Kandpal 1 Flashcards

1
Q

DNA sequence is important for…

A
  • designing treatment options
  • rational basis for treatment outcomes
  • understanding disease mechanisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___ and ___ genomes have been sequenced completely

A

human and chimpanzee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

differences in human and chimp genomes

A

35 million single nucleotide changles
5 million insertion/deletion changes
various rearrangements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___% difference between human and chimp DNA sequence

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Differential susceptibilities to ___between human and chimps

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cytochrome P450 (CYP)

A

enzymes carry out several reactions including hydroxylation (activation/inactivation) of drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

___ may alter the activity of CYP enzymes

A

Polymorphisms

Drug dose needs to be adjusted based on genotype
Warfarin, a blood thinner, dose is dependent on the genotype (isoforms of CYP enzymes) of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CRISPR/Cas technology

A

Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats

(Specific mutations in DNA sequence can be corrected by using genome editing tools)
CRISPR exist in bacteria along with helicase and nuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DNA bases

A
adenine
guanine
cytosine
thymine
(RNA has uracil instead of thymine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

5 carbon sugar in DNA/RNA

A

deoxyribose in DNA

ribose in RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

nucleotides are joined by ___ ___

A

phosphodiester bonds.

5’ phosphate bonds to 3’ OH of next nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sugar-phosphate forms the

A

DNA backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2 strands of DNA of held by

A

H-bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

purines

A

adenine and guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pyrimidines

A

cytosine, thymine,uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

adenine deamination –>

A

hypoxanthine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

guanine deamination –>

A

xanthine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

uracil methylated –>

A

thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

nucleoside

A

base + sugar

end in -ine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nucleotide

A

nucleoside (base + sugar) + phosphate
mono- di- or tri- phosphate.

end in -ylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nucleotide functions

A

part of DNA/RNA
cofactors
energy (ATP)
cell signaling (GTP in G protein coupled receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FAD, NAD use

A

electron carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cyclic AMP and cGMP use

A

secondary messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

coenzyme A (CoA) use

A

carbon carrier in fatty acid metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gregor mendel history

A

1866

unit factors/genetic determinants (genes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

debate on genetic material

A

DNA or proteins?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Griffith’s experiment.

used?

A

1928
DNA is genetic material

used Streptococcus pneumoniae
Virulent strain- S (smooth polysaccharide coat)
Avirulent strain- R (rough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

_________ purified the infection causing chemical as DNA.

A

Avery, McCarty and MacLeod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hershey and Chase experiment

A

Which component of a bacteriophage enters the bacteria during infection?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chargaff’s rule

A

The abundance of A equals T, and C equals G in double stranded DNA (not in a single stranded DNA)

A=T and C=G does not hold good for single stranded DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Watson and Crick model

A

double helix structure held together by H bonds.

Biophysical data from X-ray diffraction /Crystal structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Double Helix explained ___ synthesis of DNA

A

templated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

H-bonded base-pairs in DNA can be ___and ___

A

denatured and renatured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

denaturation follows

A

zero order kinetics

at specific temp, does not depend on concentration of DnA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

renaturation follows

A

second order kinetics

dependent on concentration of both strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A DNA

A

right handed, 11 bases/turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

B DNA

A

right handed, 10 bases/turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Z DNA

A

left handed, 12 bases/turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

we primarily see ___ DNA in living cells

A

B DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

hyperchromicity curves

A

Double stranded: absorbance doubles when 2 strands fall apart. almost 100% increase.

Single stranded: increases b/c strand gets straighter as H bonds are denatured within strand. only 10-15% increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

heat

A

disrupts H bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

increase in [Na+] [K+]

A

stabilizes helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

increase in GC/AT ratio

A

stabilizes helix

GC is 3 bonds
AT is 2 bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

urea and formamide

A

destabilize DNA helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

hybridization

A

annealing of complementary DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

PCR

A

polymerase chain reaction

primer-template annealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

southern hybridization

A

hybridization of a probe fragment to DNA target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

northern hybridization

A

hybridization of a probe fragment to RNA target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

microarrays

A
  • global profiling of gene expression

- nucleotide polymorphisms

50
Q

medically important applications of hybridization

A
  • Disease diagnosis, Prenatal diagnosis, bacterial infections, virus infection and viral load
  • Forensic medicine (Paternity test; Guilty vs Innocent verdict)
  • -genotypic variations among individuals
51
Q

___ are different in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication

A

Identities of proteins involved are different

52
Q

Medical applications of molecular differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication

A

Differences in molecular machinery has allowed development of therapeutics (antibiotics)

53
Q

cell doctrine

A

Every cell in the body arises from an existing cell.

54
Q

cell cycle

A

orderly sequence of DNA duplication and cell division

55
Q

DNA Replication is ___

A

Semiconservative

new DNA molecule has one parent strand and one new strand.

56
Q

DNA Polymer Extends in ___ Direction

A

5’ to 3’

requires a primer in antiparallel orientation.

57
Q

E. coli polymerase types

A

DNA Polymerase I
- Low processivity (DNA repair)

DNA Polymerase II
- Somewhat higher processivity (DNA repair)

DNA Polymerase III (DNA Replicase)
-Highest processivity (DNA replication)

58
Q

DNA replicase

A

DNA polymerase III

59
Q

Pol I activity

A

5’-3’ polymerization
5’-3’ exonuclease
3’-5’ exonuclease

60
Q

Pol II activity

A

5’-3’ polymerization

3’-5’ exonuclease

61
Q

Pol II (replicase) activity

A

5’-3’ polymerization

3’-5’ exonuclease

62
Q

The primer attaches to the ___ end of the template strand.

63
Q

proofreading activity is …

A

3 ‘to 5’ exonuclease activity.

Pol III

64
Q

adult humans have how many cells

65
Q

% of human DNA is coding DNA

66
Q

E. coli error frequency after proofreading.

67
Q

human genome error rate

A

3/cell/replication

68
Q

genome type E. coli

A

double stranded circular genome

69
Q

replication beings at

A

origin of replication

70
Q

__ binds to the origin or replication and denatures ___ base pairs

A
initiator protein (dnaA)
A-T
71
Q

double stranded DNA is unwound by

A

helicase (dnaB)

in an ATP dependent manner

72
Q

strand unwound by helicase is stabilized by…

A

single-strand binding protein

73
Q

Unwinding of one part of DNA leads to ___of other parts of DNA

A

overwinding

74
Q

___ relieves overwinding

A

Type II topoisomerase (gyrase in E. coli)

makes a cut in DNA

75
Q

___ synthesizes ___ nt long ___ primers

A

primase (dnaG)
15 nt long
RNA

76
Q

___ are absolute requirements for replication

77
Q

DNA polymerase requires a ___ and a ___ with ___ group for the synthesis of a polynucleotide strand

A

template

primer with free 3’-OH group

78
Q

___ adds new nucleotides to the 3’-OH end of the growing chain by copying the template sequence

A

DNA polymerase III (replicase, dnaE)

79
Q

___ removes RNA primers

A

DNA polymerase I ( 5 to 3 exonuclease activity)

80
Q

RNA primers are replaced by

A

extending DNA syntehesis

81
Q

___ seals the gap in ____ ___ manner

A

DNA ligase

in ATP dependent manner

82
Q

Polymer II is a ___

A

holoenzyme

83
Q

holoenzyme subunits

A
  • Catalytic core of three subunits a-e-q,
  • Clamp subunits (b, b) for processivity
  • Clamp loader (g complex)
  • Assembly subunit (t, t)
84
Q

Differences in mammalian and bacterial proteins can be exploited for ___

A

therapeutics:

Selective targeting of infectious agents by antibiotics

85
Q

targets for bacteria elimination

A

Enzymes of DNA replication, transcription, translation, cell wall synthesis

86
Q

Microbes use ___ for killing neighboring microbes

A

natural products (metabolites)

87
Q

Novobiocin is ___ inhibitor

A

replication

88
Q

fluoroquinolones
inhibitors of?
examples

A

synthetic antibiotics
inhibitors of replication

levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin (FDA approved for anthrax infection)

89
Q

Streptomyces niveus produce an ___class of antibiotics such as ___(replication inhibitor

A

aminocoumarin

Novobiocin

90
Q

___make transient cuts on DNA and change linking number (Total # of basepairs/10.4)

A

Topoisomerases

91
Q

type I topoisomerases

A

make a nick in only one strand of DNA and binds to 3’ end of phosphodiester back bone

92
Q

type II topoisomerases

A

eg. bacterial DNA gyrase

make two cuts, one in each strand.

93
Q

___ and ___ are target enzymes for quinolones/fluoroquinolones

A

Bacterial DNA gyrase (Topoisomerase type II) and topoisomerase IV

94
Q

gyrase is ___ (A2B2)

A

heterotetramer

  • To make the cut Tyr122 on GyrA forms covalent linkage with the 5’P of DNA. The DNA is subsequently religated.
  • GyrB carries out ATP hydrolysis.
95
Q

topoisomerase IV is …

A

heterotetramer (C2E2)

96
Q

fluoroquinolones prevent ….

A

the reversible ligation step carried out by GyrA

97
Q

Novobiocin competes with ___ for binding to ___

98
Q

___ is the target enzyme for anticancer drugs

A

mammalian topo I

99
Q

Topotecan (Hycamtin) is FDA approved for ___

A

ovarian cancer and small cell lung cancer.

Topotecan stabilizes Topo I-DNA complex and prevents the religation step (inhibition of replication)

100
Q

logic for antibiotic resistance

A
  • Bacterial genomes are small
  • Replication and doubling times are shorter
  • Errors in replication are likely to occur
  • These errors lead to mutations and produce mutant bacteria
101
Q

resistance to quinolone, point mutations

A

N-terminal end of GyrA (most mutations).

C-terminal end of GyrB (few mutations).

102
Q

more proteins in ___ replication system

A

eucaryotic

103
Q

genome size E. coli vs mammalian

A

E. coli - 4.64 million basepairs, circular DNA

mammalian - 23 pairs of linear chromosomes, 3.2 billion basepaires

104
Q

___ have single origin of replication

105
Q

Mammalian uses ___ origins or replication

A

multiple (about 1000)

sequence not well defined

106
Q

E. coli uses the ___ polymerase for leading and lagging strand synthesis

107
Q

mammalian uses ____

A

polymerases for leading and lagging strand synthesis

108
Q

Mammalian RNA primer is degraded by

A

RNaseH

RNaseH degrades RNA part of an RNA-DNA hybrid

109
Q

Mammalian Okazaki fragments-

A

0.1- 0.2 Kb

110
Q

E. coli Okazaki fragments-

A

1.0- 2.0 Kb

111
Q

Polymerase alpha

112
Q

Polymerase beta

113
Q

Polymerase gamma

A

mitochondrial replication

114
Q

Polymerase delta

A

nuclear replication

115
Q

Polymerase epsilon

A

nuclear replication

116
Q

end replication problem

A

In linear mammalian chromosomes, when replication fork reaches the end, RNA primer can’t be placed for the last Okazaki fragment

  • Once the RNA primer is removed from the 5’ end, it can not be filled up.
  • No polymerase available with 3’-5’ activity
  • 5’ ends will shorten after each replication cycle
117
Q

telomeres

A

maintain integrity of chromosome
seal end of chromosome

  • Prevent undesirable fusion
  • Prevent aberrant recombination
  • Telomeres attach chromosomes to nuclear envelope
  • Telomeres facilitate replication
118
Q

telomeres have ___ repeats

A

hexameric

TTAGGG in human cells (up to 15 Kb)
TTGGGG in Tetrahymena

119
Q

telomerase

A

Ribonucleoprotein (RNP)
Protein + RNA

synthesize telomeric repeats

reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent DNA polymerase)

120
Q

telomerase activity

A

Somatic cells (differentiated cells) have no detectable activity

Germ cells, stem cells have detectable activity

121
Q

telomerase and human cancer

A

normal tissue - no telomerase
tumor - activity
germ cells - activity

122
Q

cancer, targets for intervention

A

-Telomerase activity
Inhibition would prevent tumor growth
-Telomere structure
Interference may prevent telomere extension