Kaltenboeck Lectures Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Can differentiate species of streptococcus using ?

A

Hemolysis

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2
Q

What are the usual specimens strep is found in?

A

pus, joint fluid, milk

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3
Q

Which strep spp. shows alpha hemolysis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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4
Q

Most pyogenic streptococci show what type of hemolysis?

A

beta

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5
Q

Which spp. of strep is CAMP positive? What does that mean?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

it completed the partial hemolysis mediated by St. aureus

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6
Q

How does Streptococcus caused pygoenic infections?

A

Kills invading phagocytic cells, causing release of lytic enzymes–>tissue liquefaction

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7
Q

What are Streptococcus’ 2 virulence factors?

A

M protein and hyaluronidase

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8
Q

Define:

1) hemolysins
2) streptokinase
3) hyaluronidase
4) erythrogenic toxins

A

1) cause beta-hemolysis and kill phagocytic cells
2) dissolves clots
3) breaks down connective tissue
4) causes rash in scarlet fever

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9
Q

Which bacteria is responsible for equine strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi

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10
Q

Most spp. of Streptococcus cause what disease?

A

mastitis

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11
Q

Which bacteria is responsible for scarlet fever in humans?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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12
Q

T/F: Animals with Streptococcus pneumoniae pose a risk to humans

A

FALSE (humans pose a risk to animals)

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13
Q

Which genus of bacteria is usually in grape-like clusters?

A

Staphylococcus

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14
Q

when are Staphylococcus considered to be pathogenic?

A

when isolated in pure culture from lesions

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15
Q

What special agar can be used to ID Staphylococcus?

A

mannitol-salt agar

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16
Q

Which specific species causes a yellow color on mannitol-salt agar? Why?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

ferments mannitol

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17
Q

Define: (Staphylococcus)

1) coagulase
2) clumping factor
3) enterotoxins
4) staphylokinase

A

1) causes clotting of blood plasma
2) reacts with plasma fibrinogen
3) cause signs of food poisoning (1-6hrs); very heat resistant
4) degrades fibrin

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18
Q

What is the significance of protein A for Staphylococcus?

A

binds IgG

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19
Q

What bacteria causes suppurative wound infections, pyoderma, and food poisoning?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (or intermedius)

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20
Q

What species is Staphylococcus intermedius common in?

A

Dogs

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21
Q

Which Staphylococcus spp is important in swine? What disease dose it cause?

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

Greasy pig disease

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22
Q

How to micrococci differ from the rest of the Staphylococcus spp?

A

can only tolerate 5% salt in medium

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23
Q

What bacteria genus is it important to test for resistance with and why?

A

Staphylococcus; can encode beta-lactamase enzyme

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24
Q

which spp of Staphylococcus can infect humans?

A

S. aureus and S. hyicus

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25
Q

Which genus of bacteria is pleomorphic rods?

A

Corynebacterium & Rhodococcus

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26
Q

All pathogenic strains of • Corynebacterium are ______ positive?

A

Urease

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27
Q

Which spp. of bacteria is found in the urogenital tracts of bovine?

A

Corynebacterium renale

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28
Q

significance of Corynebacterium renale’s pili?

A

help with adherence to mucous membranes; also antigen for differentiation

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29
Q

How does C. renale hide from the host’s immune system?

A

covered with IgG

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30
Q

which spp of Corynebacterium infects through skin lesions

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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31
Q

What bacteria causes lymphadenitis in small ruminants and ulcerative lymphangitis in horses?

A

C. pseudotuberculosis

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32
Q

Which bacteria causes suppurative pneumonia in foals?

A

Rhodococcus equi

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33
Q

R. equi is usually commensal in horse intestines? (T/F)

A

True

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34
Q

Why are Corynebacterium and Rhodococcus infections difficult to treat?

A

difficult for antibiotics to penetrate the walled off lesions

35
Q

Which gram positive rods are naturally occurring in soil and vegetation?

36
Q

Why is Listeria difficult to isolate?

A

usually present in small numbers

37
Q

For which bacteria can you use cold enrichment (growing at 4*)?

38
Q

What are the 2 disease forms of listeria monocytogenes?

A

neural

visceral

39
Q

This bacteria causes “circling disease” in ruminants

A

Listeria monocytogenes

40
Q

What 2 things enable L monocytogenes to survive in macrophages?

A

Heat-labile hemolysin

Listeriolysin

41
Q

Why is listeriolysin important?

A

it disrupts phagocytic vacuole in macrophage; Virulence depends on this!!

42
Q

What method can effectively destroy Listeria monocytogenes?

A

pasteurization

43
Q

What are the sources for Listeria infection in humans?

A

contaminated milk and dairy products

44
Q

Swine are the reservoir for this bacteria

A

Erysipelotrhix

45
Q

Does Erysipelotrhix produce toxins?

46
Q

What bacteria produces disease in pigs ages 3-18 months. usually reddish/purple rhomboidal patches

A

Erysipelotrhix rhusiopathiae

47
Q

If moist, Erysipelotrhix can remain viable for years (T/F)

48
Q

Which bacteria is associated with being an “occupational disease” of veterinarians, butchers, and fish handlers?

A

Erysipelotrhix rhusiopathiae

49
Q

The genus of bacteria is responsible for ray fungus disease in many animals

A

Actinomyces

50
Q

The bacteria are commensal organisms of the oral cavity

A

Actinomyces

51
Q

T/F: Actinomyces CAN survive outside its host

52
Q

This bacteria is responsible for chronic abscessing mastitis in cows

A

Actinomyces pyogenes

53
Q

What is the virulence factor of Actinomyces pyogenes?

A

proteinase

54
Q

Causes lumpy jaw in cattle

A

Actinomyces bovis

55
Q

Cause pyothorax in dogs

A

Actinomyces viscosus

56
Q

Large, spore forming, rods found in soil, air, dust, and water

57
Q

Colonies of this bacteria have wavy edges (“medusa head”)

A

Bacillus anthracis

58
Q

What are the 3 components of B. anthracis exotoxin?

A

Component I–edema factor
Component II–protective antigen
Component III–lethal factor

59
Q

What two characteristics does B. anthracis need to have to be virulent?

A

encapsulated

toxigenic

60
Q

The skin lesions of the bacteria form malignant carbuncles

A

B. anthracis

61
Q

T/F B. anthracis is an obligate pathogen

62
Q

For B. anthracis:
What species are usually affected by
1) acute septicemic form
2) cutaneous form

A

1) horses and ruminants

2) dogs, cats, swine

63
Q

large, strictly ANAEROBIC, spore-forming rods

A

Clostridium

64
Q

Best and fastest method for IDing Clostridium

A

fluorescent antibodies

65
Q

Causes tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani

66
Q

causes blackleg in sheep and cattle

A

Clostridium chauvoei

67
Q

Causes malignant edema

A

Clostridium septicum

68
Q

Causes food poisoning and enterotoxemia

A

Clostridium perfringens

69
Q

Source of infection for malignant edema

A

soil contamination of wounds

70
Q

Causes bacillary hemoglobinuria (“red water”) disease in cattle and sheep

A

Clostridium haemolyticum

71
Q

Infection with C. haemolyticum is secondary to ?

A

liver damage via fluke migration

72
Q

Important toxins of Clostridium spp (4)

A

1) Alpha–>phospholipase C (principal lethal toxin)
2) beta
3) Epsilon–protoxin converted by proteaes to become lethal
4) Kappa– causes “pulping” of affected tissue

73
Q

Toxins of which bacteria bind to gangliosides of nerve cells and migrate to spinal cord and medulla?

A

Clostridium tetani

74
Q

How does C. botulinum cause paralysis

A

prevents muscle transmission of nerve pulses to muscle

75
Q

(T/F) The spores of Clostridium are sensitive to disinfectants

A

False; vegetative form is sensitive

76
Q

Small, acid-fast rods that grow very slowly

A

Mycobacteria

77
Q

What two factors make Mycobacteria so resistant?

A

cell wall components

high lipid concentration

78
Q

What is the virulence factor of Mycobacteria

79
Q

Variations in tuberculin test are used to diagnose infections with?

A

Mycobacteria

80
Q

Causes Johne’s disease

A

M. paratuberculosis

81
Q

Smallest bacteria; lack a cell wall

82
Q

How are are the Myoplasma bacteria classified?

A

on whether they require cholesterol for growth or not

83
Q

Causes contagious bovine pneumonia

A

Myoplasma mycoides

84
Q

The specimens of what bacteria must be refrigerated and inoculated withing 48 hours