluid.

A

Metabolic acidosis tends to cause a shift of potassium from the intracellular compartment to the extracellular fluid.This increases a plasma potassium concentration and, along with other effects of chronic acidosis, causes increased urinary potassium extrection –> progressive depletion of Ca2+ from the body

391
Q

Cofactors and coenzymes used by pyruvate dehydrogenase include […], lipoic acid, coenzyme A, FAD(H2), and NAD(H).

A

Cofactors and coenzymes used by pyruvate dehydrogenase include thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), lipoic acid, coenzyme A, FAD(H2), and NAD(H).

392
Q

Cofactors and coenzymes used by […] include thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), lipoic acid, coenzyme A, FAD(H2), and NAD(H).

A

Cofactors and coenzymes used by pyruvate dehydrogenase include thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), lipoic acid, coenzyme A, FAD(H2), and NAD(H).

393
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA. Its cofactor is […].

A

Pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA. Its cofactor is biotin.Considerable allelic heterogeneity in pyruvate carboxylase deficiency -> three major subtypes (A: neonatal onset, B: severe neonatal onset, C: benign)

394
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase is activated by […]. Its cofactor is biotin.

A

Pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA. Its cofactor is biotin.Considerable allelic heterogeneity in pyruvate carboxylase deficiency -> three major subtypes (A: neonatal onset, B: severe neonatal onset, C: benign)

395
Q

[…] is activated by acetyl-CoA. Its cofactor is biotin.

A

Pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA. Its cofactor is biotin.Considerable allelic heterogeneity in pyruvate carboxylase deficiency -> three major subtypes (A: neonatal onset, B: severe neonatal onset, C: benign)

396
Q

Erb palsy occurs as a result of damage to the […].

A

Erb palsy occurs as a result of damage to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus.C5/C6… usually heals within the first few months of life

397
Q

Flapping hands, chewing on hands, delayed social/motor/language skills, long narrow face, large ears, flat feet = […]

A

Flapping hands, chewing on hands, delayed social/motor/language skills, long narrow face, large ears, flat feet = Fragile XMost common heritable cause of mental retardation

398
Q

The […] are negative-sense RNA viruses that spread from cell to cell by syncytia formation.

A

The paramyxoviruses are negative-sense RNA viruses that spread from cell to cell by syncytia formation.Protects from exposure to substances that exist extracellularly (e.g. antibodies) –> cell-mediated immunity is essential for recovery

399
Q

The paramyxoviruses are negative-sense RNA viruses that spread from cell to cell by […].

A

The paramyxoviruses are negative-sense RNA viruses that spread from cell to cell by syncytia formation.Protects from exposure to substances that exist extracellularly (e.g. antibodies) –> cell-mediated immunity is essential for recovery

400
Q

Hereditary sensory motor neuropathy type I = […]

A

Hereditary sensory motor neuropathy type I = Charcot-Marie-Tooth diseaseMost common inherited neuropathy, results from a mutation in genes expressed with Schwann cells –> demyelination of peripheral nerves

401
Q

One of the most commonly affected nerves in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is the […] nerve.

A

One of the most commonly affected nerves in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is the deep peroneal nerve.Damage –> foot drop

402
Q

[…] is likely to potentiate the effects of theophylline.

A

Erythromycin is likely to potentiate the effects of theophylline.Theophylline is extensively metabolized by the CYP450 system in the liver.

403
Q

In children, […] is 15 times more likely to cause serum sickness than other cephalosporins or amoxicillin.

A

In children, cefaclor is 15 times more likely to cause serum sickness than other cephalosporins or amoxicillin.Other meds associated with serum sickness include cephs/penicillins, TMP-SMX, and cipro.

404
Q

Campylobacter jejuni usually comes from contaminated […].

A

Campylobacter jejuni usually comes from contaminated poultry.Microaerophilic, oxidase-positive, gram-negative, curved rod with polar flagella

405
Q

The Hib vaccine is composed of the […] coupled to a protein carrier molecule: diphtheria toxoid.

A

The Hib vaccine is composed of the polyribitol phosphate polysaccharides coupled to a protein carrier molecule: diphtheria toxoid.Given to children between 2 and 15 months of age

406
Q

The Hib vaccine is composed of the polyribitol phosphate polysaccharides coupled to a protein carrier molecule: […].

A

The Hib vaccine is composed of the polyribitol phosphate polysaccharides coupled to a protein carrier molecule: diphtheria toxoid.Given to children between 2 and 15 months of age

407
Q

Constriction of […] is most important for minimizing the decrease in mean systemic filling pressure caused by blood loss.

A

Constriction of venules and veins is most important for minimizing the decrease in mean systemic filling pressure caused by blood loss.

408
Q

Constriction of venules and veins is most important for minimizing the decrease in […] caused by blood loss.

A

Constriction of venules and veins is most important for minimizing the decrease in mean systemic filling pressure caused by blood loss.

409
Q

[…] are superficial fascial layers composed of fatty and membranous tissue, respectively.

A

Camper fascia and Scarpa fascia are superficial fascial layers composed of fatty and membranous tissue, respectively.

410
Q

Withdrawal of barbituates, alcohol, phenothiazines, and MAOIs can lead to […].

A

Withdrawal of barbituates, alcohol, phenothiazines, and MAOIs can lead to REM rebound.All of these drugs decrease the amount of REM sleep while the patient is taking them… withdrawal then allows the body to compensate for “missed” REM sleep –> rebound

411
Q

Nerve that supplies anterior half of the external ear canal (including tragus) = […]

A

Nerve that supplies anterior half of the external ear canal (including tragus) = auriculotemporal nerve

412
Q

Nerve that supplies the posterior half of the external ear canal = […]

A

Nerve that supplies the posterior half of the external ear canal = auricular branch of the vagus nerve

413
Q

Nerve that supplies the lower part of the auricle = […]

A

Nerve that supplies the lower part of the auricle = greater auricular nerve

414
Q

Nerve that supplies the upper part of the auricle = […]

A

Nerve that supplies the upper part of the auricle = lesser occipital nerve

415
Q

The first electrolyte abnormality caused by salicylate toxicity is […].

A

The first electrolyte abnormality caused by salicylate toxicity is respiratory alkalosis.Directly stimulating the respiratory center in the brainstem and causing centrally mediated hyperventilation and hyperpnea —> then leads to lactic acidosis / elevated anion gap

416
Q

About 60% of brain abscesses are related to […].

A

About 60% of brain abscesses are related to otitis media.Cerebellar abscess is specifically associated with otitis media.Brain abscess can also be caused by bacteremia after tooth extraction, bacterial meningitis, lung abscess, and sinusitis – but these are less common.Most common bacteria are S. pneumo (40%) and H. flu (25-30%).

417
Q

A resistance transfer factor is a bacterial plasmid that encodes one or more drug-resistance genes and has the capability of mediating its own transfer to another bacterium during conjugation (it posesses the […] operon).

A

A resistance transfer factor is a bacterial plasmid that encodes one or more drug-resistance genes and has the capability of mediating its own transfer to another bacterium during conjugation (it posesses the tra operon).Rectangular blocks from diagram = representations of points at which transposons have inserted their mobile DNA via site-specific recombination

418
Q

A […] is a bacterial plasmid that encodes one or more drug-resistance genes and has the capability of mediating its own transfer to another bacterium during conjugation (it posesses the tra operon).

A

A resistance transfer factor is a bacterial plasmid that encodes one or more drug-resistance genes and has the capability of mediating its own transfer to another bacterium during conjugation (it posesses the tra operon).Rectangular blocks from diagram = representations of points at which transposons have inserted their mobile DNA via site-specific recombination

419
Q

When the […] is torn during a fracture, it supplies cells that develop into osteoblasts and are the major producers of the new bones that reunites the two ends.

A

When the periosteum is torn during a fracture, it supplies cells that develop into osteoblasts and are the major producers of the new bones that reunites the two ends.If some of the osteoblastic cells are misdirected into adjacent tissues, heterotopic ossification can occur as a complication of fracture.

420
Q

The primary mechanism of action of […] is gaining entrance to dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin nerve terminals, causing the release of these neurotransmitters via the uptake carriers.

A

The primary mechanism of action of methamphetamine is gaining entrance to dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin nerve terminals, causing the release of these neurotransmitters via the uptake carriers.

421
Q

[…] is believed to play an important role in the reward system of the brain, and is thought to be a significant factor in the reinforcing effects of stimulants.

A

Dopamine is believed to play an important role in the reward system of the brain, and is thought to be a significant factor in the reinforcing effects of stimulants.

422
Q

The […] contain about 64% of the total blood volume.

A

The systemic veins contain about 64% of the total blood volume.3200 / 5000 mLThe supine posture at rest is typically used as the basal state for comparisons.

423
Q

[…] is a calcimimetic agent that increases the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR) on chief cells of the parathyroid gland to extracellular Ca2+.

A

Cinacalcet is a calcimimetic agent that increases the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR) on chief cells of the parathyroid gland to extracellular Ca2+.Causes a reduction in PTH – indicated for the management of secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with chronic kidney disease // patients with hypercalcemia secondary to parathyroid carcinoma

424
Q

In a […], there is no myocardiuum or endocardium – only scar tissue.

A

In a ventricular pseudoaneurysm, there is no myocardiuum or endocardium – only scar tissue.Urgent surgery required because cardiac rupture is imminent.

425
Q

[…] is the most common cause of death in patients with ventricular aneurysms.

A

Left-sided CHF is the most common cause of death in patients with ventricular aneurysms.CHF results from akineses or dyskinesis of the aneurysm –> diminished stroke volumeAkinesis = poor contractility of scarred myocardiumDyskinesis = paradoxical ballooning of the aneurysm during systolic contraction

426
Q

Three forms of penile squamous carcinoma in situ = […], Bowenoid papulosis, erythroplasia of Queyrat

A

Three forms of penile squamous carcinoma in situ = Bowen disease, Bowenoid papulosis, erythroplasia of QueyratBowenoid papulosis = multiple reddish-brown papular lesionsQueyrat = single or multiple shiny red plaquesBowen disease can affect the genital region of both men and women

427
Q

Three forms of penile squamous carcinoma in situ = Bowen disease, […], erythroplasia of Queyrat

A

Three forms of penile squamous carcinoma in situ = Bowen disease, Bowenoid papulosis, erythroplasia of QueyratBowenoid papulosis = multiple reddish-brown papular lesionsQueyrat = single or multiple shiny red plaquesBowen disease can affect the genital region of both men and women

428
Q

Three forms of penile squamous carcinoma in situ = Bowen disease, Bowenoid papulosis, […]

A

Three forms of penile squamous carcinoma in situ = Bowen disease, Bowenoid papulosis, erythroplasia of QueyratBowenoid papulosis = multiple reddish-brown papular lesionsQueyrat = single or multiple shiny red plaquesBowen disease can affect the genital region of both men and women

429
Q

Untreated Bowen disease will, over a period of years, progress to frank invasive carcinoma in […]% of patients.

A

Untreated Bowen disease will, over a period of years, progress to frank invasive carcinoma in 10-20% of patients.

430
Q

The […] is the part of the lesser omentum that spans between the inferior surface of the liver and the lesser curvature of the stomach.

A

The gastrohepatic ligament is the part of the lesser omentum that spans between the inferior surface of the liver and the lesser curvature of the stomach.No significant blood vessels except for the right and left gastric arteries, which are immediately next to the lesser curvature

431
Q

[…] are the most commonly used initial agents in symptomatic patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

A

Beta-blockers are the most commonly used initial agents in symptomatic patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.Slow heart rate to improve diastolic filling – prevent dyspnea, angina, and arrhythmias in about 50% of patients

432
Q

[…] is a common cause of Addison disease next to autoimmune disease and tumor metastasis.

A

TB is a common cause of Addison disease next to autoimmune disease and tumor metastasis.

433
Q

Iron or vitamin B12/folate deficiency can reuslt in falsely […] HbA1c values.

A

Iron or vitamin B12/folate deficiency can reuslt in falsely high HbA1c values.There is a disproportionate number of older red cells, resulting in a falsely elevated value.

434
Q

CML typically presents with markedly increased numbers of circulating neutrophils and metamyelocytes, with lesser numbers of eosinophils and basophils and a small number of […].

A

CML typically presents with markedly increased numbers of circulating neutrophils and metamyelocytes, with lesser numbers of eosinophils and basophils and a small number of blasts.

435
Q

CML typically presents with markedly increased numbers of circulating neutrophils and metamyelocytes, with lesser numbers of […] and a small number of blasts.

A

CML typically presents with markedly increased numbers of circulating neutrophils and metamyelocytes, with lesser numbers of eosinophils and basophils and a small number of blasts.

436
Q

CML typically presents with markedly increased numbers of circulating […], with lesser numbers of eosinophils and basophils and a small number of blasts.

A

CML typically presents with markedly increased numbers of circulating neutrophils and metamyelocytes, with lesser numbers of eosinophils and basophils and a small number of blasts.

437
Q

The use of superoxide dismutase and other free radical scavengers with […] can help prevent reperfusion injury.

A

The use of superoxide dismutase and other free radical scavengers with thrombolytics can help prevent reperfusion injury.

438
Q

[…] is used in cases of uncomplicated chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum, when resistance in unknown, when malaria species in unknown, and when patients cannot tolerate chloroquine.

A

Atovaquone/proguanil is used in cases of uncomplicated chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum, when resistance in unknown, when malaria species in unknown, and when patients cannot tolerate chloroquine.

439
Q

Although CFTR is an ion channel that allows chloride flow down its concentration gradient, it is gated by […] and involves regulation by protein kinase A phosphorylation.

A

Although CFTR is an ion channel that allows chloride flow down its concentration gradient, it is gated by ATP hydrolysis and involves regulation by protein kinase A phosphorylation.

440
Q

CNS tumors in order of frequency:

[…] –> astrocytomas –> meningioma –> pituitary tumor

A

CNS tumors in order of frequency:

Metastases –> astrocytomas –> meningioma –> pituitary tumorAstrocytomas include glioblastoma

441
Q

CNS tumors in order of frequency:Metastases –> […] –> meningioma –> pituitary tumor

A

CNS tumors in order of frequency:Metastases –> astrocytomas –> meningioma –> pituitary tumorAstrocytomas include glioblastoma

442
Q

CNS tumors in order of frequency:Metastases –> astrocytomas –> […] –> pituitary tumor

A

CNS tumors in order of frequency:Metastases –> astrocytomas –> meningioma –> pituitary tumorAstrocytomas include glioblastoma

443
Q

CNS tumors in order of frequency:Metastases –> astrocytomas –> meningioma –> […]

A

CNS tumors in order of frequency:Metastases –> astrocytomas –> meningioma –> pituitary tumor
Astrocytomas include glioblastoma

444
Q

The most important constituent of surfactant is […].

A

The most important constituent of surfactant is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC).Formed when a DAG condenses with phosphated choline derived from CDP-cholineOther constituents of surfactant include phosphatidylglycerol, apoproteins, and cholesterol.

445
Q

The most important constituent of […] is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC).

A

The most important constituent of surfactant is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC).Formed when a DAG condenses with phosphated choline derived from CDP-cholineOther constituents of surfactant include phosphatidylglycerol, apoproteins, and cholesterol.

446
Q

Stage […] sleep almost vanish in the elderly.

A

Stage 4, and then stage 3 NREM (slow wave) sleep almost vanish in the elderly.REM percentage remains constant (20%) up to around 80 years of age, then declines further.

447
Q

Sickle cell is caused by a point mutation that substitutes a […] for a glutamate.

A

Sickle cell is caused by a point mutation that substitutes a valine for a glutamate.At 6th position of the beta-globin chain–> HbS

448
Q

Sickle cell is caused by a point mutation that substitutes a valine for a […].

A

Sickle cell is caused by a point mutation that substitutes a valine for a glutamate.At 6th position of the beta-globin chain–> HbS

449
Q

The action of the […] is to ADduct and internally rotate the humerus.

A

The action of the pectoralis major is to ADduct and internally rotate the humerus.Pec major attaches to the lateral lip of the intertubercular groove of the humerus.The DELTOID acts to ABduct the humerus.

450
Q

Excess production of […] can increase circulating glucose levels in the mother during pregnancy.

A

Excess production of hGH can increase circulating glucose levels in the mother during pregnancy.

451
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by defective or absent […] on liver cells.

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by defective or absent LDL receptors on liver cells.Autosomal dominant

452
Q

The cystic artery is (usually) a branch of the […] artery.

A

The cystic artery is (usually) a branch of the right hepatic artery.Right hepatic artery is a branch of the proper hepatic artery.

453
Q

Most cases of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) are due to […].

A

Most cases of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) are due to anovulatory cycles.Anovulatory cycles = endometrium undergoes unopposed estrogenic stimulation

454
Q

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:[…]RCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

A

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

455
Q

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCC[…]HemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

A

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

456
Q

The five tumors most commonly associated with […] are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

A

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

457
Q

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCC[…]PheochromocytomaUterine myomata

A

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

458
Q

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastoma[…]Uterine myomata

A

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

459
Q

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytoma[…]

A

The five tumors most commonly associated with the overproduction of EPO are:HCCRCCHemangioblastomaPheochromocytomaUterine myomata

460
Q

Werdnig-Hoffman disease is a disease of the […] cells.

A

Werdnig-Hoffman disease is a disease of the anterior horn cells.An example of a lower motor neuron disease

461
Q

Removal of an organ causes […] to increase and cardiac output to decrease.

A

Removal of an organ causes total peripheral resistance to increase and cardiac output to decrease.Removing a kidney –> blood pressure stabilizes near normal, though risk of future HTN is moderately increased

462
Q

Removal of an organ causes total peripheral resistance to increase and […] to decrease.

A

Removal of an organ causes total peripheral resistance to increase and cardiac output to decrease.Removing a kidney –> blood pressure stabilizes near normal, though risk of future HTN is moderately increased

463
Q

Hfr cells transfer […] DNA via conjugation.

A

Hfr cells transfer chromosomal DNA via conjugation.Not plasma DNAThis means that the exchange is never complete, and only some genes can be successfully transferred in each conjugative event.

464
Q

[…] are iron-containing, dark-blue granules found in Wright-stained red cells in patients with sideroblastic anemia.

A

Pappenheimer bodies are iron-containing, dark-blue granules found in Wright-stained red cells in patients with sideroblastic anemia.

465
Q

Hemoglobin crystals may be seen in […] disease.

A

Hemoglobin crystals may be seen in hemoglobin C or hemoglobin SC disease.These crystals are often hexagonal or rhomboid in shape.

466
Q

The underlying lesion in […] is an inappropriate proliferation of vessels in the inner layers of the retina.

A

The underlying lesion in retinopathy of prematurity is an inappropriate proliferation of vessels in the inner layers of the retina.Retinopathy of prematurity formerly known as retrolental fibroplasia

467
Q

[…] can develop an appearance of mature thyroid tissue, which is termed struma ovarii.

A

Monodermal teratomas can develop an appearance of mature thyroid tissue, which is termed struma ovarii.

468
Q

Monodermal teratomas can develop an appearance of mature thyroid tissue, which is termed […].

A

Monodermal teratomas can develop an appearance of mature thyroid tissue, which is termed struma ovarii.

469
Q

[…] clinically resembles pellagra (niacin deficiency).

A

Hartnup disease clinically resembles pellagra (niacin deficiency).In fact, niacin therapy may be helpful in controlling the symptoms.Hartnup disease = defect in the epithelial transport of neutral amino acids, including tryptophan, which can act as a precursor of niacin

470
Q

Subcutaneous […] nodules are composed histologically of areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epotheliod cells.

A

Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules are composed histologically of areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epotheliod cells.

471
Q

Herpes encephalitis characteristically involves the […] and the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes.

A

Herpes encephalitis characteristically involves the temporal lobes and the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes.

472
Q

Herpes encephalitis characteristically involves the temporal lobes and the […].

A

Herpes encephalitis characteristically involves the temporal lobes and the orbital surfaces of the frontal lobes.

473
Q

In multiple myeloma, […] are due to the accumulation of immunoglobulin in plasma cells.

A

In multiple myeloma, Russell bodies are due to the accumulation of immunoglobulin in plasma cells.

474
Q

The RS cells of the mixed cellularity type of Hodgkin disease express […], a lymphoid activation antigen.

A

The RS cells of the mixed cellularity type of Hodgkin disease express CD30, a lymphoid activation antigen.CD15, a granulocyte antigen, is also uniformly positive in RS cells.

475
Q

DIC can produce thrombosis in many renal vessels and cause diminished vascular perfusion, leading to […] necrosis.

A

DIC can produce thrombosis in many renal vessels and cause diminished vascular perfusion, leading to diffuse cortical necrosis.Obstetric emergencies are another frequent cause of diffuse cortical necrosis.Massive cortical necrosis can lead to sudden anuria and can rapidly cause uremic death.

476
Q

Of the various types of breast adenocarcinoma, […] is by far the most common variant.

A

Of the various types of breast adenocarcinoma, invasive ductal carcinoma is by far the most common variant.75-80% of all invasive breast carcinomas

477
Q

Aneurysm of the posterior cerebral artery, superior cerebellar artery, or basilar artery may compress the […].

A

Aneurysm of the posterior cerebral artery, superior cerebellar artery, or basilar artery may compress the oculomotor nerve (CN III).

478
Q

Recurrent infection with S. aureus and Aspergillus sp. suggests a diagnosis of […].

A

Recurrent infection with S. aureus and Aspergillus sp. suggests a diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD).Also Nocardia, Salmonella, and Candida

479
Q

The mechanism of hyperkalemia in chronic renal insufficiency is deficient […].

A

The mechanism of hyperkalemia in chronic renal insufficiency is deficient renin production.Treatment can be either with a mineralocorticoid (e.g. fludrocortisone) or with a potassium-wasting diuretic (e.g. furosemide).

480
Q

In general, you should associate […] with defects in glycolysis or the hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate pathway).

A

In general, you should associate primary hemolytic anemia with defects in glycolysis or the hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate pathway).

481
Q

Beta-D-glucosidase = […]

A

Beta-D-glucosidase = glucocerebrosidaseGaucher disease

482
Q

ITP is distinguished from microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and TTP by the absence of […].

A

ITP is distinguished from microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and TTP by the absence of fragmented red cells.

483
Q

[…] arises from a mutation in ATP7A, which encodes an ATP-dependent copper efflux protein in the intestine.

A

Menkes disease arises from a mutation in ATP7A, which encodes an ATP-dependent copper efflux protein in the intestine.Also known as “kinky hair disease” – Sx include kinky, depigmented hair and a number of vascular, neuro, facial, and ocular manifestations (interferes with collagen production by lysyl oxidase)

484
Q

[…] may be a “visible” manifestation of von Hippel-Lindau disease.

A

Retinal angioma may be a “visible” manifestation of von Hippel-Lindau disease.Autosomal dominant

485
Q

Acetazolamide causes acidosis through inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, rapidly increasing urinary […] to approximately 35% of filtered load.

A

Acetazolamide causes acidosis through inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, rapidly increasing urinary HCO3- excretion to approximately 35% of filtered load.

486
Q

[…] is the most common non-glial brain tumor of children.

A

Craniopharyngioma is the most common non-glial brain tumor of children.From Rathke’s pouchCan resemble ameloblastomas, which are tumors derived from dental epithelium

487
Q

In complete (third-degree) heart block, […] decreases and pulse pressure / stroke volume increases.

A

In complete (third-degree) heart block, heart rate decreases and pulse pressure / stroke volume increases.

488
Q

In complete (third-degree) heart block, heart rate decreases and […] increases.

A

In complete (third-degree) heart block, heart rate decreases and pulse pressure / stroke volume increases.

489
Q

The hypophysis (which lies in the sella turcica) can be approached transnasally through the […] sinus.

A

The hypophysis (which lies in the sella turcica) can be approached transnasally through the sphenoid sinus.

490
Q

The buccinator is innervated by […].

A

The buccinator is innervated by CN VII.

491
Q

Hydrothorax + ascites + ovarian tumor = […]

A

Hydrothorax + ascites + ovarian tumor = Meigs syndromeThe ovarian tumor is often a benign fibroma.

492
Q

In patients over 40 years of age, the appearance of […] strongly suggests CHF.

A

In patients over 40 years of age, the appearance of a third heard sound strongly suggests CHF.It also occurs in patients with AV valve incompetence and can be a normal finding in some young athletes.

493
Q

In patients over 40 years of age, the appearance of a third heard sound strongly suggests […].

A

In patients over 40 years of age, the appearance of a third heard sound strongly suggests CHF.It also occurs in patients with AV valve incompetence and can be a normal finding in some young athletes.

494
Q

SSRIs are the treatment of choice for OCD; however, the TCA […] is generally used in the treatment of OCD unresponsive to an SSRI.

A

SSRIs are the treatment of choice for OCD; however, the TCA clomipramine is generally used in the treatment of OCD unresponsive to an SSRI.

495
Q

Total body water = […]

A

Total body water = 60% body weight (kg)

496
Q

[…] = 60% body weight (kg)

A

Total body water = 60% body weight (kg)

497
Q

“Fundoscopic exam shows multiple small white spots surrounded by hemorrhage bilaterally” = […]

A

“Fundoscopic exam shows multiple small white spots surrounded by hemorrhage bilaterally” = Roth’s spotsAreas of retinal ischemia most commonly due to emboli from bacterial endocarditis

498
Q

Duchenne’s affects which first: proximal / distal? Lower / upper extremity? […]

A

Duchenne’s affects which first: proximal / distal? Lower / upper extremity? Proximal, lower extremityAround hip joint

499
Q

[…] is a copper-chelating agent (not penicillamine).

A

Trietine is a copper-chelating agent (not penicillamine).Approx. 30% of patients do not tolerate long-term penicillamine therapy as a result of side effects… also may not be the drug of choice for patients with neuro sx

500
Q

With SIADH, urinary sodium is usually […].

A

With SIADH, urinary sodium is usually increased.+ increased plasma ADH, increased plasma ANP, decreased renin secretion / plasma aldosteroneDecreased aldosterone allows for increased renal excretion of sodium

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