Kahoot Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
A patient with exercise induced asthma would be considered what ASA classification?
A
ASA III
2
Q
All are true of dental biofilm except one. What is the exception?
A
Consists of a community of bacteria, biofilm is highly organized, biofilm adheres to enamel and cementum.
Biofilm is mineralized=ANSWER
3
Q
Subgingival biofilm is located:
A
Apical to the margin of the gingiva
4
Q
What is true of evidence based dental hygiene practice?
A
It is scientific, research supported, determines dental hygiene interventions. ALL OF THE ABOVE=ANSWER
5
Q
All are an aspect of a PICO question except one. What is the exception?
A
Patient, problem, comparison.
Interview=ANSWER
6
Q
The Trendelenburg position is:
A
A position when the head s lower than the heart
7
Q
The most frequent sites for calculus are:
A
lingual of mandibular anterior teeth, buccal/facial of the maxillary first and second molars, opposite the salivary ducts
8
Q
Small pieces of supragingival lingual calculus can be seen by:
A
drying with the air/water syringe
9
Q
All are true of dental biofilm except one. What is the exception?
A
Composed 80 % water, the inorganic elements are part calcium, the inorganic elements are part magnesium.
The inorganic elements are part potassium=ANSWER
10
Q
When gingiva is treated by biofilm removal, gingivitis can disappear within a few days
A
True
11
Q
Carbohydrates, proteins, and minerals are the major organic components in dental biofilm
A
False
12
Q
Pyrophosphates and calcium are two ACTIVE ingredients in tartar control toothpaste
A
False
13
Q
What is something you would not tell a patient about tartar control toothpaste?
A
Helps stop calculus from forming, might cause tooth sensitivity, a common ingredient in zinc chloride.
Removes existing deposits=ANSWER
14
Q
Young plaque is primarily composted from gram negative cocci and rods
A
False
15
Q
Serumnal calculus is so named because..
A
The source of the minerals is the blood serum
16
Q
Dental biofilm is composed of 20% organic and inorganic solids and 80% water.
A
True
17
Q
Newest sub-gingival calculus deposits near the bottom of the pocket are less dense and hard
A
True
18
Q
Biofilm occurs most frequently on proximal surfaces and around the gingival one-third
A
True
19
Q
Subgingival calculus can be black due to blood pigments from the diseased pocket
A
True
20
Q
In a dentrifice, what is the function of a humectant?
A
Retains moisture
21
Q
Dental biofilm can be detected by all of the following except one. What one is the exception?
A
explorer, disclosing solution, periodontal probe.
Phenolic compounds=ANSWER
22
Q
Which of the following ingredients in a dentrifice minimize supragingival calculus formation?
A
Pyrophosphate
23
Q
What is the recipe for the isotonic sodium chloride rinse?
A
1/2 tsp salt to 8 oz water
24
Q
What is not true of cementum?
A
Calcified layer of connective tissue, seals the dentin tubules, covers the tooth from the CEJ to the apical foramen.
Attaches to the alveolar process=ANSWER
25
Calculus is visible when wet and invisible when dried with an air water syringe
False
26
Heavy calculus formers have higher salivary levels of calcium and phosphorous
True
27
Loosely attached to the pocket epithelium are many gram negative microorganisms
True
28
Tissue associated with microorganisms are more virulent and motile
True
29
During biofilm formation, vibrios and spirochetes are prevalent between what days?
Days 7-14
30
Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by xerostomia
True
31
Causes of xerostomia can be medications, rheumatoid arthritis, and Parkinson's disease
True
32
Which one is not true of mineralization?
Saliva buffers acids, calcium is restored, phosphorous is restored.
Area is softer than originally=ANSWER
33
The primary cause of root caries is...
Actinomyces
34
Critical pH for enamel demineralization averages...
4.5-5.5
35
Xylitol can reduce the number of Streptococcus mutans. Aged cheese can prevent decrease in pH.
Both statements are true.
36
Chlorhexidine is a prescription mouthrinse of choice for gingivitis and periodontal disease
True
37
What is not true of Chlorhexidine?
Broad spectrum bactericidal, has high substantivity, can form a brownish yellow stain.
Works well with toothpastes=ANSWER
38
What is the most common ingredient used in dentifrices to aid in reducing sensitivity?
Potassium nitrate
39
Quaternary ammonium compounds like Scope and Listerine function by influencing cell lysis
False (Listerine is a phenolic compound)
40
A MOD is:
Mesial Distal Occlusal of posterior tooth
41
A caries on the lingual pit of #7 is a Class:
I
42
Dental caries on the proximal and incisal of an anterior tooth is a Class:
IV
43
Dental caries on the cementum is:
Root caries
44
What is auto polymerization?
Self cured
45
Best way to detect proximal dental caries?
Horizontal bitewings
46
A carious tooth will fluoresce according to how much decay
True
47
A clean healthy tooth will exhibit a reading of at least 30
False
48
What is curing in dental sealants?
Process of polymerization
49
What is the primary cause of sealant failure?
Moisture contamination
50
Therapeutic and chemotherapeutic dentifrices contain ingredients to reduce dental disease
True
51
Fluoride toothpaste should be recommended for all patients
True
52
A common surfactant in dentifrices is:
Sodium lauryl sulfate
53
Sodium monofluorophosphate fluoride can promote remineralization and deposit fluoroapatite
True
54
A differential diagnosis of fluorosis might include:
History of exposure to fluoride, symmetrical lesions, no distinct margin between affected and normal enamel
55
Skeletal fluorosis is called osterosclerosis and is from long term ingestion of 6-7ppm fluoride
False
56
The risk period for fluorosis for anterior teeth is:
22-26 months
57
Ideal water fluoridiation is:
0.7ppm
58
Professional fluoride application is what percentage in foams and gels?
2%
59
Calcium phosphate products:
Increase remineralization
60
Fluoride application before sealant placement is advised for retention
False
61
Which of the following agents is BEST for remineralizing tooth surfaces?
Sodium fluoride
62
Fluorosis occurs as a result of...
chronic ingestion of fluorides from a variety of sources
63
Excretion of fluoride occurs MOST likely through which of the following organs?
kidney
64
Fluoride varnish contains a 2% sodium fluoride solution (NaF)
False
65
If a child accidentally ingests a toxic quantity of fluoride, the hygienist should FIRST
Induce vomiting by a physical or chemical means
66
Which indice would be best to assess pregnancy gingivitis?
GI
67
Fluorosis Index score of 2 indicates:
mild fluorosis
68
What teeth are commonly hypersensitive?
canines and premolars
69
Calcium phosphate products:
are not a replacement for fluoride
70
What is true of CPP-ACP?
They are not indicated for patients with milk allergies
71
What personality style fears being taken advantage of?
Dominant
72
Which personality type fears criticism of work?
Compliance
73
What can be a clinical sign of a nonvital tooth?
Discoloration, fractured tooth, large caries
74
What is a radiographic sign of a nonvital tooth?
Large caries close to the pulp
75
What is NOT a type of pulp vitality tester?
Pulose oximetry, electrical pulp tester, laser doppler flowmeter.
Laser doppler pulpmeter=ANSWER
76
Type II embrasure spaces are best cleaned with:
Stimudent
77
Interdental brushes are used:
90 degrees to the gingival margin
78
Posterior teeth have how many papilla?
2
79
In patient-clinician relationship, concreteness means:
understandable
80
Saliva is needed for:
tasting, swallowing, digesting
81
Who is most likely to have xerostomia?
patients over 55 years old
82
The salivary glands produce how much saliva daily on average?
.5-.75 liters
83
Which glands produce the highest percentage of saliva?
submandibular
84
Saliva is excreted by:
exocrine gland
85
All are true of Sjogren's syndrome except:
can cause dry eyes, can cause xerostomia, is an autoimmune disorder.
Caused by a bacterial infection=ANSWER
86
Which would be considered a Black's class II caries?
MO
87
Which Black's classification involves the tips of posterior teeth and incisals of anteriors?
VI
88
Ideal sealant material is all of the following except:
low solubility, biocompatible with oral tissue, applies easily.
high viscosity=ANSWER
89
CLD of fluoride in adults is:
5-10 g of NaF taken at one time
90
Stannous fluoride desensitizing agent works by blocking dentinal tubules.
True
91
Potassium nitrate desensitizing agents block nerve repolarization
True
92
An identifying characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity could include all EXCEPT:
pain upon pressure
93
Risk factors for dental caries can include all EXCEPT:
Sharp, short, transient pain, cessation of pain upon removal of stimuli, presents as a chronic condition with acute episodes.
Pain upon pressure=ANSWER
94
Risk factors for dental caries can include all EXCEPT:
Bleeding on probing
95
An adult patient with xerostomia is contraindicated for sealant placement.
False
96
Which ingredient is included in acid etch?
Phosphoric acid
97
After the etching process:
Rinse thoroughly and dry
98
All can influence a patient's response to a pulp test EXCEPT:
Pain threshold, reaction to pain, degree of pulpal degeneration or inflammation.
Opposite metal restorations=ANSWER
99
Calcium phosphate products can replace fluoride
False
100
Calcium products work best with fluoride to enhance remineralization
True
101
A necrotic pulp will have what response?
Pain will subside promptly after stimuli removed, pain will linger after removal of stimuli, all of the above
There will be no response=ANSWER
102
Approximately 80% of malodor originates from the oral cavity
False
103
Halitosis is produced by volatile sulfur compounds produced by microorganisms
True
104
Home irrigators are used at what angulation?
90 degrees to the tooth surface
105
Blunt tip cannula tips can be used at home and in the dental office for oral irrigation
True
106
Black's classification I includes:
lingual pits of anterior teeth
107
Black's classification V includes:
Gingival third of facial or lingual of any tooth
108
Materials used to soak up fluids during dental procedures
Bibulous materials
109
Strep mutans metabolizes xylitol
False
110
Fluoride substitutes for hydroxyl ions and changes hydroxyapatite into fluorhydroxyapatite
True
111
Casein phosphopeptide-amorphous calcium phosphate, or CPP-ACP, is a milk derived product
True
112
Fluoride varnish contains:
5% NaF
113
A disadvantage of acidulated phosphate fluoride is:
causes etching of porcelain and composites
114
All are true of xylitol EXCEPT:
Noncariogenic artificial sweetener, causes a decrease in strep mutans infections, beneficial to patients with diabetes.
Has no affect on biofilm formation=ANSWER
115
What dietary consideration does not impact ECC?
Use of non-fluoridated toothpaste
116
What is the appropriate time for the first dental appointment?
After eruption of first primary tooth
117
Intervention for thumb/finger sucking should be at what age?
3-4 years
118
The health belief model includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
contemplation
119
The Trans-theoretical model is also called the Stages of Change model
True
120
During the preparation stage, when do patients plan to make a change?
Plan to make a change in the next 30 days
121
Which one is not a name for baby teeth?
deciduous teeth, milk teeth, temporary teeth.
| Succedaneous teeth=ANSWER
122
The age for permanent first molar eruption is:
6-7 years old
123
What tooth brushing technique directs the bristles toward to occlusal surface?
Charters
124
Photo-polymerizing sealant material is:
Cured by visible light
125
All are ways to treat asthma except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Aspirin
126
What is not a symptom of GERD in children?
otitis media/sinusitis, chronic sore throat, chronic cough.
| dental attrition=ANSWER
127
What is not a warning sign of Type I Diabetes?
decrease appetite
128
Avulsed teeth must be replanted immediately because the socket will clot and swell
True
129
What is not a typical sign of Autism Spectrum Disorder?
good eye contact
130
How often should a tooth brush be changed with Strep Throat?
After the first 24 hrs and after the antibiotics
131
What is not true of HSV-1?
Cannot be transferred through kissing
132
The most widely used disclosing solution is Erythrosin
True
133
What is not true of the Stillman's brushing technique?
bristles are positioned on the attached gingiva, bristles are directed apically at a 45 degree angle, used for gingival stimulation.
A back and forth motion is used=ANSWER
134
What is not true of phenol mouthrinses?
Brand name is Listerine, contains thymol, menthol, eucalyptol, methylsalicylate, ADA seal of Acceptance to control biofilm and gingivitis.
high substantivity=ANSWER
135
What is not true of Chlorhexidine gluconate?
0.12% concentration containing 11.6% alcohol, available in alcohol free formulation, names include Peridex, PerioGard, ProDentx, PerioRx
Recommended for long term use to reduce gingivitis=ANSWER
136
Fluoride works typically through water fluoridation
True
137
Which of the following is a characteristic of autism?
lack of social or emotional reciprocity
138
Another name for Down syndrome
Trisomy 21
139
What are the second teeth most often affected by ECC?
primary molars
140
A white spot lesion is typically found on which tooth surface?
cervical third
141
Any restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner considered normal for a human
disability
142
The least desirable primary occlusion is:
distal step
143
Children should be weaned from a bottle by:
12 months
144
In primary teeth, the enamel is thicker and the pulp is small:
False
145
All are true of the crowns of primary teeth except one. What is the exception?
no mamelons, no pits on the lingual surfaces of primary incisors, very white in appearance.
thick dentin=ANSWER
146
Root resorption is triggered by:
pressure from permanent teeth
147
It would be most beneficial to implement a fluoride rinse program at a school when?
community water fluoridation is below optimal
148
Which of the following will provide secondary data for you when developing a needs assessment?
census
149
Feedback throughout a program to improve the program is:
formative evaluation
150
What has been recognized as a major unmet need in the US?
Access to care
151
After a program is in place, the oral health indicators are monitored for five years is:
incidence
152
What branch of the federal government has a direct impact on dental care delivery?
executive
153
Who provides a system of health surveillance to monitor and prevent outbreaks of diseases?
Center for Disease Control and Prevention
154
Which of the following is an example of primary public health prevention?
oral disease prevention
155
Anything that limits the ability to receive dental services is known as a barrier to care:
True
156
A public health problem must meet which of the following criteria?
Actual or potential cause of morbidity or mortality
157
What is the first step in community program planning?
Identify a target population
158
In order for a community health project to be successful there must be:
community-recognized need
159
What are the predominant bacteria in gingivitis?
Actinomyces dominated
160
After periodontal debridement, which is the first inflammatory cell to respond to biofilm?
neutrophils
161
What is the first area to be involved in bone resorption?
cortical plate of the interdental septum
162
What part of the gingiva generally consist of nonkeratinized, squamous cell epithelium?
crevicular epithelium
163
Which is an indicator of periodontitis?
clinical attachment loss
164
Which substance is not produced by a host in response to bacterial plaque?
lipopolysaccharides
165
Which would be an indicator of the failed implant?
Mobility
166
How is clinical attachment loss measured?
From the CEJ to the base of the pocket
167
Which teeth typically have the narrowest width of attached gingiva?
mandibular premolar teeth
168
Which one is usually not an indicator of a periodontal abscess?
Presence of A. actinomycetemcomitans
169
Which one is not true?
healthy gingival margin is 0.5mm to 2mm coronal to the CEJ, healthy alveolar crest is about 2mm apical to the CEJ, an implant does have a PDL.
Horizontal PDL fibers absorb occlusal forces=ANSWER
170
What is the mean length of the junctional epithelium?
0.97mm
171
Which is not true of the dentogingival unit?
contains the epithelial attachment, the length is 2.04mm, involves stabilization of the gingiva to the tooth.
contains gingival givers formed from fibroclasts=ANSWER
172
Which one is not a characteristic of NUG?
slow onset
173
Which substance is not produced by a host in response to bacterial plaque?
cytokines, interleukin-1, prostaglandins.
| lipopolysaccharides=ANSWER
174
Questions surrounding the nature of the injury, time, place, etc, are important because:
time between injury and treatment can impact the outcome, can give clues as to what type of damage to look for, insurance may need this info
175
Most traumatic injuries involving permanent teeth happen at what age?
8-11
176
The exposure time for a soft tissue radiograph is reduced by what percent of dental exposure?
25%
177
For lip injury, clean the traumatized area with .1% CHX using cotton swabs 2 times daily for:
1-2 weeks
178
The primary treatment goal with enamel caries is remineralization
True
179
A caries reduction protocol for high risk children should include the following:
short, frequent visits, follow-up once a month for 2-3 months, gradually work up to 6 month re-care intervals
180
Major trauma is one of the most common causes of mental retardation
True
181
All can be a cause of mental retardation except on. What is the exception?
meningitis, encephalitis, herpetic infections, rubella.
| tetanus=ANSWER
182
Where is the leeway space found?
between the canine and first permanent molar
183
In primary dentition papilla often appears blunted or saddle shaped
True
184
Primary teeth can have a "col" present between the facial and lingual on posterior teeth
true
185
Where is the mandibular primate located?
between the maxillary primary lateral incisor and canine
186
At what age do the maxillary permanent first molars erupt?
10-11 years old
187
The last primary tooth to fully form enamel and roots:
canine
188
Why is there an increased need for iron during pregnancy?
prevent anemia
189
What condition that is a result of physiologic changes in hormones during pregnancy?
pyogenic granuloma
190
What type of supplementation reduces the risk of having a child with a neural tube defect?
folic acid
191
At what age should a child be weaned from a bottle?
1 year
192
Adequate calcium during pregnancy decreases the risk of all except what condition?
anemia
193
Independent brushing for children should not begin until what age?
7-10 years
194
Providing oral health information to parents related to the child's stage of development is:
Anticipatory guidance
195
Patients with juvenile diabetes often also have what concurrent condition?
hypothyroidism
196
Aspirin given to children can cause what potentially fatal disease?
Reye's syndrome
197
All are emotional components to pain except one. Which is the exception?
decrease in heart rate
