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Kalitta 747-400 Captain Upgrade OKE > Kalitta air 747-400 Upgrade SKV (July 2023) > Flashcards

Kalitta air 747-400 Upgrade SKV (July 2023) Flashcards

1
Q

What turns on the emergency lighting system?

A

Loss of DC power (Bus 4)

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2
Q

Fully charged emergency lighting batteries should provide light for how long?

A

15 minutes

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3
Q

What is the wing span of the B747-400?

A

211’ 5”

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4
Q

When are landing lights at their max intensity?

A

Landing Gear Down

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the flight deck access lights?

A

Illuminates exit or entry path to or from flight deck when Ground Handling bus powered

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6
Q

When do the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?

A

When Supernumerary Oxygen is On

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7
Q

What is the advantage of selecting LWR on the beacon light switch?

A

Won’t flash during low visibility

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8
Q

What is the turning radius with body gear steering armed?

A

153ft

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9
Q

Where is the emergency equipment located on the BCF’s?

A

Bulkhead just forward of Left Upper Deck Door

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10
Q

The escape rope at door L1 is located where?

A

In the upper door sill

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11
Q

Bleed air is used in what system?

A

PAWS HAD SALT

Pressurization
Anti-Ice
Water
Smoke detection (cargo)

Hyd reservoir pre pressure Air Cond.
AC
Demand Hyd. Pumps

Starter
Aft Cargo heat
Leading edge flaps (motors) Thrust reversers

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11
Q

Bleed air used in what systems?

A

PAWS HAD SALT (11 sys)

Pressurization
Anti-Ice
Water
Smoke detection (cargo)

Hyd reservoir pre pressure
AC pack
Demand Hyd. Pumps

Starter
Aft Cargo heat
Leading edge flaps (motors)
Thrust reversers

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12
Q

Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? Up to what altitude?

A

YES,
up to 15,000ft

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13
Q

Turning an Engine Bleed air switch off does what?

A

a. engine bleed air valve, PRV, and HP bleed valve closed

b. PRV opens when nacelle anti-ice on, unless PRV closed by: prior or present bleed air overheat, or start valve not closed, or HP bleed valve failed open

c. HP bleed valve and PRV open for thrust reverse, unless PRV closed by: prior or present bleed air overheat, or start valve not closed

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14
Q

If the switch is OFF is NAC anti-icing available for that engine?

A

Yes

Except when the PRV has failed closed,

or the PRV has been closed due to a bleed air overheat,

or the start valve is not closed,

or the HP bleed valve is failed open

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15
Q

What will illuminate the SYS Fault light? (Bleed)

A

Bleed air overheat, or bleed air overpressure, or
HP bleed valve open when commanded closed, or
PRV open when commanded closed

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16
Q

With the light (SYS) FAULT illuminated, is reversing available on landing?

A

No

Due to an overheat

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17
Q

What unit in the bleed air system reduces bleed air temperature?

A

Fan Air Pre-Cooler

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18
Q

With a BLD 1,2,3,4 OVHT/PRV, what systems are no longer available?

A

Nacelle Anti-Ice & Reverse Thrust

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19
Q

APU bleed air is supplied to which duct?

A

Center section of the bleed air duct

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20
Q

Where is duct pressure displayed?

A

Primary EICAS

ECS Synoptic

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21
Q

What areas receive anti-ice protection?

A

Engine Nacelle

Wing

Probe Heat

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22
Q

Under what weather conditions is NAC anti-ice required to be on?

A

When the OAT on the ground and for takeoff,
TAT in-flight, is 10°C (50°F)or below And visible moisture is present such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals.

On ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by those engines or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

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23
Q

Are the TAT probes heated? When?

A

Yes,

Inflight only

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24
Q

What indications do we have that NAC anti-ice is on? Wing?

A

NAI/WAI icon displayed on Primary EICAS and ECS page

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25
Q

What section of the wing is Anti-iced?

A

Leading edge with LE Flaps retracted

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26
Q

At flaps 5, what portion of the leading edge is being de-iced with WAI on?

A

None

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27
Q

Which windows are provided Anti-Ice and Anti-Fogging protection?

A

The forward windows (L1/R1) have exterior surface anti-icing, and interior surface antifogging protection.

The side windows (L2,L3/R2,R3) have interior surface antifogging protection only

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28
Q

When is Anti-fogging available to the windows?

A

Air for anti-fogging is drawn from the flight deck conditioned air supply and directed across the windshields.

WSHLD AIR switches on the Captain’s and First Officer’s auxiliary panels turn on anti-fogging air to the related windshields

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29
Q

How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault?

A

Turn the window heat switches off for 10 seconds then back on

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30
Q

Where is the windshield washer fluid reservoir located?

A

The washer fluid reservoir is located behind the door in the book storage area on the Captain’s side panel.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the OBS Audio System switch on the overhead panel?

A

Allows Captain or FO to use Observer’s audio panel

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32
Q

When illuminated, what does the Offside Tuning light indicate?

A

The panel is selected to a radio normally associated with another radio tuning panel

A comm radio not normally associated with that radio tuning panel has been selected and may be tuned by another radio tuning panel

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33
Q

How many VHF radios are installed?

A

3 VHF Radios

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34
Q

With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?

A

NO

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35
Q

How can you monitor for an IM signal during a CAT ll approach?

A

On ACP, select MKR and push APP volume knob

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36
Q

How can we tune DATA in the C VHF?

A

Dial past 136.000 and select transfer switch

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37
Q

How is the oxygen mask microphone operation verified during preflight?

A

Select Flt on ACP, Speaker on, Select Push to Test on O2 panel along with EMER knob, simultaneously push Interphone switch on ACP

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38
Q

What should be seen when pushing the cockpit voice recorder test button?

A

Push Test switch and observe pulsating indications on meter

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39
Q

How many PTT switches are in the cockpit?

A

4

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40
Q

Selecting the SERV interphone switch to ON does what?

A

Provides voice com between ground crew stations at various locations around aircraft

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41
Q

What does IDG stand for?

A

Integrated Drive Generator

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42
Q

How many AC power sources are available to the AC?

A

8 total
Engine 4
APU 2
External PWR 2

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43
Q

What turns on an IDG DRIVE light?

A
  1. High Oil Temp
  2. Low Oil Pressure
  3. GCB open due to uncorrectable freq fault
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44
Q

What is the purpose of the utility buses?

A

Each utility bus is controlled by an electrical load control unit (ELCU) that protects the electrical system from utility bus faults and provides load management through automatic load shedding

1 Galley Power
2 CWT fuel pump
3 Fwd OVRD/Jettison 2 & 3
4 Fwd Main Fuel Pump 2&3

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45
Q

What buses are powered with #1&2 external power available but not on?

A
  1. Ground Handling
  2. Main Deck Cargo Handling
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46
Q

What bus normally powers the service bus?

Is there an alternate means to power the bus?

A
  1. AC Bus 1 is Normal Source
  2. Ground Handling is alternate source via switch at Door 1L
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47
Q

The APU and Main Standby buses are normally powered from which bus(es)?

A

The captain’s transfer bis is normal source for the APU standby bus.

AC Bus 3 is normal source for the Main Standby bus.

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48
Q

With the loss of # 3 AC bus, the APU standby bus is powered from which source?

A

a. AC Bus 1

b. APU hot battery bus through Inverter

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49
Q

How can I isolate the #4 DCIR?

A

De-select #4 Bus Tie switch

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50
Q

What will power the cargo bus with #2 external available and #2 APU gen available?

A

No. 2 Ext Power

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51
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch?

A

16 QTs

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52
Q

If the EGT limit is exceeded what is indicated? On takeoff?

A
  1. The EGT limit indication changes color to amber if EGT reaches the continuous limit 5 min after TOGA pushed.
  2. The EGT indicator has a takeoff limit displayed by a red line. The indication changes color to red if EGT reaches the takeoff limit. EGT indications are inhibited from changing color to amber during takeoff or go-around for 5 minutes after TO/GA is pushe
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53
Q

The amber line on the N1 indicator represents what?

A

Max N1

(EEC Overboost Protection)

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54
Q

What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch?

A

Spar and Engine Fuel Valves

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55
Q

When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?

A

With loss of AC power

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56
Q

When will continuous ignition come on automatically?

A
  1. NAI Selected on
  2. Flaps out of Up
  3. N2 below 50%
57
Q

What protections are provided by the EEC?

A

Overspeed and Overboost

58
Q

When approach is idle active?

A
  1. NAI on
  2. Flaps in Landing Position
  3. Continuous ignition on
59
Q

With the APU running, turning off the APU selector does what?

A
  1. closes APU bleed air isolation valve
  2. initiates normal shutdown
  3. resets auto shutdown fault logic except when shutdown due to APU bleed duct leak
60
Q

What are the five thrust references selectable from the CDU?

A

TO, CLB, CRZ, CON, GA

61
Q

How many Fire bottles are on the BCF?

A

12

Cargo 6
Engine 4
APU 1
Lavatory 1

62
Q

After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?

A
  1. Wheel Well loop
  2. Bleed Duct leak detector loop
63
Q

With the engine fuel switch in run, can the fire switch be pulled?

A

Not without a Fire Signal
Or
Push Override switch to pull

64
Q

Pulling the #1 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH does what?

A
  1. Trips engine generator
  2. Closes engine and spar fuel valves
  3. Closes bleed air valve
  4. Closes hyd. SOV
  5. Depressurizes engine driven hyd. pump
  6. Arms both related fire ext.
65
Q

With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what?

A

a. Raises Cabin to 25,000’

b. turns off two packs (pack 2 & 3)

c. configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments

d. closes master trim air valve

66
Q

With a lower FWD cargo fire, pressing the cargo fire discharge switch does what?

How many minutes of protection is provided?

A
  1. Discharges 2 bottles then after 30 minutes or upon landing meter flows other 4 bottles.
  2. Gives 334 minutes of protection for BCF
  3. Gives 180 minutes of protection for ERF
67
Q

Are the engine fire loops an AND or OR logic system?

A

AND

APU is OR logic

68
Q

What fire protection do we have in the wheel well?

A

None

69
Q

How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?

A

None

70
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel located?

A

Right Body Gear Wheel Well

71
Q

The stabilizer is powered from what hydraulic systems?

A

2 & 3

72
Q

What is the AUTO position of the stab trim cutout switch for?

A

Allows auto cutout of respective system if unscheduled stab trim is detected

73
Q

When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?

A

Multiple Autopilots engaged

74
Q

When do the outboard ailerons unlock?

A

Flaps out of up

OR

low airspeed (less than 238 knots)

75
Q

With the speed brake in arm, when do the speed brakes deploy on landing?

Not Armed?

A

ARMED
Thrust Levers 1 and 3 near closed and main gear touch down

NOT ARMED
Thrust levers 1 and 3 closed and main gear touch down and 2 or 4 Reverse lever pulled up to idle detent

76
Q

What flap protection is provided in secondary mode?

A

Asymmetry only

77
Q

What will occur if the trailing edge flap group is in the secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available?

A

The group remains in secondary mode until fully retracted.

78
Q

In the alternate control mode, how is flap extension sequenced?

A

Extend all at same time

LE flaps will not retract until Inbd trailing edge flaps fully retracts

79
Q

On landing, why does the flap position indicator change from green to magenta?

A

Due to Inboard and Mid-Span LE Flaps retract when reverse thrust is commanded

80
Q

What is the max altitude for flap extension?

A

FL200

81
Q

When is the pitch limit indicator displayed on the PFD and what is its purpose?

A

Flaps out of up and it is the stick shaker activation point

82
Q

What is the input source/s for the command speed display on the PFD?

A
  1. Airspeed set in the MCP IAS/Mach window
  2. FMC computed speed when window is blank
83
Q

What identifies the active way point on the ND?

A

Magenta Star

84
Q

The altitude range arc (‘green arc”) displays what information?

A

Position where MCP altitude will be reached based on vertical and ground speed.

85
Q

The WXR, STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS, TERR switches on the EFIS control panel display what information when pushed (each individually)?

A

a. WXR - Powers radar transceivers selected on wx radar control panel

b. STA - Displays high/low VORs when ND range is in 40nm or less and High VORs when ND range is over 40nm

c. WPT – In MAP and MAP CTR Modes displays waypoints when ND range is selector is 40nm or less

d. ARPT - In MAP and MAP CTR Modes displays airports in all ranges that have runways at least 7500’.

e. DATA - In PLAN, MAP and MAP CTR Modes displays FMC ETA Altitude at each waypoint and altitude constraints at each waypoint

f. POS - In MAP/MAP CTR Modes – Displays VOR raw data radials extended from nose of airplane to the VOR stations displayed on CDU
NAV RAD Page. When collocated DME data received tick mark displayed at DME distance. Radial extends to edge of display if no valid DME data received Displays IRU and GPS positions

g. TERR - Activates GPWS Look-Ahead terrain mode

86
Q

If the Captains INBD and LWR (EICAS) CRT is inoperative, how and where could the HYD synoptic information be displayed?

A

On FO’s INBD CRT

87
Q

In what ND mode will weather radar not be displayed?

A

Plan, VOR CTR, APPR CTR

88
Q

What indicates a route modification on the ND?

A

A White Dashed Line

89
Q

The standby horizon is powered from what source?”

A

Main battery bus

90
Q

When will the G/S and LOC indicators/scales display and when will they fill to a solid magenta?

A

Both indicators display when frequency is tuned and fills in solid when within 2 1/3 dots from the center

91
Q

What is the maximum amount of fuel we can carry in pounds with a fuel density of 6.7lbs per gallon?

A

GE 359,414lbs
PW 360,889lbs

92
Q

With the A/C completely full of fuel, discuss the different fuel configurations beginning with engine start through landing?

A

a. All Boost Pump switches are on. CWT feeds all engines
b. When flaps reach 10° xfeed valves 2&3 close
c. Ovrd/Jett pumps 2&3 are Armed
d. CWT pumps are providing fuel to engines 1&4 and Main tank pumps are providing fuel to Engines 2&3 respectively
e. After Takeoff when the flaps are up, crossfeed valves 2&3 are commanded open
f. The CWT pumps provide fuel to ALL engines
g. In Climb if FUEL LO CTR L/R message is displayed, tank quantity is approx. 7,000# CWT pumps selected off
h. In cruise when FUEL OVD CTR L/R is displayed and tank quantity is
4,000# or more, CWT Pumps should be selected back on
i. With approx. 40,200# in main tanks 2&3, the reserve tank transfer valves open and fuel gravity transfers to main tanks 2&3
j. When FUEL LOW CTR is displayed and CWT is less than 3,000# pumps should be selected off.

Fuel scavenge pump activates in the CWT and scavenges fuel to main tank 2.

Ovrd/Jett pumps 2&3 activate when CWT pumps are selected off.

Ovrd/Jett pumps 2 provide fuel to engines 1&2 and Ovrd/Jett pump 3 provides fuel to engines 3&4

l. When all tanks are equal in quantity (Approx 29,000#) FUEL TANK/ENG is displayed. Override/Jet pumps should be selected off and crossfeed valves 1&4 closed. All main pumps are now feeding respective engines.

93
Q

How do we, and what happens when, we jettison fuel?

A

a. Jettison is initiated by rotating jettison selector knob to A or B. When A or B is selected fuel temp is replaced by “To Remain”

b. If a failure occurs in one channel you must select the other channel

c. Jettison time to dump is displayed on fuel synoptic

d. Allow 90 sec. for system to calculate dump time

e. Rotating fuel to remain knob decreases or increases quantity

f. Pushing either jettison nozzle valve switch on activates all ovrd/jett pumps in the tanks containing fuel (pump switches must be on)

g. Jettison control system controls fuel balancing between tanks 2&3

h. If balancing is required ovrd/jett pumps in low tank deactivate until tanks are balanced

i. Reserve transfer valves open when main tanks 2 or 3 qty is decreased to 40,000#. Fuel transfers from reserve tanks 2&3 to
respective main tanks

j. When either main tank 2 or 3 qty decreases to 20,000# during jettison both main tank 1&4 transfer valves open Jettison terminates when
fuel to remain has been reached Fuel to remain qty changes color from magenta to white and flashes for 5 seconds, Jettison control system deactivates all operating pumps

94
Q

Q1. What is the difference between total fuel and calculated fuel?

Q2. When are the values different?

A

Q1

a. Total Fuel is the fuel onboard as indicated by the Fuel QTY System

b. Calculated Fuel - Prior to engine start, displays fuel quantity calculated by the Fuel Quantity Processor.

After engine start, it displays fuel quantity calculated by decreasing fuel on board at engine start at EICAS fuel flow signal rate.

Q2
Fuel Leak

95
Q

Prior to engine start, with usable fuel in the CWT, after fuel pump configuration are the 2&3 Override/Jettison pumps ON or ARMED?

A

Armed

96
Q

What is the purpose of the #1&4 transfer valves?

A

a. Fuel gravity transfers from outboard to inboard main tank to approx. 7,000# remaining in each outboard main tank

b. During fuel jettison, the valves open when either main tank 2 or 3 fuel decrease to 20,000#

c. Valves may be opened manually using the Fuel Transfer Main 1&4 switch on overhead pane

97
Q

Does the flow bar disappear in the cross feed #2&3 valve switches when the flaps are selected to the TO position?

A

No

98
Q

After positioning the fuel jettison selector to A or B where does the fuel jettison value display?

A

Fuel synoptic page

Replaces Fuel Temp on Primary EICAS

99
Q

Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate?

A

Until the pressure switch for the fuel scavenge pump senses low pressure, or the total time of pump operation exceeds 120 minutes

100
Q

What three things will illuminate the System Fault light?

A
  1. Low hydraulic system pressure
  2. Low hydraulic reservoir quantity
  3. Excessive hydraulic fluid temperature
101
Q

What will turn on the #4 demand pump if the switch is in Auto?

A
  1. Engine pump output pressure is low
  2. # 4 fuel control switch in CUTOFF
  3. Flaps are in transit
  4. Flaps out of up in flight
102
Q

On descent into KLAX, the #4 hydraulic quantity goes to zero. What systems will be affected for the approach and landing?

A
  1. Right outboard elevator
  2. Outboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
  3. Two inboard spoiler panels on each wing
  4. Wing gear hydraulic extension and retraction
  5. System 4 primary brake source
  6. Autobrake
  7. No.4 HYD demand pump
  8. No.4 thrust reverser
103
Q

With the loss of #1 Hyd. Quant., what systems will be affected for the approach and landing?

A
  1. Center Autopilot
  2. Left outboard elevator
  3. Inboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
  4. Nose and body gear hydraulic extension and
    retraction
  5. Nose and body gear steering
  6. System 1 alternate brake source
  7. No.1 thrust reverser
104
Q

With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?

A

Speed additive for inop stab trim is applied automatically in the Aerodata solution for Two Hydraulic Systems Inoperative

105
Q

On landing the Brake Source light illuminates, what does this mean?

A

Active brake hydraulic sources (hydraulic systems 4, 1, and 2) have low pressure

106
Q

The demand pumps are powered how?

A

1 and 4 are Pneumatic

2 and 3 are Electric

PW : All pneumatic

107
Q

The Aux Pump(s) is powered from which source?

A

Ground Handling Bus

108
Q

With the #4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be ON or OFF?

A

OFF

109
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? Where do you read that value?

A

0.80 is desired min qty. No RF on the STAT page or the Hydraulic synoptic

110
Q

How many tires do we have and what is their numerical order?

A

18

111
Q

Selecting value 3 on the Auto Brake selector does what?

From which source does the auto brake system receive deceleration inputs?

A

a. Maintains the selected airplane deceleration rate

b. Autobrake pressure is reduced as other controls, such as thrust reversers and spoilers, contribute to total deceleration.

The system provides braking to a complete stop or until it is disarmed.

IRU Provides Autobrake Reference

112
Q

What does the EICAS message GEAR TILT mean?

A

Main Gear Trucks not in Full Tilt Position

113
Q

How do we alternately extend the gear?

Where are the switches located?

A

Selection of Alternate Nose/Body and Wing Gear Switches located on the Landing Gear Panel

114
Q

You have a wheel well fire, what speed should you be at before extending the gear?

A

270kts/M0.82

115
Q

On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm?

What kind of braking is provided?

A

85kts

Max Brakin

116
Q

What does a white hashed box displayed on the (expanded) gear position indicator indicate?

A

Related landing gear in transit

117
Q

How long does the gear up indication remain in the EICAS?

A

10 Sec

118
Q

At what speed does the body gear steering disarm?

A

20kts

119
Q

What does the brake torque limiting system do?

A

The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to landing gear.

When excessive torque is detected, a signal
is sent to the antiskid valve to release brake pressure to that wheel

120
Q

What are the 3 levels of EICAS alerting?

A

Warning,

Caution

Advisory

121
Q

Can a Warning EICAS message be canceled?

A

NO

122
Q

When are the Fire Bell and master Warning lights inhibited?

A

V1 until 400ft RA or 25 sec. after V1, whichever occurs first

123
Q

What items will activate the Takeoff Configuration Warning?

A

airplane is on the ground, and FUEL CONTROL switches are in RUN position, and engine 2 or 3 thrust is in takeoff range, and airspeed is less than V1, and any of the following conditions exist:

  1. flaps not in takeoff position,
  2. body gear not centered,
  3. parking brake set,
  4. Speedbrake lever not in DN detent,
  5. stabilizer trim not in takeoff range
124
Q

When is the Windshear alert system active?

A

a. Takeoff, approach and landing (AOM 15-39)

b. New warning alerts are inhibited on the ground above 100 KIAS until reaching 50’ AGL.

New caution alerts are inhibited from 80 KIAS until reaching 400’ AGL.

PWS alerts that occurred prior to the inhibit range are not removed.

During approach and landing, new caution alerts are inhibited below 400’ AGL. New warning alerts are inhibited below 50’ AGL. Existing PWS alerts that occurred prior to the inhibit range are not removed. All caution and warning alerts are inhibited above 1200’ AGL

Predictive below 2300
Non below 1500

125
Q

In what phase of flight will you get a GPWS ”Sink Rate” warning?

A

Excessive descent rate

126
Q

What is the purpose of the Event Record switch?

How many events can be recorded?

A

Pushing the EICAS EVENT RCD switch records currently displayed engine indications and additional EICAS maintenance information.

Up to 5 events may be recorded

The system also records out of limit parameters and related conditions automatically when a system parameter is exceeded.

127
Q

What is a Status message?

A

All EICAS status messages are listed in the Dispatch Deviation Guide (DDG) and provide a cross reference to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for dispatch capability.

Equipment fault which is requiring MEL reference for dispatch

128
Q

What does the TCAS alert “Traffic, Traffic” mean?

A

A TA is a prediction another aircraft will enter the conflict airspace in 25 to 45 seconds.

TAs assist the flight crew in establishing visual
contact with the other

RA will generate a warning 20 to 30 sec.

129
Q

What switch turns on TCAS advisories on the ND?

A

TFC button on EFIS Control Panel

130
Q

What is the max wind allowed when operating the main cargo door?

A

40 Kts

131
Q

What is the max ZFW of the BCF’S?

A

610,000 lbs

132
Q

What is the max tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

15 kts

133
Q

Max takeoff crosswind component for a dry runway?

Landing?

A

40/36kts

134
Q

Max depth of slush for landing?

A

0.5”

135
Q

What is the Max landing weight of the ERF?

A

653,000lbs

136
Q

What is the minimum Crew Oxygen dispatch pressure?

A

1400psi

137
Q

What is the minimum TCH?

A

40’

138
Q

Max N1?

A

GE 117.5

PW 111.4

139
Q

Max engine start EGT?

A

GE 750 Degree Celcious
PW 535

140
Q

With a Left Duct Ovht, what systems are no longer available?

A

L wing anti-ice
Pack 1
No. 1 Demand pump

Kalitta 747-400 Captain Upgrade OKE (2 decks)

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