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KAHOOT Questions > Kahoot > Flashcards

Kahoot Flashcards

1
Q

A patient with exercise induced asthma would be considered what ASA classification?

A

ASA III

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2
Q

All are true of dental biofilm except one. What is the exception?

A

Consists of a community of bacteria, biofilm is highly organized, biofilm adheres to enamel and cementum.
Biofilm is mineralized=ANSWER

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3
Q

Subgingival biofilm is located:

A

Apical to the margin of the gingiva

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4
Q

What is true of evidence based dental hygiene practice?

A

It is scientific, research supported, determines dental hygiene interventions. ALL OF THE ABOVE=ANSWER

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5
Q

All are an aspect of a PICO question except one. What is the exception?

A

Patient, problem, comparison.

Interview=ANSWER

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6
Q

The Trendelenburg position is:

A

A position when the head s lower than the heart

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7
Q

The most frequent sites for calculus are:

A

lingual of mandibular anterior teeth, buccal/facial of the maxillary first and second molars, opposite the salivary ducts

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8
Q

Small pieces of supragingival lingual calculus can be seen by:

A

drying with the air/water syringe

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9
Q

All are true of dental biofilm except one. What is the exception?

A

Composed 80 % water, the inorganic elements are part calcium, the inorganic elements are part magnesium.
The inorganic elements are part potassium=ANSWER

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10
Q

When gingiva is treated by biofilm removal, gingivitis can disappear within a few days

A

True

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11
Q

Carbohydrates, proteins, and minerals are the major organic components in dental biofilm

A

False

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12
Q

Pyrophosphates and calcium are two ACTIVE ingredients in tartar control toothpaste

A

False

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13
Q

What is something you would not tell a patient about tartar control toothpaste?

A

Helps stop calculus from forming, might cause tooth sensitivity, a common ingredient in zinc chloride.
Removes existing deposits=ANSWER

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14
Q

Young plaque is primarily composted from gram negative cocci and rods

A

False

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15
Q

Serumnal calculus is so named because..

A

The source of the minerals is the blood serum

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16
Q

Dental biofilm is composed of 20% organic and inorganic solids and 80% water.

A

True

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17
Q

Newest sub-gingival calculus deposits near the bottom of the pocket are less dense and hard

A

True

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18
Q

Biofilm occurs most frequently on proximal surfaces and around the gingival one-third

A

True

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19
Q

Subgingival calculus can be black due to blood pigments from the diseased pocket

A

True

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20
Q

In a dentrifice, what is the function of a humectant?

A

Retains moisture

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21
Q

Dental biofilm can be detected by all of the following except one. What one is the exception?

A

explorer, disclosing solution, periodontal probe.

Phenolic compounds=ANSWER

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22
Q

Which of the following ingredients in a dentrifice minimize supragingival calculus formation?

A

Pyrophosphate

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23
Q

What is the recipe for the isotonic sodium chloride rinse?

A

1/2 tsp salt to 8 oz water

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24
Q

What is not true of cementum?

A

Calcified layer of connective tissue, seals the dentin tubules, covers the tooth from the CEJ to the apical foramen.
Attaches to the alveolar process=ANSWER

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25
Q

Calculus is visible when wet and invisible when dried with an air water syringe

A

False

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26
Q

Heavy calculus formers have higher salivary levels of calcium and phosphorous

A

True

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27
Q

Loosely attached to the pocket epithelium are many gram negative microorganisms

A

True

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28
Q

Tissue associated with microorganisms are more virulent and motile

A

True

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29
Q

During biofilm formation, vibrios and spirochetes are prevalent between what days?

A

Days 7-14

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30
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by xerostomia

A

True

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31
Q

Causes of xerostomia can be medications, rheumatoid arthritis, and Parkinson’s disease

A

True

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32
Q

Which one is not true of mineralization?

A

Saliva buffers acids, calcium is restored, phosphorous is restored.
Area is softer than originally=ANSWER

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33
Q

The primary cause of root caries is…

A

Actinomyces

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34
Q

Critical pH for enamel demineralization averages…

A

4.5-5.5

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35
Q

Xylitol can reduce the number of Streptococcus mutans. Aged cheese can prevent decrease in pH.

A

Both statements are true.

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36
Q

Chlorhexidine is a prescription mouthrinse of choice for gingivitis and periodontal disease

A

True

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37
Q

What is not true of Chlorhexidine?

A

Broad spectrum bactericidal, has high substantivity, can form a brownish yellow stain.
Works well with toothpastes=ANSWER

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38
Q

What is the most common ingredient used in dentifrices to aid in reducing sensitivity?

A

Potassium nitrate

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39
Q

Quaternary ammonium compounds like Scope and Listerine function by influencing cell lysis

A

False (Listerine is a phenolic compound)

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40
Q

A MOD is:

A

Mesial Distal Occlusal of posterior tooth

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41
Q

A caries on the lingual pit of #7 is a Class:

A

I

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42
Q

Dental caries on the proximal and incisal of an anterior tooth is a Class:

A

IV

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43
Q

Dental caries on the cementum is:

A

Root caries

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44
Q

What is auto polymerization?

A

Self cured

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45
Q

Best way to detect proximal dental caries?

A

Horizontal bitewings

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46
Q

A carious tooth will fluoresce according to how much decay

A

True

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47
Q

A clean healthy tooth will exhibit a reading of at least 30

A

False

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48
Q

What is curing in dental sealants?

A

Process of polymerization

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49
Q

What is the primary cause of sealant failure?

A

Moisture contamination

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50
Q

Therapeutic and chemotherapeutic dentifrices contain ingredients to reduce dental disease

A

True

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51
Q

Fluoride toothpaste should be recommended for all patients

A

True

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52
Q

A common surfactant in dentifrices is:

A

Sodium lauryl sulfate

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53
Q

Sodium monofluorophosphate fluoride can promote remineralization and deposit fluoroapatite

A

True

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54
Q

A differential diagnosis of fluorosis might include:

A

History of exposure to fluoride, symmetrical lesions, no distinct margin between affected and normal enamel

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55
Q

Skeletal fluorosis is called osterosclerosis and is from long term ingestion of 6-7ppm fluoride

A

False

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56
Q

The risk period for fluorosis for anterior teeth is:

A

22-26 months

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57
Q

Ideal water fluoridiation is:

A

0.7ppm

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58
Q

Professional fluoride application is what percentage in foams and gels?

A

2%

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59
Q

Calcium phosphate products:

A

Increase remineralization

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60
Q

Fluoride application before sealant placement is advised for retention

A

False

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61
Q

Which of the following agents is BEST for remineralizing tooth surfaces?

A

Sodium fluoride

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62
Q

Fluorosis occurs as a result of…

A

chronic ingestion of fluorides from a variety of sources

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63
Q

Excretion of fluoride occurs MOST likely through which of the following organs?

A

kidney

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64
Q

Fluoride varnish contains a 2% sodium fluoride solution (NaF)

A

False

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65
Q

If a child accidentally ingests a toxic quantity of fluoride, the hygienist should FIRST

A

Induce vomiting by a physical or chemical means

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66
Q

Which indice would be best to assess pregnancy gingivitis?

A

GI

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67
Q

Fluorosis Index score of 2 indicates:

A

mild fluorosis

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68
Q

What teeth are commonly hypersensitive?

A

canines and premolars

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69
Q

Calcium phosphate products:

A

are not a replacement for fluoride

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70
Q

What is true of CPP-ACP?

A

They are not indicated for patients with milk allergies

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71
Q

What personality style fears being taken advantage of?

A

Dominant

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72
Q

Which personality type fears criticism of work?

A

Compliance

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73
Q

What can be a clinical sign of a nonvital tooth?

A

Discoloration, fractured tooth, large caries

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74
Q

What is a radiographic sign of a nonvital tooth?

A

Large caries close to the pulp

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75
Q

What is NOT a type of pulp vitality tester?

A

Pulose oximetry, electrical pulp tester, laser doppler flowmeter.
Laser doppler pulpmeter=ANSWER

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76
Q

Type II embrasure spaces are best cleaned with:

A

Stimudent

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77
Q

Interdental brushes are used:

A

90 degrees to the gingival margin

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78
Q

Posterior teeth have how many papilla?

A

2

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79
Q

In patient-clinician relationship, concreteness means:

A

understandable

80
Q

Saliva is needed for:

A

tasting, swallowing, digesting

81
Q

Who is most likely to have xerostomia?

A

patients over 55 years old

82
Q

The salivary glands produce how much saliva daily on average?

A

.5-.75 liters

83
Q

Which glands produce the highest percentage of saliva?

A

submandibular

84
Q

Saliva is excreted by:

A

exocrine gland

85
Q

All are true of Sjogren’s syndrome except:

A

can cause dry eyes, can cause xerostomia, is an autoimmune disorder.
Caused by a bacterial infection=ANSWER

86
Q

Which would be considered a Black’s class II caries?

A

MO

87
Q

Which Black’s classification involves the tips of posterior teeth and incisals of anteriors?

A

VI

88
Q

Ideal sealant material is all of the following except:

A

low solubility, biocompatible with oral tissue, applies easily.
high viscosity=ANSWER

89
Q

CLD of fluoride in adults is:

A

5-10 g of NaF taken at one time

90
Q

Stannous fluoride desensitizing agent works by blocking dentinal tubules.

A

True

91
Q

Potassium nitrate desensitizing agents block nerve repolarization

A

True

92
Q

An identifying characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity could include all EXCEPT:

A

pain upon pressure

93
Q

Risk factors for dental caries can include all EXCEPT:

A

Sharp, short, transient pain, cessation of pain upon removal of stimuli, presents as a chronic condition with acute episodes.
Pain upon pressure=ANSWER

94
Q

Risk factors for dental caries can include all EXCEPT:

A

Bleeding on probing

95
Q

An adult patient with xerostomia is contraindicated for sealant placement.

A

False

96
Q

Which ingredient is included in acid etch?

A

Phosphoric acid

97
Q

After the etching process:

A

Rinse thoroughly and dry

98
Q

All can influence a patient’s response to a pulp test EXCEPT:

A

Pain threshold, reaction to pain, degree of pulpal degeneration or inflammation.
Opposite metal restorations=ANSWER

99
Q

Calcium phosphate products can replace fluoride

A

False

100
Q

Calcium products work best with fluoride to enhance remineralization

A

True

101
Q

A necrotic pulp will have what response?

A

Pain will subside promptly after stimuli removed, pain will linger after removal of stimuli, all of the above
There will be no response=ANSWER

102
Q

Approximately 80% of malodor originates from the oral cavity

A

False

103
Q

Halitosis is produced by volatile sulfur compounds produced by microorganisms

A

True

104
Q

Home irrigators are used at what angulation?

A

90 degrees to the tooth surface

105
Q

Blunt tip cannula tips can be used at home and in the dental office for oral irrigation

A

True

106
Q

Black’s classification I includes:

A

lingual pits of anterior teeth

107
Q

Black’s classification V includes:

A

Gingival third of facial or lingual of any tooth

108
Q

Materials used to soak up fluids during dental procedures

A

Bibulous materials

109
Q

Strep mutans metabolizes xylitol

A

False

110
Q

Fluoride substitutes for hydroxyl ions and changes hydroxyapatite into fluorhydroxyapatite

A

True

111
Q

Casein phosphopeptide-amorphous calcium phosphate, or CPP-ACP, is a milk derived product

A

True

112
Q

Fluoride varnish contains:

A

5% NaF

113
Q

A disadvantage of acidulated phosphate fluoride is:

A

causes etching of porcelain and composites

114
Q

All are true of xylitol EXCEPT:

A

Noncariogenic artificial sweetener, causes a decrease in strep mutans infections, beneficial to patients with diabetes.
Has no affect on biofilm formation=ANSWER

115
Q

What dietary consideration does not impact ECC?

A

Use of non-fluoridated toothpaste

116
Q

What is the appropriate time for the first dental appointment?

A

After eruption of first primary tooth

117
Q

Intervention for thumb/finger sucking should be at what age?

A

3-4 years

118
Q

The health belief model includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A

contemplation

119
Q

The Trans-theoretical model is also called the Stages of Change model

A

True

120
Q

During the preparation stage, when do patients plan to make a change?

A

Plan to make a change in the next 30 days

121
Q

Which one is not a name for baby teeth?

A

deciduous teeth, milk teeth, temporary teeth.

Succedaneous teeth=ANSWER

122
Q

The age for permanent first molar eruption is:

A

6-7 years old

123
Q

What tooth brushing technique directs the bristles toward to occlusal surface?

A

Charters

124
Q

Photo-polymerizing sealant material is:

A

Cured by visible light

125
Q

All are ways to treat asthma except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A

Aspirin

126
Q

What is not a symptom of GERD in children?

A

otitis media/sinusitis, chronic sore throat, chronic cough.

dental attrition=ANSWER

127
Q

What is not a warning sign of Type I Diabetes?

A

decrease appetite

128
Q

Avulsed teeth must be replanted immediately because the socket will clot and swell

A

True

129
Q

What is not a typical sign of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

good eye contact

130
Q

How often should a tooth brush be changed with Strep Throat?

A

After the first 24 hrs and after the antibiotics

131
Q

What is not true of HSV-1?

A

Cannot be transferred through kissing

132
Q

The most widely used disclosing solution is Erythrosin

A

True

133
Q

What is not true of the Stillman’s brushing technique?

A

bristles are positioned on the attached gingiva, bristles are directed apically at a 45 degree angle, used for gingival stimulation.
A back and forth motion is used=ANSWER

134
Q

What is not true of phenol mouthrinses?

A

Brand name is Listerine, contains thymol, menthol, eucalyptol, methylsalicylate, ADA seal of Acceptance to control biofilm and gingivitis.
high substantivity=ANSWER

135
Q

What is not true of Chlorhexidine gluconate?

A

0.12% concentration containing 11.6% alcohol, available in alcohol free formulation, names include Peridex, PerioGard, ProDentx, PerioRx
Recommended for long term use to reduce gingivitis=ANSWER

136
Q

Fluoride works typically through water fluoridation

A

True

137
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of autism?

A

lack of social or emotional reciprocity

138
Q

Another name for Down syndrome

A

Trisomy 21

139
Q

What are the second teeth most often affected by ECC?

A

primary molars

140
Q

A white spot lesion is typically found on which tooth surface?

A

cervical third

141
Q

Any restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner considered normal for a human

A

disability

142
Q

The least desirable primary occlusion is:

A

distal step

143
Q

Children should be weaned from a bottle by:

A

12 months

144
Q

In primary teeth, the enamel is thicker and the pulp is small:

A

False

145
Q

All are true of the crowns of primary teeth except one. What is the exception?

A

no mamelons, no pits on the lingual surfaces of primary incisors, very white in appearance.
thick dentin=ANSWER

146
Q

Root resorption is triggered by:

A

pressure from permanent teeth

147
Q

It would be most beneficial to implement a fluoride rinse program at a school when?

A

community water fluoridation is below optimal

148
Q

Which of the following will provide secondary data for you when developing a needs assessment?

A

census

149
Q

Feedback throughout a program to improve the program is:

A

formative evaluation

150
Q

What has been recognized as a major unmet need in the US?

A

Access to care

151
Q

After a program is in place, the oral health indicators are monitored for five years is:

A

incidence

152
Q

What branch of the federal government has a direct impact on dental care delivery?

A

executive

153
Q

Who provides a system of health surveillance to monitor and prevent outbreaks of diseases?

A

Center for Disease Control and Prevention

154
Q

Which of the following is an example of primary public health prevention?

A

oral disease prevention

155
Q

Anything that limits the ability to receive dental services is known as a barrier to care:

A

True

156
Q

A public health problem must meet which of the following criteria?

A

Actual or potential cause of morbidity or mortality

157
Q

What is the first step in community program planning?

A

Identify a target population

158
Q

In order for a community health project to be successful there must be:

A

community-recognized need

159
Q

What are the predominant bacteria in gingivitis?

A

Actinomyces dominated

160
Q

After periodontal debridement, which is the first inflammatory cell to respond to biofilm?

A

neutrophils

161
Q

What is the first area to be involved in bone resorption?

A

cortical plate of the interdental septum

162
Q

What part of the gingiva generally consist of nonkeratinized, squamous cell epithelium?

A

crevicular epithelium

163
Q

Which is an indicator of periodontitis?

A

clinical attachment loss

164
Q

Which substance is not produced by a host in response to bacterial plaque?

A

lipopolysaccharides

165
Q

Which would be an indicator of the failed implant?

A

Mobility

166
Q

How is clinical attachment loss measured?

A

From the CEJ to the base of the pocket

167
Q

Which teeth typically have the narrowest width of attached gingiva?

A

mandibular premolar teeth

168
Q

Which one is usually not an indicator of a periodontal abscess?

A

Presence of A. actinomycetemcomitans

169
Q

Which one is not true?

A

healthy gingival margin is 0.5mm to 2mm coronal to the CEJ, healthy alveolar crest is about 2mm apical to the CEJ, an implant does have a PDL.
Horizontal PDL fibers absorb occlusal forces=ANSWER

170
Q

What is the mean length of the junctional epithelium?

A

0.97mm

171
Q

Which is not true of the dentogingival unit?

A

contains the epithelial attachment, the length is 2.04mm, involves stabilization of the gingiva to the tooth.
contains gingival givers formed from fibroclasts=ANSWER

172
Q

Which one is not a characteristic of NUG?

A

slow onset

173
Q

Which substance is not produced by a host in response to bacterial plaque?

A

cytokines, interleukin-1, prostaglandins.

lipopolysaccharides=ANSWER

174
Q

Questions surrounding the nature of the injury, time, place, etc, are important because:

A

time between injury and treatment can impact the outcome, can give clues as to what type of damage to look for, insurance may need this info

175
Q

Most traumatic injuries involving permanent teeth happen at what age?

A

8-11

176
Q

The exposure time for a soft tissue radiograph is reduced by what percent of dental exposure?

A

25%

177
Q

For lip injury, clean the traumatized area with .1% CHX using cotton swabs 2 times daily for:

A

1-2 weeks

178
Q

The primary treatment goal with enamel caries is remineralization

A

True

179
Q

A caries reduction protocol for high risk children should include the following:

A

short, frequent visits, follow-up once a month for 2-3 months, gradually work up to 6 month re-care intervals

180
Q

Major trauma is one of the most common causes of mental retardation

A

True

181
Q

All can be a cause of mental retardation except on. What is the exception?

A

meningitis, encephalitis, herpetic infections, rubella.

tetanus=ANSWER

182
Q

Where is the leeway space found?

A

between the canine and first permanent molar

183
Q

In primary dentition papilla often appears blunted or saddle shaped

A

True

184
Q

Primary teeth can have a “col” present between the facial and lingual on posterior teeth

A

true

185
Q

Where is the mandibular primate located?

A

between the maxillary primary lateral incisor and canine

186
Q

At what age do the maxillary permanent first molars erupt?

A

10-11 years old

187
Q

The last primary tooth to fully form enamel and roots:

A

canine

188
Q

Why is there an increased need for iron during pregnancy?

A

prevent anemia

189
Q

What condition that is a result of physiologic changes in hormones during pregnancy?

A

pyogenic granuloma

190
Q

What type of supplementation reduces the risk of having a child with a neural tube defect?

A

folic acid

191
Q

At what age should a child be weaned from a bottle?

A

1 year

192
Q

Adequate calcium during pregnancy decreases the risk of all except what condition?

A

anemia

193
Q

Independent brushing for children should not begin until what age?

A

7-10 years

194
Q

Providing oral health information to parents related to the child’s stage of development is:

A

Anticipatory guidance

195
Q

Patients with juvenile diabetes often also have what concurrent condition?

A

hypothyroidism

196
Q

Aspirin given to children can cause what potentially fatal disease?

A

Reye’s syndrome

197
Q

All are emotional components to pain except one. Which is the exception?

A

decrease in heart rate

KAHOOT Questions (1 decks)

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