Kahoots 04/08/2025 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is REQUIRED to set aside a default?
a. due diligence
b. excusable neglect
c. meritorious defense
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much advance notice is required for a deposition?
a. 14 days
b. 10 days
c. Rule 1.310 only requires “reasonable notice”
d. 7 days

A

c. Rule 1.310 only requires “reasonable notice”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can your client accept a Rule 1.442 proposal for settlement?
a. By telephone
b. by letter to opposing counsel confirming acceptance of the proposal
c. by written notice of acceptance 30 days after service of the proposal
d. none of the above

A

c. by written notice of acceptance 30 days after service of the proposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who is required to attend mediation on behalf of an insured corporate defendant?
a. the CEO of the client
b. the president of the client
c. an insurance adjuster with full authority to settle
d. none of the above

A

c. an insurance adjuster with full authority to settle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the deadline for filing affidavits in opposition to a Rule 1.530 motion for new trial?
a. 10 days after service of the motion for new trial
b. up to 20 days after service of the motion, upon good cause & court order
c. 30 days after service of the motion for new trial
d. both a and b

A

d. both a and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who may attend the deposition of a minor child?
a. the child’s parent
b. the child’s legal guardian
c. the child’s lawyer
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many days after service of process does a NON government defendant have to serve a responsive pleading or motion?
a. 20 days
b. 60 days
c. 45 days
d. 30 days

A

a. 20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How soon MUST a defendant serve a responsive pleading following an order denying a motion to dismiss?
a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. whatever time is fixed by the court in the order denying the motion
d. either a or c

A

d. either a or c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate remedy for claims by or against misjoined parties?
a. dismissal
b. severance
c. abatement
d. an order striking the misjoined parties

A

b. severance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the maximum number of requests for admission that can be served without obtaining leave of court?
a. 100
b. 50
c. 60
d. 30

A

d. 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a motion seeking relief from the court?
a. The motion must be made in writing unless made during a hearing or trial
b. the motion must state with particularity the grounds for it
c. the motion must set forth the relief or order sought
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What constitutes excusable neglect for an extension of time?
a. A breakdown of the tickler and calendar systems in an attorney’s office
b. secretarial or clerical error
c. “I forgot”
d. both a and b

A

d. both a and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False
The plaintiff has 120 days after commencement of an action to serve the summons and complaint

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False
A party has 30 days after discovery of inadvertent disclosure to serve written notice of the assertion of privilege.

A

False. It has 10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False
To set aside a default, you can establish the existence of a meritorious defense by argument at a hearing on the motion.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False
A party MUST file a motion for substitution within 120 days after the death is suggested upon the record.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False
Convenience of the lawyers is a factor to be considered by the court in ruling on a motion to consolidate.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False
A court MUST consider unnecessary costs and delays when ruling on a motion to consolidate.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False
A motion for continuance based on witness unavailability MUST indicate when the witness will be available.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False
In ruling on a motion to consolidate, the court MUST consider whether the litigation will be accelerated

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or False
A motion for continuance MUST state the grounds for the continuance.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False
A motion for continuance MUST be made no later than the pretrial conference.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A Rule 1.442 PFS MUST be served on the opposing party AND contemporaneously filed with the court

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False
An expert witness MUST provide you with her college transcripts if requested in discovery.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
True or False A party is REQUIRED to file information obtained through discovery with the court no later than 30 days before trial.
False
26
True or False Service of pleadings via email is complete upon confirmation of service by a Microsoft Outlook delivery receipt.
False
27
True or False The Florida Bar Number of all counsel of record is REQUIRED in the body of an email serving pleadings by email.
False
28
True or False A case can be referred to mediation ONLY after all discovery has been completed.
False
29
True or False A motion to strike sham pleadings MUST be verified.
True
30
True or False A videographer hired by the plaintiff may attend a compulsory physical examination of the plaintiff.
True
31
True or False The governor has the exclusive authority to adopt rules of practice and procedure in the Florida courts
False
32
True or False The deposition of an incarcerated individual does NOT require leave of court.
False.
33
True or False Performance of conditions precedent MUST be plead with specificity.
False
34
True or False A motion for judgment on the pleadings MUST be filed within 20 days after service of the summons and complaint.
False
35
True or False In a personal injury lawsuit for a minor child's injuries, the real party in interest is the child's guardian ad litem.
False.
36
True or False A post-verdict Rule 1.480 motion for directed verdict MUST be made within 15 days of the verdict.
True
37
True or False Mediation MUST be held within 45 days of the order of referral.
False.
38
True or False A Rule 1.480 motion for directed verdict MUST be renewed at the close of all the evidence
True
39
True or False An accident reconstruction engineer is NOT an expert witness subject to the discovery provisions of Rule 1.280.
False
40
True or False Failure to wear an available, operational seatbelt is a defense that can be raised by motion at the option of a pleader.
False
41
True or False Incident reports prepared in anticipation of litigation are work product.
True
42
True or False Failure to secure the presence of a non-party witness at deposition by serving a subpoena can result in sanctions.
True
43
True or False When an elected official is sued in her official capacity, the official's successor is automatically substituted.
True
44
True or False A party seeking to intervene MUST file an appeal within 60 days of the order denying the motion to intervene.
False
45
True or False A party responding to discovery with a response that was complete MUST supplement when learning of new information.
True
46
True or False Although witness statements are work product, a party is entitled to a copy of his or her own statement.
True
47
True or False If neither party requests a jury trial, they can always request a jury trial at the pretrial conference.
False
48
True or False Failure of a party to attend mediation with full, on-site settlement authority can result in an award of sanctions
True
49
True or False A plaintiff can serve the defendant with a Rule 1.442 PFS within 45 days of commencement of the action.
False.
50
True or False A party can withdraw a Rule 1.442 PFS by telephone
False
51
True or False The estimated length of each deposition is NOT required in a motion to take pre-suit deposition.
True
52
True or False Unsupported allegations of misconduct are sufficient to support a motion to amend to add a punitive damage claim.
False
53
True or False A court can consider live testimony at a hearing on a motion for summary judgment.
False
54
True or False A Rule 1.442 PFS may NOT contain any non-monetary terms except dismissal with prejudice & any terms required by statute.
True
55
True or False A party whose motion to intervene was denied MUST appeal within 30 days of the order denying the motion.
True
56
True or False You may ONLY use an opposing party's deposition at trial to contradict/impeach prior inconsistent statements.
False.
57
True or False The court should consider the possibility of inconsistent verdicts when ruling on a motion to consolidate.
True
58
True or False Under Rule 1.610, a substantial likelihood of success on the merits is FATAL to request for temporary injunctive relief.
False
59
True or False A party make an oral motion for continuance at any time during a hearing attended by all counsel of record.
False
60
True or False Absent court order or stipulation, mediation shall be completed within 90 days of the first mediation conference.
False
61
True or False Surveillance films prepared in anticipation of litigation are NOT included within the scope of work product.
False
62
True or False A governmental entity sued under 768.28 has 30 days from the date of service to serve an answer or responsive motion.
True
63
True or False Any third-party claims NOT asserted in the original action are waived
False
64
True or False The clerk of the court can enter a final default judgment.
False
65
True or False Improper venue is waived if not raised in the initial responsive pleading or motion.
True
66
True or False The defense of failure to join an indispensable party can be made by motion at the option of the pleader.
True
67
True or False A treating physician is NOT an expert witness subject to the discovery provisions of Rule 1.280.
True
68
True or False: A Rule 1.480 motion for directed verdict must be made at the conclusion of closing argument.
False.
69
True or False Special damages MUST be pled with specificity
True
70
True or False A video deposition does NOT require leave of court.
True
71
True or False Counsel for the defendant MAY attend a CME of the plaintiff
False
72
True or False An action for foreclosure on a mortgage for residential real property is NOT required to be verified.
False
73
True of False The title of each document served with the email is NOT required in the BODY of an email serving a document by email.
False
74
True or False Service by email complete on the date that is sent.
True
75
True or False A party may file information obtained through discovery ONLY when allowed or required by rule or court order.
True
76
True or False A party seeking attorney fees pursuant to a PFS must file and serve a motion within 45 days of the entry of judgment.
False
77
True or False A case can be referred to mediation at any time by order of the court.
True
78
True or False A motion for continuance CAN'T be made later than the pretrial conference.
False
79
True or False In evaluating consolidation, a court should consider whether consolidation would deprive a party of a substantive right.
True
80
True or False You can obtain an expert's tax returns from the expert through discovery.
False
81
True or False A court can consolidate actions from 2 different judicial circuits.
False
82
True or False The Florida Bar Civil Procedure Rules Committee has the exclusive authority to adopt rules of practice and procedure.
False
83
True or False If your client believes that a court appointed mediator is biased or prejudiced, she can refuse to participate.
False
84
True or False A deposition by communication technology can take place upon agreement of the parties.
True
85
True or False A pleading which sets forth a claim for relief must contain any affirmative defenses or avoidance.
False
86
True or False Fraud must be pled with specificity.
True.
87
True or False Malice must be pled with specificity
False
88
True or False A motion for judgment on the pleadings can only be filed after the pleadings are closed
True
89
True or False A Rule 1.480 motion for directed verdict must be made at the end of the non-moving party's case in chief.
True
90
True or False A party may not begin discovery until it has complied with Rule 1.280's mandatory disclosure requirements.
True
91
True or False The defense of lack of jurisdiction over the person is waived if not raised in an answer or motion.
True
92
True or False The clerk of court can issue a writ of garnishment.
True
93
True or False A party can file third-party claims without leave of court within 30 days of serving its answer.
False.
94
True or False A defendant MUST serve an answer or responsive motion within 20 days after service of process and the initial pleading.
True
95
True or False Unless a party obtains leave of court, it may NOT serve more than 30 interrogatories to another party.
True