Kahoot Exam 4 questions Flashcards
Surgery is indicated for aortic aneurysms that exceed: (2)
5.5 cm
>10 mm per yr
Anterior spinal artery syndrome is characterized by: (3)
Loss of motor function
Autonomic dysfunction
Hypotension
The most common causes of Anterior Spinal Artery Syndrome include: (3)
Aortic Aneuryms
Aortic Dissections
Atherosclerosis
Ascending aortic aneurysms includes: (3)
Debakey 1
Debakey 2
Standford A
Most common deficit associated with aortic arch replacement requiring cardiopulmonary bypass?
Neurologic
Which population is aortic dissection most common? (2)
Males
3rd trimester pregnancy
Most abdominal aortic aneurysms rupture into the:
Left retroperitoneum
Primary causes of mortality r/t surgeries of thoracic aorta include: (2)
MI
CVA
Most commonly, cardiogenic embolisms originate from: (2)
Left atrial thrombus
Left Ventricle thrombus
Subclavian Steal Syndrome leads to:
Retrograde blood flow in the ipsilateral SCA
Superficial thrombophlebitis & DVT are most seen with almsot half of patients undergoing which specific surgery:
Total Hip replacement
Which is true regarding LMWH vs unfractionated heparin? (2)
Longer half life
Not reversible
Pts w/ a hx of TIA have a ____ times greater risk of CVA.
10x
CMRO2 is affected by: (2)
Depth of anesthesia
Temperature
What is the lifespan of non-activated platelets?
8-12 days
What plt activation phase occurs when:
Upon interaction w/ collagen&tissue factor
What element is an essential part of coagulation activation tenase complexes?
Calcium
Prothrombinase complex is composed of which factors? (2)
Factor Xa
Factor Va
Which factor activated activates factor IX? (2)
TF/VIIa Complex
XIa
Phase 2 Hemostasis is primarily initiated by:
Extrinsic pathway
Which system mainly amplifies thrombin generation?
Intrinsic Pathway
Prothombinase complex converts: (2)
Prothrombin to thrombin
Factor II to IIa
Coagulation counter mechanisms include: (4)
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
Protein C
Serine Protease Inhibitors
Endovascular TPA & Urokinase
Supplements that cause blood-thining include: (2)
Tumeric
Vit E
vWF prevents degradationof which factor?
VIII
Which lab value may be abnormal in hemophilia?
PTT
Which clotting factors are not produced in the liver? (2)
VIII
II
Which anticoagulant factors are produced in the liver? (3)
Protein C
Protein S
Antithrombin
Anemia of chronic kidney disease is due to: (2)
EPO deficiency
Plt dysfunction
Lab findings associated w/ DIC include: (4)
Thrombocytopenia
Increased Fibrin
Increased Fibrin degradation
Prolonged PT/PTT
What is the innermost layer of the GI tract?
Mucosa
What is the best test to detect gastroparesis?
Gastric emptying study
Which type of achalasia is associated with the worst outcomes?
Type 3
What is the most effective nonsurgical treatment of achalasia?
Pneumatic dilation
Normal LES pressure is?
29 mmhg
The descending colon and distal GI tract are innervated by the:
Hypogastric Plexus
Which of th efollowing describes an independent nervous system, which controls the motility, secretion, and bloodflow?
Enteric Nervous System
Which feature of the myenteric plexus controls motility? (3)
Enteric neurons
Interstitial cells of Cajal
Smooth muscle cells
Which of th following presents a major anesthesia challenge in colonoscopy?
Dehyrdration
Whic hormones paly a role in gastric motility? (3)
Gastrin - stimulate
Gastric inhibitory peptide - inhibit
Motilin - stimulate
Common causes of gastric ulcers include: (3)
ETOH
H. Pylori
NSAIDS
Which of the follwoing are beneficial preop interventions for zollinger ellision syndrome? (4)
Administer PPI
Correct electrolytes
RSI
Suction @ head of bed
Symptoms associated with chrohns disease include: (3)
Steatorrhea
Malabsorption
Ileocolitis
IBD treatments include: (3)
Steroids
5-Acetylsalicylic acid
Rifaximin
There are 6 anterior pituitary hormones, they include. (3)
Growth Hormone (Somatotrophin)
Prolactin
TSH
The posterior pituitary hormones are ___. (2)
ADH
Oxytocin
T/F
DI is characterized by excessive urine production.
True
A serum sodium less than 110 meq/L may result in ____. (2)
Cerebral Edema
Seizures
SIADH is inappropriate release of ADH seen with _____. (4)
Cancer of the lung
Hypothyroidism
Porphyria
Intracranial tumors
Treatement of SIADH includes: (4)
Fluid Restriction
Hypotonic saline
Vasopressin
Demeclocycline
Anesthesia considerations associated with acromegaly include: (3)
Vocal cord hypertrophy
Sketetal muscle weakness
Soft tissue overgrowth
The types of DM include: (4)
Type I: autoimmune;destruction beta cells; random BG>200
Type II: Beta cell insufficiency or insulin resistance
Type III: Gestational DM
Metabolic syndrome: Insulin resistance with hypertension, dyslipidemia
DM can result in which type of Coma: (3)
Hypoglycemia: BG <50 dl in adult
Hyperglycemia, hyperosmolar nonketotic coma: Type 2. serum osmolarity >320
DKA: > ketoacids and metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia
T/F
DKA is more common in T2 DM.
F
Treatment of DKA includes: (3)
Aggressive isotonic Resuscitation
Insulin 0.1 mcg/kg/hr
Correct electrolyte derangements
Hyperosmolar nonketotic coma has a mortality approaching 50%, grave concerns include: (2)
CV collapse due to extreme osmotic diuresis
CNS hyperosmolar dysfunction
The symptoms of Whipple’s triad strongly associated with insulinoma include: (3)
Symptoms of hypoglycemia provoked by fasting
BG <50 mg/dL
Relief of symptoms w/ glucose
Normal daily release of cortisol is 20 mg/day, under stress this may increase to ____.
150 mg/day
S/S of cushings disease or hypercortisolism include: (2)
Emotional Changes
Hyperglycemia
Addison’s Disease aka adrenal insufficiency has 2 type: (2)
Primary
Secondary
The four H’s of Addison Disease include: (4)
Hypotension
Hyponatremia
Hypovolemia
Hyperkalemia
Management goals for patients undergoing adrenalectomy include: (2)
Regulate HTN
Control Hyperglycemia
Plasma levels associated with pheochromocytoma inlcude: (2)
Plasma normetanephrine > 400 pg/ml
Metanephrine >220 pg/ml
