Kaplan '13

Question 1

how many hours do you have to complete the exam?

Answer 1

6, this includes the beginning tutorial an optional 10 min break after the first 2 hrs of testing and an optional break after an additional 90 min of testing.

Question 2

How many questions are there?

Answer 2

min of 75 and a max of 265

Question 3

how many questions are experimental?

Answer 3

15, regardless of the number of questions you answer. Your answers do not count for or against you (they are indistinguishable though).

Question 4

The test ends when…

Answer 4

you either have demonstrated min competency and answered the min number of questions (75), you have demonstrated a lack of min competency and answered the min amt of questions (75), you have answered the max number of quetsions or you have used the max time allowed

Question 5

how is the test broken down?

Answer 5

1. 20% is management of care (advance directives, advocacy, case management, client rights, collaboration with interdisciplinary team, concepts of management, confidentiality/information security, consultation, continuity of care, delegation, establishing priorities, ethical practice, info technology, informed consent, legal rights and responsibilities, performace improvement or quality improvement, referrals, supervision)
   2, 12% is Safety and infection control
   (accident/injury prevention, emergency response plan, ergonomic principles, error prevention, handling hazardous and infectious materials home safety, reporting of incident or event or irregular occurrence or variance, safe use of equipment, security plan, standard precautions or transmission-based or surgical asepsis, use of restraints or safety devices)
2. 9% Health Promotion and Maintenance
   (aging process, ante/intra/postpartum and newborn care, developmental stages and transitions,health and wellness, health promotion or disease prevention, health screening, high-risk behaviors, lifestyle choices, principles of teaching/learning, self-care, techniques of physical assessment)

Question 6

how is the test broken down? cont.

Answer 6

4. psychological integrity
   (abuse/neglect, behavioral interventions, chemical and other dependencies, coping mechanisms, crisis intervention, cultural diversity, end of life care, family dynamics, grief and loss, mental health concepts, religious and spiritual influences on health, sensory/perceptual alterations, stress management, support systems, therapeutic communication, therapeutic environment)
5. basic care and comfort 9%
   (assistive devices, elimination, mobility/immobility, non-pharm comfort intervention, nutritiona nd oral hydration, personal hygiene, rest and sleep)
6. pharm and parental therapies (15%)
   (adverse effects/contraindications/side effects/interactions, blood and blood products, central venous assess devices, dosage calculations, exprected action/outcomes, med administration, parenteral/IV therapies, pharm pain management, total parenteral nutrition)

Question 7

how is the test broken down? cont.

Answer 7

7. Reduction of risk potential 12%
   (changes/abnormalities in vital signs, diagnositic tests, lab values, potential for alterations in body systems, potential for complications of diagnostic tests/treatments/procedures, potential for complications from surgical procedures and health alterations, system specific assessments, therapeutic procedures)
8. physiological adaptation 13%
   (alterations in body systems, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, hemodynamics, illness management, medical emergencies, pathophysiology, unexpected response to therapies)
9. The nursing process
   ( assessment, analysis, planning, implementation, evaluation)
   10, caring, communication and documentation, teaching and learning principles, questions that contain graphic images

Question 8

……………p 62

Answer 8

….

Question 9

levels of hematocrit

Answer 9

42 to 50% male

40 to 48% female

Question 10

urine specific gravity

Answer 10

1.010 - 1.030

Question 11

decline was dehydrated the specific gravity of the hematocrit become

Answer 11

increased

Question 12

will arrange for PTT

Answer 12

20- 45 seconds
the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin anticoagulant is 1.5 - 2 timeouts the control or normal level. To calculate the therapeutic range take the lower number written on a range for a PTT which is 20 and multiply it by 1.5 and the result is 30. Then multiply the high number which is 45 by 2 and the results is the so the therapeutic range is 30-90. If a PTT reading is between those points of medication is needed

Question 13

in order to help you establish priorities, exam

Answer 13

know maslow strategy, nursing process strategy, and safety strategy

Question 14

maslow strategy

Answer 14

five levels of human means such as physiological, safety or security, love and belonging, esteem, and self actualization

Question 15

maslow

physiological needs

Answer 15

they are necessary for survival and have highest priority and must be met first. They include oxygen, fluid, nutrition, temperature, elimination, shelter, rest, and sex.

Question 16

maslow

safety and security needs

Answer 16

Kanebo physical and psychosocial. Physical safety includes decreasing what is frightening to the client which may be an illness such as a myocardial infarction, an accident such as appearing transporting newborn in a car without a car seat, or an environmental threat such as a client with COPD who insists on walking outside and very cold temperatures
to attain psychological safety the client must have the knowledge and understanding about what to expect from others in their environment so it is important to teach the client and the only what to expect after a stroke or that you allow the one preparing for a mastectomy to verbalize her concerns about changes that might occur in her relationship with her partner

Question 17

maslow

love and belonging

Answer 17

the claims to feel loved by family and accepted by others. When they feel self-confident and useful they will achieve the need of self-esteem as described by maslow

Question 18

maslow

self-actualization

Answer 18

highest level of need. To achieve this level of the client must experience fulfillment and recognize his or her potential. In order for self-actualization to occur all of the lower-level needs must be met many people may never achieve this high level of functioning

Question 19

when working with maslow you’ll notice that the physical and psychosocial interventions are included

Answer 19

try to apply the ABCs first

Question 20

according to maslow, pain is

Answer 20

psychosocial and so is emotional support

Question 21

with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, respiratory therapy is

Answer 21

not needed. They need fluid replacement because the client has extensive bleeding into the abdominal cavity due to a ruptured fallopian tube

Question 22

when working with maslow

Answer 22

psychological answer more important than psychosocial

Question 23

nursing process strategy: assessment versus implementation

Answer 23

assessment is the first step of the nursing process and takes priority over all understand. It is essential that you complete the assessment phase of the nursing process before you implement nursing activities. For example when performing CPR, if you do not access the airway before performing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation your actions may be harmful

Question 24

the nursing process strategy

dependent interventions are based on the breadth orders of a physician

Answer 24

on the exam, you should assume that you have in order for all dependent intervention that are included in the answer choices

Question 25

interdependent interventions

Answer 25

are shared with other members of the healthcare team. For example, nutrition education may be shared with the dietitian and chest physiotherapy may be shared with a respiratory therapist

Question 26

if the answer choices are a mix of assessment or validation and implementation

Answer 26

use the nursing process strategy

Question 27

lookup the somogyi effect

Answer 27

because rebound hyperglycemia that occurs in response to a rapid decrease in blood glucose during. Treatment includes adjusting the evening diet, changing the Windows, and altering the amount of exercise to prevent nocturnal hypoglycemia

Question 28

safety strategy

Answer 28

includes clients in healthcare facilities, in the home, at work, and in the community. Safety includes meeting basic needs such as oxygen, food, fluids, etc.; reducing observed that cause injury to clients such as accident, opticals in the home; and decreasing the transmission of pathogens such as immunization and sanitation

Question 29

when answering questions about procedures

Answer 29

the safety strategy will help you to establish priorities. All answers must be implementation. Try to answer based on knowledge that if you can’t think about what will cause the client the least amount of harm

Question 30

safety strategy

Answer 30

minimizing crying will help prevent bleeding
Postural drainage may cause bleeding
coughing and deep breathing because leaving
giving ice cream to a child with a tonsillectomy may cause the child to clear his throat which causes bleeding

the nurse must prevent postoperative hemorrhage which is a complication seen after a tonsillectomy. Crying with your tape a child’s throat and increase the chance of hemorrhage.

Question 31

before selecting to contact the physician

Answer 31

the examiner wants to know what you were going to do in a situation not the physician!

Question 32

breathlessness should only be checked in and unconscious client

Answer 32

when you know that someone is choking ask them are you choking because the inability to speak or cough indicates the airway is obstructed. This is assessment

Question 33

rules of management

Answer 33

do not delegate assessment, teaching, evaluation, or nursing judgment. Delegate care for stable patients with expected outcomes. Delegate tasks that involve standard, unchanging procedures such as AV, feeding, dressing, and transferring clients. Remember priorities such as maslow, ABC’s, and stable versus unstable when determining which client enters should attend to first

Question 34

remember, nursing them and businesses place providing care to clients according to hell nursing care is defined in textbooks and journals

Answer 34

nurses supposed to care for the child or. While delegating tasks to the nursing assistant

Question 35

strategies for positioning questions
immobility occurs when a client is unable to move about freely and independently. To answer questions on positioning, you need to know the hazards of immobility, normal anatomy, physiology, and the terminology for positioning

Answer 35

questions to ask are; are you trying to prevent or promote? what are you trying to prevent or promote? shake anatomy and physiology

Question 36

the most serious and important complication after the percutaneous liver biopsy is

Answer 36

hemorrhage. What you do to prevent hemorrhage? Who apply pressure. Where’d you apply pressure? On the liver. Where is the liver? On the right side of the abdomen under the ribs. How should the client be positioned to prevent hemorrhage from the liver which is on the right side of the body? Right sideline

Question 37

by positioning the client after angiogram you are trying to promote something: adequate circulation of the right leg

Answer 37

what promotes adequate circulation of the right leg? Keeping the lag at or below the level of the heart the blood flow is not constricted. Supine with the leg extended is a good position because in this position the leg above the level of the heart and circulation will not be constricted because the leg is straight

Question 38

when turning the client after a laminectomy you are trying to promote a straight back because the client can’t bend or twist the torso. A laminectomy is the removal of one or more vertebral laminae so the back should be kept straight.

Answer 38

If the pillow is placed between the legs of the body is rolled as a unit the client back will be Straight

Question 39

flat or supine position

Answer 39

avoid hip flexion which can compress arterial flow

Question 40

dorsal recoumbent position

Answer 40

supine with knees flexed; more comfortable

Question 41

side of lateral position

Answer 41

allows drainage of oral secretions

Question 42

side with legs bent or Sam’s position

Answer 42

allows drainage of oral secretions and is used for rectal exams

Question 43

had elevated or Fowler’s position

Answer 43

increases venous return and allows maximal long expansion. I Fowler’s is 80-90 degrees
Fowlers is 45- 60
70 Fowlers is 30-45
low Fowlers is 15-30

Question 44

feet and leg elevated position

Answer 44

increases blood return to heart

Question 45

feet elevated and had lowered or Trendelenburg position

Answer 45

used to insert central venous pressure line or for treatment of umbilical cord compression

Question 46

seed elevated 20°, these straight, trunk flat, and head slightly elevated or modified Trendelenburg position

Answer 46

increases venous return and is used for shock and may be used to prevent shock

Question 47

elevation of extremity position

Answer 47

increases venous return and decreases blood volume to extremity

Question 48

flat on back, thighs flexed, legs abducted or lithotomy position

Answer 48

increases vaginal opening for examination

Question 49

prone position

Answer 49

promotes extension of hip joint; not well tolerated by persons with respiratory or cardiovascular difficulties

Question 50

knee to chest position

Answer 50

provide maximal visualization of rectal area

Question 51

strategies for communication questions

Answer 51

using silence allows the client time to think and reflect; conveys acceptance. Allows the client to take the lead in conversation
using general leave or broad opening encourages the client to talk. Indicate your interest in the client. Allows the client to choose the subject
clarification encourages recall and details of a particular experience. Encourages descriptions of feelings, seek explanation, and pinpoints specific
reflecting paraphrases what the client says. Reflects on what the client says, especially the feelings conveyed

Question 52

when selecting the best communication answer

Answer 52

eliminate don’t worry, explore answers, why, authoritarian answers, focus on the nurse answers, and close ended questions. These should be avoided

Question 53

you actually want to avoid explore answers such as let’s talk about why you didn’t take your medication or tell me why you really injured yourself

Answer 53

the client must be allowed to verbalize the fact that he or she is sad, angry, fearful, or overwhelmed. It isn’t the nurse’s role to delve into the reasons why the client is feeling a particular way

Question 54

why questions imply disapproval of the client who may become defensive. Examples include what makes you think that and why do you feel this way

Answer 54

a white question can come in many forms and the response that puts the client on the defensive is not therapeutic and therefore incorrect

Question 55

authoritarian answers has no regard for the client desires or feelings

Answer 55

examples include insisting that the client followed unit rules or insisting that the client do what you command immediately

Question 56

nurse focused answers are answers in which the focus of the comment is on the nurse. Although they sound empathetic they are wrong. Focus of your communication should always be on the client

Answer 56

examples include that happened to me once or I know from experience this is hard for you

Question 57

the correct response will usually contain one or both of the following elements

Answer 57

gives correct information and is empathetic and reflects the clients feelings

Question 58

when getting correct information it encourages further communication with the client

Answer 58

examples are you experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and you may see and feel things that aren’t real or there are many reasons for memory loss, tell me more about what you have noticed

Question 59

empathy is the ability to perceive what another person experiences using the person’s frame of reference. Reflection communicates to the client that the nurse has heard and understands what the client is trying to communicate. When reflecting feelings the nurse focuses on the feelings and not the content of what is said

Answer 59

examples are I could see that you are frightened about being here or you seem very upset, tell me how you’re feeling

Question 60

when dealing with the client with psychological problems

Answer 60

you don’t want to encourage the client to talk about hallucinations or delusions. Rather you want your discussion to focus on the feelings that accompany them

Question 61

safe and effective care environment: management of care

Advance directives

Answer 61

an advance directive is a legal document that provides guidance to caregivers about the client wishes and are followed if the client decision-making powers become impaired. 1990 patient self-determination act requires that upon admission to hospital, long-term facilities, and of health agencies, patient should be informed that they have the right to accept or refuse medical care as well as to specify in advance through advanced directives with their wishes are.

Since the nurse, your role is to integrate advanced directives into the client care plan. So, evaluate client status regarding advance directives and help determine whether family members or significant others should be involved in conversation and decision-making. Provide the information as needed if they are not familiar with the details of the directives. Ensure that copies of advance directives are placed in the client’s medical record. This includes information on organ or tissue donation for clients over 18 years old. The uniform anatomical gift act governs organ donations for transplantation and how to donate one’s cadaver as an anatomical gift

Question 62

safe and effective care environment: management of care

Advocacy

Answer 62

promoting your clients rights and interests. Discuss treatment options including what the options are and how they work and what side effects may be so the client understands all available choices. You must respect client decisions even if you do not agree with them. When necessary use an interpreter or translator for non-English-speaking clients. Know when it is appropriate to engage others such as social workers on your client’s behalf

Question 63

safe and effective care environment: management of care

Case management

Answer 63

the individualized care plan you develop should be aimed at providing safe, cost-effective care for the client. The plan is based on your assessment of the client needs as well as goals such as providing self-care. You should also incorporate evidence-based research into the plan. You are expected to evaluate and revise the plan is needed. When the client leaves the hospital, provide the client with information on discharge procedures to home, hospice, or community living whatever is relevant to the client situation. This includes info about medications, follow-up visit, feature lab tests etc.

Question 64

safe and effective care environment: management of care

Client rights

Answer 64

the health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPPA) protects personal identifying information such as the client’s name, Social Security number, date of birth, and info about diagnosis and treatment. Such information should only be shared with individuals directly involved in the client’s care, the payment of care, for the management of the clients care.
The patient’s Bill of Rights is a statement about the rights to which individuals are entitled as recipients of healthcare, and the responsibilities. It covers information disclosure, choice of providers and plans, access to emergency services, participation in treatment decisions, confidentiality of health information, complaints and appeals, and consumer responsibilities.

Informed consent

Question 65

safe and effective care environment: management of care

collaboration with interdisciplinary teams

Answer 65

you should be ready to act as the point person to review the care plan and ensure continuity across disciplines and to collaborate with healthcare members in other disciplines to provide efficient and effective client care

Question 66

safe and effective care environment: management of care

concepts of management

Answer 66

apply the principles of conflict resolution as needed. Know-how to supervise care provided by others and know which staff members can perform particular procedures related to client care

Question 67

safe and effective care environment: management of care

confidentiality or information security

Answer 67

you may need to intervene when confidentiality is breached by other staff members. Will also be effective to assess staff members and your clients understanding of confidentiality requirements such as those covered by HIPAA

Question 68

safe and effective care environment: management of care

consultation

Answer 68

involve communicating with another nurse or health care professional such as a dietitian or pharmacist about an aspect of client care. Determine when a consultation is appropriate and then initiate such consultations as needed. Be able to identify the expected outcome of consultations and revise the care plan if the client needs change

Question 69

safe and effective care environment: management of care

continuity of care

Answer 69

the goal is to provide high-quality and cost-effective healthcare. Continuity of care is the process by which a client and healthcare providers are cooperatively involved in the ongoing healthcare management of the client. To help ensure continuity of care, know the proper procedures to admit, transfer, and discharge a client. You may need to follow up on unresolved issues regarding client care such as lab results and client request and provide report on assigned clients

Question 70

safe and effective care environment: management of care

delegation

Answer 70

it is your responsibility to make sure the person to whom you are delegating a task has the authority to do the job.
Make sure you have the right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction or communication ( has the nurse communicated appropriate instructions for accomplishing the task?) and right supervision ( will the delegating nurse remain responsible for the task and outcomes?)

Question 71

safe and effective care environment: management of care

establishing priorities

Answer 71

ABC's
Maslow
agency policies and procedures
time
client and family preferences
care related to client activity
priorities in medication therapy

The following problems indicate priority needs: postop clients just out of surgery, deteriorating status, signs of shock, allergic reactions, post diagnostic procedure clients that require temporary monitoring, clients complaining of unusual symptoms, client with malfunctioning equipment or tubing

Question 72

safe and effective care environment: management of care

ethical practice

Answer 72

be familiar with the ANA code of ethics for nurses and make sure you note the following ethical principles:
autonomy: the right of individuals to make decisions for themselves.
Beneficence: the nurses duty to do what is in the best interest of the client.
Justice: a fair equitable and appropriate treatment
nonmaleficence: the nurses duty to do no harm
Fidelity: keeping faithful to ethical principles and the ANA code of ethics for nurses
Virtues: compassion, trustworthiness, integrity, and verocity or truthfulness
CONFIDENTIALITY: maintaining the client’s privacy by not disclosing personal information about the client.
Accountability: responsibility for one’s actions

Question 73

safe and effective care environment: management of care

information technology

Answer 73

tele-health uses transitions the a telecommunications technology to transmit health information remotely. You should know how to use information technology to enhance the care provided to a client

Question 74

safe and effective care environment: management of care

informed consent

Answer 74

the components of informed consent includes an explanation of the following: details of the procedure or treatment, risks and benefits including potential for serious injury or death, alternative procedures or treatments, potential consequences of refusing treatment
the nurse’s role in the process is to advocate for the client by ensuring your she has been provided the necessary information to make an informed decision. In cases where the client does not speak English provide written materials in the native language if possible. Ensure that a client has actually given informed consent for treatment before that treatment occurs. One way to do so is to act as a witness to the informed consent. As a witness who confirmed that the client gave his or her informed consent voluntarily, the client signature is authentic and the client is competent to give consent. If the client waived consent, ensure it is documented in the medical record if the client is deemed incompetent to give informed consent, a court-appointed guardian may do so on the client’s behalf. The requirement to obtain the client informed consent can be waived in an emergency situation in which the client is incapacitated and the situation requires immediate treatment

Question 75

safe and effective care environment: management of care

legal rights and responsibilities

Answer 75

negligence involved the unintentional failure to act as a responsible person in a circumstance that resulted in injury to the client. Elements include a breach of a duty of care, with a resultant injury that has been proximately cause, and actual damages to the injured party. Malpractice involves the failure by medical professional to carry out perform his or her duties that results in injury to the client. She should be familiar with the following:
identifying legal issues affecting clients such as refusing treatment and knowing how to respond appropriately, recognizing tasks and assignments are not prepared to perform and seeking assistance, identifying and managing clients valuable’s according to facility or agency policy, educating clients and staff on legal and ethical issues, complying with state and/or federal regulations for porting client conditions such as abuse or neglect, communicable diseases, gunshot wound, or dogfight, reporting unsafe practices of health-care personnel to internal or external entities, and intervening appropriately when you observe unsafe practices by staff members

Question 76

safe and effective care environment: management of care

Performance improvement for quality improvement

Answer 76

meeting or exceeding the expectations of customers and standards, and achieving planned outcomes.

Question 77

safe and effective care environment: management of care

referrals

Answer 77

there are different types of referrals: authorization for care or service, recommendation of a specific provider, referral to specialists, in referral to a different facility for care. Assess the need to refer clients for assistance with actual or potential problems such as physical therapy and speech therapy, and match community resources to the clients needs such as respite care, social services, shelters. In all referral situations you need to know which documents to include when referring the client such as a medical record or referral form

Question 78

safe and effective care environment: management of care

supervision

Answer 78

a good supervisor provides the following:
clear direction and communication, timely follow-up, active listening, complete technical knowledge of supervised work, feedback and resolution of problems and conflicts.

Question 79

Quiz questions
a 50-year-old man with head and neck cancer is admitted to the hospital and tells the nurse he does not want parenteral nutritional therapy as his cancer progresses. The nurse explains he can specify his wishes like eating in advance or active. The nurse knows that the requirement to provide clients with this type of information can be found in which of the following?
1. The patient self-determination act
2. Nursing scope and standards of practice
3. The patient protection and affordable care act
4. The patient’s Bill of Rights

Answer 79

1. this is correct. The 1990 patient self-determination act was passed by Congress to ensure that upon admission to hospitals, long-term care facilities, and home health agencies, patient’s are informed that they have the right to accept or refuse medical care as well as to specify in advance. Instructors what their wishes are

Question 80

quiz questions
a 14-year-old girl newly diagnosed with diabetes is preparing for discharge which of the following best describes the nurse’s role as a client advocate?
1. Arranging for a visit with home health nurse
2. providing written medication instructions to the client’s parents
3. Instructing the client to follow-up with her provider and four weeks
4. Teaching the client how to administer insulin injections

Answer 80

4. This is correct. Teaching the client had to administer her own medication is the best example of the nurse’s role as a client advocate because this action directly helps the client develop self advocacy skills.

The other choices are important in the overall management of the clients care but does not directly assist in teaching the client the necessary skills to manage her diabetes

Question 81

quiz questions
a client is seen for an outpatient appointment and asks the nurse if he can obtain a copy of his medical record. The nurse knows that the client has the right to read and copy his medical records and that this is guaranteed by virtue of which of the following?
1. The code of ethics for nurses
2. The health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)
3. the patient self-determination act
4. The Americans with disabilities act

Answer 81

2. This is correct. HIPAA protects the patient’s right to review, and requests amendments to his medical records

Question 82

quiz questions
after receiving report at the start of the evening shift which the following clients should the nurse attend to first?
1. A 34-year-old man undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma with the potassium level of 7.5
2. A 21-year-old woman with sickle cell anemia with pain of a six on a scale of 10
3. A 55-year-old woman with ovarian cancer waiting to be discharged
4. A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a pulse ox of 96% on room air

Answer 82

1. This is correct. Hyperkalemia is a potentially serious condition that any client undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could indicate tumor lysis syndrome

Question 83

quiz questions
a 34-year-old woman who developed Steven Johnson syndrome while undergoing treatment with Tegretol is being transferred in stable condition from the intensive care unit to the medical unit. Therefore beds available. The nurse knows the best choice of roommates for this client is which of the following?
1.a 40-year-old man with MRSA
2. a 28-year-old woman with diarrhea
3. A 72-year-old man with fever of unknown origin
4. A 68-year-old woman with atrial fib

Answer 83

4. This is correct. A client with Stevens Johnson syndrome is likely to have severe skin integrity issues including blistering and skin shredding which can place the client at high risk for infection. Atrial fibrillation is not an infectious process

Question 84

quiz questions a 72-year-old man who had a stroke is being transferred from a medical unit to a rehab center. The nurse case manager is assisting in the process. The nurse knows that the goals of case management include which of the following? Select all that apply

1. improving the coordination of care
2. Increasing referrals to local organizations
3. Reducing the fragmentation of care
4. Discharging clients quickly

Answer 84

1, 3. This is correct. One of the primary goals of case management is to improve the coordination of care and to reduce the fragmentation of care.
The other two answers are not goals of case management

Question 85

quiz questions
an 18-year-old client with acute lymphocytic leukemia is admitted to the bone marrow transplantation unit. His family is having trouble dealing with the emotional and financial pressures of his disease. The nurse, case manager, physician, and social worker meet to discuss the plan of care. The nurse knows this type of interdisciplinary interaction is best referred to as which of the following?
1. Case management
2. Collaboration
3. Cooperation
4. Collegiality

Answer 85

2. This is correct. The interdisciplinary interaction between different healthcare professions such as nursing, medicine, and social work is known as collaboration.

Case management refers to the coordination of care to reduce fragmentation and improve quality and outcomes as well as to reduce costs

Question 86

quiz questions
a pregnant woman at 15 weeks gestation is scheduled for a amniocentesis. As the client is being prepped for the procedure it becomes clear to the nurse that the client does not fully understand the risks and benefits associated with the procedure. Which of the following describes the nurse’s role in obtaining informed consent? Select all that apply
1. Explain the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
2. Describe alternatives to the procedure
3. Witness the client signature on the consent form
4. Advocate for the client by ensuring she is making an informed decision

Answer 86

3, 4. this is correct. One of the nurses roles in the informed consent process is to witness the signature on the consent form and to advocate for the client by ensuring she has been provided the necessary information to make an informed decision.

it is the physician’s duty to provide information on the other two answers

Question 87

quiz questions
the nurse noticed an increase in the prevalence of pressure ulcers among clients in an intensive care unit. She documented her findings and worked with her manager to develop and implement a new policy using a pressure ulcer risk assessment scale. Which of the following best describes the nurse's actions?
1. Quality improvement
2. Collaboration
2. Advocacy
4. Case management

Answer 87

1. this is correct. Quality improvement includes activities such as identifying opportunities and developing policies for improving the quality of nursing practice. Identifying an increase in pressure ulcers and implementing a policy aimed at improving the assessment and prevention of pressure ulcers best fits the definition of quality improvement

Question 88

quiz questions
the nurses working on a surgical unit which of the following tasks would be appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel?
1. Assisting new postoperative client to the bathroom
2. Set up the client’s lunch trays
3. Change a central line dressing
4. Teach a client how to minister discharge medications

Answer 88

2. this is correct setting up the client’s lunch trays is an appropriate task to delegate to the UAP.

Assisting a new postoperative client to the bathroom is a task the registered nurse or another licensed individual such as an LVN or LPN should perform

Question 89

quiz questions the nurses been asked to administer a drug by IV push. She is uncertain whether or not this task also been her scope of practice. The nurse knows which of the following are the best sources to refer to point information related to her scope of practice in this situation? Select all that apply

1. Hospital in unit policies and procedures
2. Nurse practice act
3. Ordering physician
4. Hospital pharmacist

Answer 89

1, 2. this is correct. Hospital unit policies and procedures they outline specific information about who can determine which drugs by which route. The nurse practice acts (NPAs) are laws in which each state defines the scope of practice for nursing.

Question 90

quiz questions in 20-year-old client with leukemia has consented to a blood transfusion against wishes of his family who were all Jehovah witnesses. The nurse knows that which of the following ethical principles best supports the decision?

1. Autonomy
2. Beneficence
3. Nonmaleficence
4. Justice

Answer 90

1. this is correct. Autonomy refers to the right of individuals to make decisions for themselves

Question 91

quiz questions
the nurse wants to delegate the task of showering an elderly client in a wheelchair to the UAP. Before delegating a task the UAP the nurse should first ensure which of the following is accomplished?
1. the UAP is supervised at all times
2. The UAP demonstrated competency for the task during orientation
3. The UAP has performed the task before
4. The UAP has received the assignment during report

Answer 91

2. This is correct. Prior to delegating a task appropriate for the UAP, the nurse should first ensure that competency has been verified during the UAP’s orientation

Question 92

quiz questions
a well-known actor has been admitted to the ambulatory surgical unit. The nurse notices a staff member who is not involved in the client’s care reading his medical record. The nurse knows she should first two which of the following
?1. Nothing. The staff member has a hospital ID badge and is authorized to read the medical record
2. Inform the staff member that without a legitimate need for the information, a staff should not be reading the medical record
3. Tell the client his medical records have been read by an unauthorized individual
4. page the physician and ask if it’s acceptable for the staff member to access the medical records

Answer 92

2. This is correct. An individual not involved in the care of the client does not have a legitimate need to access the medical record. The nurse should protect the client’s right to privacy by ensuring that only authorized individuals access medical records

Question 93

quiz questions
the nurse is learning how to use the hospital’s new electronic medication administration record. The nurse knows this tool has the potential to do which of the following? Select all that apply
1. Reduce medication administration errors
2. Improve access to information at the point of care
3. Eliminate the need for the nurse to document medication ministration
4. Eliminate the need for the nurse to verify dose calculations

Answer 93

1, 2. This is correct. Electronic medication administration records have the potential to reduce medication administration errors and the potential to improve access to client information at the point of care