Kahoot Questions (Exam III)

Question 1

T/F… A normal BUN concentration is 10 - 20 mg/dL?

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Which of the following drugs undergo hepatic metabolism and conjugation prior to elimination in the urine:

A. Pavulon
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Anectine
D. Opioids

Answer 2

A, B, and D

Question 3

The ideal volatile anesthetic for renal patients is…

Answer 3

Forane (Isoflurane)

Question 4

Angiotensin, norepinephrine, and ______ influence renal artery tone.

Answer 4

Epinephrine

Question 5

Which kidney sits lower in the retroperitoneum?

Answer 5

Right

Question 6

The primary source of urea is the….

Answer 6

liver.

Question 7

Which of the following is not a layer of the kidney?

A. Renal Capsule
B. Renal Fascia
C. Adipose Capsule
D. Fibrous Capsule

Answer 7

C. Adipose Capsule is not part of the kidney

Question 8

A patient’s creatinine clearance was measured at 110 - 150ml/min. Is this normal or not?

Answer 8

Normal

Question 9

What is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

Answer 9

Renin

Question 10

T/F… creatinine clearance will measure 40-60 ml/min in mild renal impairment.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

What degree of renal impairment is noted by a creatinine clearance of 25-40 ml/min?

Answer 11

Moderate renal impairment

Question 12

Why are stents placed for a gynecologic case?

Answer 12

• ↓ risk of UTI
• Easier to locate the ureters

Question 13

Is male serum creatinine typically lower than female’s?

Answer 13

No

• Male: 0.8 - 1.3 mg/dL
• Female: 0.6 - 1 mg/dL

Question 14

T/F… acceptable urine output in the OR is 0.5 ml/kg/hr, unless the patient is on bypass and then the requirement is 1 ml/kg/hr.

Answer 14

True

Question 15

Succinylcholine may increase K⁺ by ___ mEq.

Answer 15

0.5

Question 16

Which of the following factors does not accurately predict the likelihood of postoperative acute renal failure?

a. Pre-existing renal disease
b. Advanced age
C. CHF
D. Past hypokalemia

Answer 16

D. Past hypokalemia does not predict likelihood of post-op renal failure.

Question 17

Which of the following drugs can cause hepatitis?

a. Analgesics
b. Anticonvulsants
c. VAAs
d. Tranquilizers

Answer 17

All the above

Question 18

What liver surgical procedure is associated with the highest mortality?

Answer 18

Laparotomy

Question 19

Manifestations of EtOH withdrawal can occur within __________ hours after no alcohol intake.

Answer 19

24 - 72

Question 20

What is the largest (non-skin) organ in the body?

Answer 20

Liver

Question 21

T/F… Hepatitis A is the most commonly transmitted blood-borne pathogen.

Answer 21

False. Hepatitis B is.

Question 22

T/F… Cirrhotic patients should be resuscitated with LR or NS.

Answer 22

False. Cirrhotic patients should receive colloids (albumin)

Question 23

Which of the following is not a metabolic function of the liver?

a. Carbohydrate metabolism
b. Fat metabolism
c. Protein metabolism
d. Rocuronium metabolism

Answer 23

Trick question. All the above are metabolic functions of the liver

Question 24

PT measures the _______ pathway.

Answer 24

extrinsic

Question 25

What cellular portion of the liver cleans blood?

Answer 25

Kupffer cells

Question 26

A platelet count of less than _______ requires pre-operative replacement.

Answer 26

50,000

Question 27

T/F... Chronic alcoholism increases MAC for isoflurane, likely due to cross-tolerance.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

What is the most common cause of liver cirrhosis?

Answer 28

EtOH

Question 29

T/F... Anesthetic drugs may cause post-operative liver dysfunction to be exaggerated.

Answer 29

True

Question 30

Cirrhosis results in splenomegaly, esophageal varices, and left heart failure.

Answer 30

False. RHF not LHF.

Question 31

Plasma cholinesterase may be _____ in severe liver disease.

Answer 31

decreased

Question 32

A PACU patient develops a hematoma after carotid surgery with airway obstruction, what is the best treatment?

Answer 32

Surgical decompression

Question 33

Which anesthetic technique is preferred for carotid surgery?

Answer 33

Regional so we can monitor for stroke.

Question 34

Which type of Stanford dissection does not involve the ascending aorta? a. A b. B c. 1 d. 3

Answer 34

b. Stanford type B

Question 35

Which of the following is a both a risk factor for vascular disease and a complication of its development? a. Diabetes b. HTN c. Renal Failure d. Smoking

Answer 35

B. Hypertension

Question 36

Which of the following is a characteristic of of anterior spinal artery syndrome? a. paralysis of the upper extremities b. loss of bowel and bladder function c. loss of touch and proprioception

Answer 36

b. loss of bowel and bladder function

Question 37

The risk of pneumonia is how many times higher in smokers than non-smokers?

Answer 37

Twice as high

Question 38

Activation of which reflex may cause bradycardia in a carotid surgery patient?

Answer 38

Baroreceptor reflex

Question 39

Which blood product is most likely to cause TRALI?

Answer 39

Plasma

Question 40

Which is more predominant, RH+ or RH- ?

Answer 40

RH+

Question 41

Which blood product contains the largest amount of fibrinogen?

Answer 41

Cryoprecipitate

Question 42

Which blood type offers the most donor capability?

Answer 42

O-

Question 43

Administration of which product type (O+ or O-) may cause incompatibility and require Rhogam treatment?

Answer 43

O+

Question 44

Which chemical is added to blood products as a preservative?

Answer 44

CPDA-1

Question 45

Which TEG value measures fibrinolysis?

Answer 45

LY30

Question 46

Does Ca⁺⁺ gluconate or Ca⁺⁺ chloride contain more calcium?

Answer 46

Ca⁺⁺ chloride