Kalat Textbook Stop & Check Questions Flashcards
1
Q
How does an evolutionary explanation differ from a functional explanation?
A
Evolutionary explanations state what evolved from what.
E.g. Humans evolved from earlier primates therefore we inherited features from those ancestors even if they don’t help us today.
Functional explanations state why something was advatangeous and there for evolutionarily selected
2
Q
Define biological psychology
A
the study of physiological, evolutionary and developmental mechanisms of behaviour and experience
3
Q
Suppose you have a high sensitivity to tasting PTC. If your mother can also taste it easily, what (if anything) can you predict about your fathers ability to taste it?
A
If your mother has a high sensitivity to the taste of PTC no predictions can be made about the father as it is a dominant gene and you inherited one copy of the gene from your mother
4
Q
Suppose you have a high sensitivity to tasting PTC. If your mother has a low sensitivity, what (if anything) can you predict about your fathers ability to taste it?
A
If your mother has a low sensitivity you must have inherited the gene from your father (as PTC is dominant) as he must have a high sensitivity
5
Q
How does a sex-linked gene differ from a sex-limited gene?
A
A sex linked gene is on a sex chromosome (usually the X chromosome).
A sex-limited gene can be on any chromosome but is activated by a sex hormone therefore the effects are only seen in one sex or the other.
6
Q
Suppose someone identifies a ‘gene’ for certain aspects of sexual development. In what ways might that statement be misleading?
A
The effect of a gene depends on other influences.
E.g. a gene affecting sexual development is more likely to be active in adolescence and can be affected by diet, exercise, social influences e.t.c
7
Q
How does an epigenetic change differ from a mutation?
A
A mutation is a permanent change in part of a chromosome.
Epigenetic change is an increased or decreased activity on a gene or group of genes - its effects can last months or years but are not likely to be present over multiple generations.
8
Q
How does adding a methyl or acetyl group to a histone protein alter gene activity?
A
Methyl groups tighten the histone molecules ‘grip’ on DNA exposing fewer genes for activation.
Acetyl groups loosen the histone grip so increases gene activation
9
Q
What are the main types of evidence to estimate the heritability of some behaviour?
A
- greater similarity between monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins.
- resemblance between adopted children and their biological parents.
- A demonstration that a gene is more common in a population exhibiting a certain behaviour.
10
Q
Suppose someone determines the heritability of IQ scores for a given population. The society changes in a way that provides the best possible opportunity for everyone within that population. Will heritability increase, decrease or remain the same?
A
Heritability will increase.
Heritability estimates how much of a variation is due to a difference in genes. Therefore if the environment is the same for everyone, it cannot account for any differences.
11
Q
Provide an example that shows that even if a characteristic is highly heritable, a change in environment can alter it.
A
Keeping a child with the PKU gene on a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent mental retardation. (inability to process protein, managed by a low/protein diet)
12
Q
People believe the human appendix is useless. Will it become smaller over each generation?
A
No. Usefulness will not cause a structure to change.
If people with smaller appendixes continue to reproduce with each other, eventually appendixes will shrink.
13
Q
What are two plausible ways for altruistic genes to spread in a population?
A
- Altruistic genes could spread because the facilitate care for ones kin or favours in others (reciprocal altruism).
- Group selection, especially if the group rejects non-altruistic individuals
14
Q
How doe the minimalist position differ from the abolitionist position in regards to the use of animals in research?
A
Minimalist = limiting animal research to studies with little discomfort to the animal with much potential value.
Abolitionist = eliminate all animal testing regardless of the study’s value
15
Q
describe the reasons biological psychologists conduct much of their research on non human animals.
A
To study the animal itself.
To understand human evolution (most animals have a short lifespan than us).
Some procedures may be illegal or unethical in humans.
16
Q
- what are the widely branching structures of a neuron called?
- And what is the long thin structure that carries information to another cell called?
A
- Dendrites.
2. Axon
17
Q
Which animal species would have the longest axons?
A
The longest axons occur in the largest animals e.g. giraffes or elephants.
18
Q
Identify the four major structures that make up a neuron
A
- Dendrites
- Soma (cell body)
- Axon
- presynaptic terminal
19
Q
Which kind of glia cell wraps around the synaptic terminals of axons?
A
Astrocytes
20
Q
Identify one major advantage and disadvantage of having a blood-brain barrier.
A
The blood-brain barrier keeps out viruses (advantage) but also most nutrients (disadvantage)
21
Q
Which chemicals cross the blood-brain barrier passively?
A
Small, uncharged molecules pass passively e.g. Oxygen, Carbon dioxide and water and Chemicals that are lipid soluble when they encounter the fats of the membrane
22
Q
Which chemicals cross the blood-brain barrier by active transport?
A
Glucose, amino acids, purines, choline, certain vitamins, iron and some hormones
23
Q
What is the difference between hyperpolarisation and depolarisation?
A
Hyperpolarisation exaggerates the usual negative charge within a cell. Depolarisation decreases the negative charge within a cell
24
Q
What is the relationship between the threshold and an action potential?
A
Depolarisation that passes the threshold produces an action potential.
25
During the rise of the action potential do sodium ions move into the cell or out of it?
Why?
During the action potential sodium ions enter the cell.
The voltage dependent sodium gates have opened so the sodium can move freely.
Sodium is attracted to the interior of the cell by an electrical and concentration gradient.
26
As the membrane reaches the peak of the action potential, what brings the membrane down to the resting-potential?
After the peak of the action potential, potassium ions exit the cell, driving the membrane back to its resting potential.
27
State the all-or-none law.
The size and shape of the action potential are independent of the intensity stimulus that initiated it.
That is, every depolarisation beyond the threshold of excitation produces an action potential of the same amplitude and velocity for a given axon.
28
Does the all-or-none law apply to dendrites?
why or why not?
No because dendrites do not have action potentials
29
Suppose a researcher finds that axon A can produce up to 1,000 action potentials per second (at least briefly, with maximum stimulation), but axon B can never produce more that 100 per second (regardless of the strength of the stimulus).
What could we conclude about the refractory periods of the two axons?
Axon A must have a shorter refractory period (about 1ms) whereas Axon B must have a longer refractory period (about 10ms)
30
In a myleniated axon, how would the action potential be affected if the nodes were much closer together?
How might it be affected if the nodes were much further apart?
If the nodes were closer together the action potential would travel slower.
If they were much further apart the action potential would travel faster IF it could jump from one node to the next - when the distance becomes too great the current cannot diffuse between nodes (jumping) so the action potential stops).
31
What evidence led Sherrington to conclude that transmission at a synapse is different from transmission along an axon?
he found the velocity through a reflex arc was slower that the velocity of an action potential along an axon therefore some delay must occur between one neuron and and the next.
32
What is the difference between temporal summation and spatial summation?
Temporal summation = the combined effect of quickly repeated stimulation at a single synapse.
Spatial summation = the combined effect of several nearly simultaneous stimulations at several synapses onto one neuron.
33
What was Sherrington's evidence for inhibition in the nervous system?
Sherrington found that a reflex that stimulates a flexor muscle prevents contraction of the extensor muscles of the same limb.
= axons send an excitatory message for the flexor and an inhibitor for the extensor.
34
What ion gates in the membrane open during an EPSP?
What gates open during and IPSP?
EPSP = sodium gates open
IPSP = potassium or chloride gates open
35
Can inhibitory messages flow along an axon?
no. Only action potentials propagate along an axon.
Inhibitory (IPSP) messages decay over time and distance
36
What was Loewi's evidence that neurotransmission depends on the release of chemicals?
When Loewi stimulated a nerve that increased or decreased a frog's heart rate, he could draw fluid from around the heart and transfer it to another frogs heart which increased or decreased the second frog's heart.
37
Amino acids
acids containing an amine group (NH2)
glutamate
GABA
Glycine
Aspartate
38
Monoamines
Chemical formed by a change in certain amino acids
```
indoleamines = serotonin
Catecholamines = dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine
```
39
Acetylcholine
a one member "family"
| chemical similar to an Amino Acid but has an N(CH3)3 group instead of NH2
40
Neuropeptides
chains of amino acids
Endorphins
Substance P
Neuropeptide Y
41
Purines
a category of chemicals including adenosine & ATP
42
What does a highly active brain area do to increase its blood supply?
many stimulated neurons release Nitric Oxide (NO) to dilate the blood vessels increasing blood flow.
43
Catecholamines
dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine
44
When the action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, which ion must enter the presynaptic terminal to evoke release of the neurotransmitter?
Calcium
45
how do ionotropic and metabotropic synapses differ in speed and duration of effects
Ionotropic synapses act more quickly and more briefly
46
what are second messengers, and which type of synapse relies on them?
At metabotropic synapses, the neurotransmitter attaches to its receptor an thereby releases a chemical (the second messenger) within the postsynaptic cell which alters the metabolism or gene expression of the post synaptic cell
47
how are neuropeptides special compared to other transmitters?
neuropeptides are released only after prolonged stimulation, but when they are released they are released in large amounts by all parts of the neuron not just the axon terminal.
they diffuse widely producing long lasting effects in many neurons.
48
Which part of the pituitary - anterior or posterior - is neural tissue, similar to the hypothalamus? Which part is glandular tissue and produces hormones that control the secretion by other endocrine organs?
The posterior pituitary is neural tissue like the hypothalamus.
The anterior pituitary is glandular tissue and produces hormones that control several other endocrine organs
49
in what way is a neuropeptide intermediate between other neurotransmitters and hormones?
Neuropeptides are released into the brain in larger amounts or not at all. When released the diffuse more widely
50
What happens to acetylcholine molecules after they stimulate a postsynaptic receptor?
The enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine molecules into two similar molecules: acetate and choline which are then reabsorbed by the presynaptic terminal.
51
What happens to serotonin and catecholamine molecules after they stimulate a postsynaptic receptor?
Most serotonin and catecholamine molecules are reabsorbed by the presynaptic terminal. Some of their molecules are broken don into inactive chemicals which then diffuse away.
52
Is a drug with high affinity and low efficacy an agonist or an antagonist?
Antagonist
Because it occupies the receptor and blocking out the neurotransmitter.
53
What do drug use, sex, gambling and video game playing have in common?
They increase the release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens.
54
how do amphetamine and cocaine influence dopamine synapses?
They interfere with the re-uptake of dopamine.
55
What is methylphenidate generally less disruptive to behaviour than cocaine is, despite the drugs similar mechanisms?
The effects of a methlyphenidate pill develop and decline in the brain much more slowly than do those of cocaine.
56
How does nicotine affect dopamine synapses?
Nicotine excites acetylcholine receptors on neurons that release dopamine and thereby increases dopamine release.
57
How do opiates influence dopamine synapses?
Opiates stimulate endorphin synapses, which inhibit neurons that inhibit the release of dopamine
58
What are the effects of cannabinoids on neurons?
Cannabinoids released by the postsynaptic neuron attach to receptors in presynaptic neurons, where they inhibit further release of both glutamate and GABA
59
if incoming serotonin axons were destroyed, LSD would still have its full effects. However if incoming dopamine axons were destroyed, amphetamine and cocaine would lose their effects. Explain the difference.
Amphetamine and cocaine act by increasing the net release of dopamine and other transmitters. if those neurons were damaged, amphetamine and cocaine would be ineffective.
LSD directly stimulates the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane.
60
Which type of alcoholism - type I or type II - has a stronger genetic basis? Which type has earlier onset?
Type II has a stronger genetic basis and earlier onset.
61
Name two ways a gene could influence alcoholism.
Genes can influence alcoholism by producing less sensitive dopamine receptors, faster breakdown of dopamine by the enzyme COMT, great risk taking behaviour and altered response to stress.
62
What are two ways sons of Alcoholics differ behaviourally on average, from sons of non alcoholics?
Sons of alcoholics show less intoxication, including less body sway, after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. They also show greater relief from stress after drinking.
63
Someone who is quitting an addictive substance for the first time is strongly advised not to try it again. Why?
Taking an addictive drug during the withdrawal period is likely to lead to a habit of using the drug to relieve other kinds of distress.
64
When addiction develops, how does the nucleus accumbens change its response to the addictive activity and to other reinforcements?
The nucleus accumbens becomes selectively sensitised, increasing its response to the addictive activity and decreasing its response to other reinforcing activities .
65
Who would be likely to drink more alcohol - someone who metabolises acetaldehyde to acetic acid rapidly or one who metabolise it slowly?
People who metabolise it rapidly would be more likely to drink alcohol because they suffer fewer unpleasant effects.
66
How does Antabuse work?
Antabuse blocks the enzyme that converts acetaldehyde to acetic acid and therefore makes people sick if they drink alcohol. Potentially it could create an aversion to alcohol.
67
Methadone users who try taking heroin experience little effect from it. Why?
Methadone is already occupying the endorphin receptors, heroin cannot dd much more stimulation to them.
68
What does dorsal mean?
what is its opposite?
Dorsal = towards the back, away from the stomach side.
Ventral = opposite of dorsal.
69
'What term means toward the side, away from the midline", and what is its opposite?
Lateral = towards the side away from the midline.
Medial = opposite of lateral
70
If two structures are both on the left side of the body they are ______ to each other. If one is on the left and the other is on the right, they are _______ to each other.
ipsilateral, contralateral
71
The bulges in the cerebral cortex are called ______. the grooves between them are called ________.
gyri, sulci
72
Sensory nerves enter which side of the spinal cord, dorsal or ventral?
Dorsal
73
Which functions are controlled by the sympathetic nervous system?
prepares organs for vigorous fight or flight activity
74
Which functions are controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system?
increases vegetative responses such as digestion
75
Of the following which are in the:
- hindbrain
- midbrain
- forebrain
1. basal ganglia
2. cerebellum
3. hippocampus
4. hypothalamus
5. medulla
6. pituitary gland
7. pons
8. substantia nigra
9. superior and inferior colliculi
10. tectum
11. tegmentum
12. thalamus
Hindbrain:
- cerebellum
- medulla
- pons
Midbrain:
- Substantia nigra
- superior & inferior colliculi
- tectum
- tegmentum
Forebrain:
- basal ganglia
- hippocampus
- hypothalamus
- pituitary
- thalamus
76
Which area is the main source of input to the cerebral cortex?
Thalamus
77
if several neurons of the visual cortex all respond best when the retina is exposed to horizontal lines of light, then those neurons are probably in the same _____.
Column.
78
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex includes the primary auditory cortex?
temporal lobe
79
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex includes the primary somatosensory cortex?
Parietal lobe
80
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex includes the primary visual cortex?
Occipital lobe
81
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex includes the primary motor cortex?
Frontal lobe
82
What are the functions of the prefrontal cortex?
The prefrontal cortex is especially important for working memory.
(memory for what is currently happening)
and for planning actions based on context.
83
What is meant by the 'binding problem'?
What is necessary for binding to occur?
binding problem = question of how the brain combines activity in different areas of the brain to produce unified perception and coordinated behaviour.
requires:
Identifying the location of an object
perceiving sight, sound and other aspects of the stimulus as being simultaneous.
When sight and sound appear to come from the same location we bind them as a single experience
84
what is the difference between a lesion and an ablation
lesion = damage to a structure
ablation = removal of the structure
85
how do the effects of brief, mild magnetic stimulation differ from those of longer, more intense stimulation?
brief, mild magnetic stimulation increases activity in underlying brain areas
Intense stimulation blocks it.
86
Why does electrical or magnetic stimulation of the brain seldom produce complex, meaningful sensations or movements?
Meaningful sensation/ movements require a pattern of precisely timed activity in many cells.
87
What does fMRI measure?
Change in blood flow to the brain, detecting increase in blood flow to an area immediately an increase in brain activity.
88
Suppose someone demonstrates that a particular brain area becomes active when people listen to music. when that area becomes active later, what, if anything, can we conclude?
Without further evidence we shouldn't draw any conclusions.
89
Why are both brain size and brain-to-body ratio unsatisfactory ways of estimating animal intelligence?
brain to body ratio depends on selection for thinness as well as selection for brain size.
Animal intelligence is undefined so we cant determine a correlation
If humans assume to be the most intelligent species, we have neither the largest brain nor the highest brain to body ratio
90
Why do recent studies show a stronger relationship between brain size and IQ than older studies did?
The use on MRI greatly improves the measurement of brain size in comparison to past measurements based on skull size
91
In which way do men and women differ most -
intellectual performance,
total gray matter or,
total white matter?
Men have more white matter - resulting in larger brains
Men and women have about equal gray matter an intellectual performance.
92
Which develops first, a neuron's axon or its dendrites?
the axon of a neuron develops first
93
In which brain areas do new neurons form in adults?
Olfactory receptors
Neurons in the hippocampus
(in certain bird species also in the song producing area of the brain)
94
What evidence indicated that new neurons seldom or never form in the adult cerebral cortex?
the 14C concentration in the DNA of cerebral cortex neurons corresponds to the level during the year the person was born, indicating that all, or nearly all of those neurons are as old as the person
95
What was Sperry's evidence that axons grow to a specific target instead of attaching at random?
Sperry found that if he cut a newt's eye and inverted it, axons grew back to their original targets, even though the connections were inappropriate to the new position of the eye
96
if all the cells in an amphibian's tectum produced the same amount of TOPdv what would be the effect on the attachment of axons?
Axons would attach haphazardly instead of arranging themselves according to their dorsoventral position on the retina
97
If axons from he retina were prevented from showing spontaneous activity during early development, what would be the probable effect on development of the lateral geniculate?
Axons would attach based on a chemical gradient but could not fine-tune their adjustment based on experience. Therefore, the connections would be less precise.
98
What process ensures that the spinal cord has the right number of axons to innervate all the muscle cells?
The nervous system builds far more neurons that it needs and discards through apoptosis that do not make lasting synapses
99
What class of chemicals prevents apoptosis?
Neurotrophins, such as nerve growth factor
100
At what age does a person have the greatest number of neurons? - Before birth, during childhood, during adolescence or during adulthood?
before birth
101
Anaesthetic drugs increase inhibition of neurons, blocking most action potentials. Why would we predict that exposure to anaesthetics might be dangerous to the brain of a fetus?
Prolonged exposure to anaesthetics might produce effects similar to foetal alcohol syndrome. foetal alcohol syndrome occurs because alcohol increases inhibition and therefore increases apoptosis of developing neurons.
102
in the ferret study, how did the experimenters determine that visual input to the auditory portions of the brain actually produce a visual sensation?
they trained he ferrets to respond to stimuli on the normal side, turning one direction in response to sounds and the other direction to lights. Then they presented light to the rewired side and saw that the ferret again turned in the direction it had associated with lights.
103
An enriched environment promotes growth of axons and dendrites. what is known to be one important reason for this effect?
Animals in an enriched environment are more active, and their exercise enhances growth of axons and dendrites.
104
Name two kinds of evidence indicating that touch information from the fingers activates the occipital cortes of people blind since birth.
first, brain scans indicate increased activity in the occipital cortex while blind people perform tasks such as feeling two objects and saying whether they are the same or different.
second, temporary inactivation of the occipital cortex blocks blind people's ability to perform that tasks, without affecting the ability of sighted people.
105
Under what circumstances would the occipital cortes of a sighted adult become responsive to touch?
A sighted person who practices tactile discrimination for a few days, such as learning braille while blind-folded, begins to use the occipital cortex for touch.
106
Which brain area shows expanded representation of the left hand in people who began practicing stringed instruments in childhood and continues for many years?
postcentral gyrus (somatosensory cortex) of the right hemisphere
107
What change in the brain is responsible for musician's cramp?
Extensive practice of instruments causes expanded representation of the fingers in the somatosensory cortex as well as displacement of representation of one or more fingers in the motor cortex.
if the sensory representation of two fingers overlaps too much, the person cannot feel them separately or move them separately.
108
What procedure is most promising for treating musician's cramp?
Training the person to attend to specific sensations in the hand. this training is intended to reorganise the brain representations.
109
Under what circumstances are adolescents most likely to make an impulsive decision?
Adolescents are most likely to make an impulsive decision when they have to decide quickly in the presence of peer pressure.
110
When people claim that adolescents make risky decisions because of the lack of inhibition, which brain area do they point to as being responsible for inhibition?
The prefrontal cortex
111
In what way do older adults compensate for less effective brain functioning?
many older people compensate by activating additional brain areas.
112
What are the two kinds of stroke, and what cases each kind?
Ischemia = most common
result of an occlusion of an artery
Haemorrhage is the result of a ruptured artery
113
why is tPA not helpful in the case of haemorrhage?
tPA (Tissue plasminogen activator) breaks up blood clots and haemorrhage results from a ruptured blood vessel not a blood clot.
114
If one of your relatives has a stroke and a well-meaning person offers a blanket what should you do?
refuse the blanket, recovery from a stroke is most effective is the stroke victim remains cold.
115
After someone has had a stroke, would it be best (of possible) to direct stimulant drugs to the cells that were damaged or somewhere else?
b
