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1
Q

What is the most common cancer killer in the United States?
a. Lung Cancer
b. Liver Cancer
c. Breast Cancer
d. Skin Cancer

A

a. Lung Cancer

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2
Q
  1. What percentage of breast cancers occur in women with no family history?
    a. 50%
    b. 5-10%
    c. 85%
    d. 15%
A

c. 85%

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3
Q
  1. Approximately how many female invasive beast cancers are diagnosed each year in the United
    States?
    a. 40,000
    b. 150,000
    c. 275,000
    d. 500,000
A

c. 275,000

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4
Q

Approximately how many men in the United States will be diagnosed with breast cancer each
year?
a. 2,600
b. 40,000
c. 240,000
d. 500

A

a. 2,600

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5
Q

In the United States, what percentage of breast cancers are found in males?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%

A

a. 1%

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6
Q

What percentage of breast cancers can be linked to a BRCA gene mutation?
a. 1-2%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 15-20%

A

b. 5-10%

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7
Q

What is the lifetime risk of contracting breast cancer for a woman?
a. 1 in 100
b. 1 in 50
c. 1 in 10
d. 1 in 8

A

d. 1 in 8

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8
Q

What is the lifetime risk for a man in the U.S. to develop breast cancer?
a. 1 in 8
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 800
d. 1 in 1000

A

c. 1 in 800

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9
Q

What is the #1 risk factor in the developing breast cancer?
a. Gender
b. Drinking alcohol
c. Environmental Factors
d. Obesity

A

a. Gender

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10
Q

Approximately How many women are expected to die of breast cancer in the U.S. each year?
a. 440
b. 4000
c. 40,000
d. 250,000

A

c. 40,000

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11
Q

Approximately how many men are expected to die of breast cancer each year?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 500

A

d. 500

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12
Q

Which of the following does not increase yourrisk of developing breast cancer?
a. Alcohol consumption
b. Moderate exercise
c. Being diagnosed with a benign breast condition in one breast
d. Being diagnosed with hyperplasia

A

b. Moderate exercise

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13
Q

Overall, which race statistically will be more likely to develop breast cancer?
a. African American
b. Asian
c. American Indian
d. Caucasion

A

d. Caucasion

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14
Q

Which of the following increases a woman’s risk of developing breast cancer?
a. Early menstruation and late menopause
b. Having her first child before the age of 30
c. Removal from Hormone Replacement Therapy
d. Having multiple children

A

a. Early menstruation and late menopause

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15
Q

Women with dense breasts are how much more likely to develop breast cancer?
a. 1.5 to 2 times higher
b. 3-4 times higher
c. 4-5 times higher
d. No difference

A

a. 1.5 to 2 times higher

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16
Q

What is the term for a woman who has given birth to one child only?
a. Uniparity
b. SIngleparity
c. Primiparity
d. Nulliparity

A

c. Primiparity

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17
Q

A woman’s breast cancer risk is 2-3 times higher than normal if she has proliferative lesions
with atypia?
a. True
b. False – it is 4-5 times higher

A

b. False – it is 4-5 times higher

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18
Q

What is the #1 diagnosed cancer in women in the U.S. each year?
a. Pancreatic Cancer
b. Ovarian Cancer
c. Breast Cancer
d. Lung Cancer

A

c. Breast Cancer

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19
Q

Where is the superior border of the breast?
a. Sternum
b. Clavicle
c. Inframammary Crease
d. Mid-axillary Line

A

b. Clavicle

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20
Q

Where would 7:00 o’clock in the right breast lie?
a. Upper Inner
b. Lower Inner
c. Lower Outer
d. Upper Outer

A

c. Lower Outer

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21
Q

How many openings to milk ducts are there in a nipple?
a. 15-20
b. 10-15
c. 1- 5
d. 5-15

A

d. 5-15

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22
Q

What glands secrete a lubricating and bacteriostatic solution during pregnancy and lactation?
a. Selacious Glands
b. Montgomery Glands
c. Napoli’s Glands
d. Mormammary Glands

A

b. Montgomery Glands

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23
Q

During Pregnancy and lactation, the breast has an increased amount of:
a. Morgagni’s tubercles
b. Glandular tissue
c. Montgomery Glands
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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24
Q

A lesion located in the Upper Outer Quadrant of the left breast is located:
a. 2:00 O’clock position
b. 5:00 O’clock position
c. 10:00 O’clock position
d. 7:00 O’clock position

A

a. 2:00 O’clock position

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25
Q

Coopers Ligaments attach posteriorly to:
a. Deep facial tissue in front of the pectoral muscle
b. Fascia of the skin
c. Posterior surface of the skin
d. Connective and supporting system

A

a. Deep facial tissue in front of the pectoral muscle

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26
Q

What is the name of the wide duct behind the nipple that widens to act as a milk reservoir
during lactation?
a. Ampulla Sinus
b. TDLU
c. Lactiferous Sinus
d. Segmental Duct

A

c. Lactiferous Sinus

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27
Q

An average woman’s breast will typically have how many lobes?
a. 5-10
b. 15-20
c. 5-15
d. 20-30

A

b. 15-20

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28
Q

The portion of the breast that holds the milk producing element is:
a. Lactiferous Sinus
b. Ampulla
c. Segmental Duct
d. Lobule

A

d. Lobule

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29
Q

The muscle lying immediately posterior to the breast is the:
a. Lattisimus Dorsi Muscle
b. Pectoralis Minor Muscle
c. Pectoralis Major Muscle
d. Serratus Anterior muscle

A

c. Pectoralis Major Muscle

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30
Q

What percentage of the lymphatic drainage travels through the Axillary Lymph Nodes
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 90%

A

c. 75%

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31
Q

In what cell layer does breast cancer begin?
a. Epithelial Cell Layer
b. Myoepithelial Cell Layer
c. Basal Epithelial Cell Layer
d. Terminal Epithelial Cell Layer

A

a. Epithelial Cell Layer

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32
Q

What vein in the breast comes off the Axillary vein and drains the lateral breast?
a. Internal Thoracic Vein
b. External Thoracic Vein
c. Lateral Thoracic Vein
d. Intercostal Vein

A

d. Intercostal Vein

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33
Q

What is considered the blind ending of the duct and is where most breast cancers begin?
a. Extra lobular Terminal Duct
b. Intra lobular Terminal Duct
c. Lobular Terminal Duct
d. Terminal Ductal Lobular Unit

A

d. Terminal Ductal Lobular Unit

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34
Q

What cell layer lies between the Epithelium and the Basal Membrane?
a. Myoepithelium
b. Mesoepithelium
c. Basoepithelium
d. Bioepithelium

A

a. Myoepithelium

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35
Q

What is the name of the breast anatomy that attaches the breast to the abdominal wall?
a. Coopers Ligaments
b. Retromammory Space
c. Inframammory Fold
d. Clavicle

A

c. Inframammory Fold

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a lymph node location in the breast?
a. Clavicular
b. Axillary
c. Thoracic
d. Intramammory

A

c. Thoracic

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37
Q

What is the name of the duct that transports the milk from the lobes to the nipple?
a. Intra lobular Terminal Duct
b. Extra lobular Terminal Duct
c. Segmental Duct
d. Lactiferous Duc

A

d. Lactiferous Duc

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38
Q

If you are diagnosed with a BIRAD C breast composition, your breast composition is?
a. Dense
b. Fatty
c. Fibro- glandular
d. Heterogenously Dense

A

d. Heterogenously Dense

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39
Q

Hormone Replacement Therapy will do what to the breast?
a. Decrease glandular breast tissue
b. Increase glandular breast tissue
c. Decrease the woman’s chance of breast cancer
d. Has no effect on glandular or fatty tissue

A

b. Increase glandular breast tissue

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40
Q

What is the space that lies between the glandular tissue and the pectoral muscle?
a. Axillary Tail
b. Pectoralis minor muscle
c. Subcutaneous adipose tissue
d. Retromammary Fat Space

A

d. Retromammary Fat Space

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41
Q

Where is the lateral border of the breast?
a. Mid-Axillary Line
b. Latissimus dorsi muscle
c. Tail of Spence
d. Inframammary Fold

A

a. Mid-Axillary Line

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42
Q

The base of the breast is the Inframammary Fold
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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43
Q

If you are diagnosed with a BIRAD D breast composition, your breast composition is?
a. Fatty
b. Fibro-glandular
c. Heterogenously Dense
d. Extremely Dense

A

d. Extremely Dense

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44
Q

On the CC view, the central rays exit the breast where?
a. The central ray exits INFERIORLY
b. The central ray exits SUPERIORLY
c. The central ray exits LATERALLY
d. The central ray exits MEDIALLY

A

a. The central ray exits INFERIORLY

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45
Q

What is the best way to get rid of skin folds on the CC?
a. Skinfolds wont interfere with the final image
b. Begin the CC over again
c. The fingerprint roll
d. Bring the compression down further

A

c. The fingerprint roll

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46
Q

When hanging a CC correctly, where is the lateral aspect of the breast
a. The lateral aspect is on the TOP of the image
b. The lateral aspect is on the BOTTOM of the image
c. The lateral aspect is in the CENTER of the image
d. The lateral aspect is at the FAR RIGHT and FAR LEFT of the image

A

a. The lateral aspect is on the TOP of the image

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47
Q

Lateral tissue is at the highest risk of being missed on the CC view
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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48
Q

How often is the Pectoral muscle seen on the CC view?
a. 50 – 70 % of the time
b. 80 – 100 % of the time
c. 10-20 % of the time
d. 30 – 40 % of the time

A

d. 30 – 40 % of the time

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49
Q

The Posterior Nipple Line (PNL) should be no more than how many cm difference between the
CC and the MLO?
a. It is different with every patient
b. Within 1 cm
c. Within 2 cm
d. It should measure the same

A

b. Within 1 cm

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50
Q

What breast tissue is best visualized on the MLO view?
a. Medial Tissue
b. Superior Tissue
c. Lateral Tissue
d. All of the above

A

c. Lateral Tissue

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51
Q

On the MLO view, the pectoral muscle should be visualized down to where?
a. The pectoral muscle is not important on the MLO
b. 75% down the breast
c. To the level of the Nipple (or PNL)
d. Half way down the breast

A

c. To the level of the Nipple (or PNL)

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52
Q

What maneuver is used to open the IMF on the MLO view?
a. The lift and roll maneuver
b. The up and out maneuver
c. The down and up maneuver
d. The push and pull maneuver

A

b. The up and out maneuver

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53
Q

On the MLO view, what breast tissue is at risk of being missed?
a. Medial
b. Superior
c. Inferior
d. Lateral

A

a. Medial

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54
Q

According to the ACR, for the MLO view, what angle should be used for a patient shorter and
heavier?
a. 40-50 degrees
b. 30-40 degrees
c. 50-60 degrees
d. 20-30 degrees

A

b. 30-40 degrees

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55
Q

What is the ideal shape of the pectoral muscle on the MLO view?
a. Vertical
b. Elongated
c. Convex
d. Concave

A

c. Convex

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56
Q

According to the ACR, for the MLO view, what angle should be used for a patient of average
height and weight?
a. 20-30 degrees
b. 30-40 degrees
c. 40-50 degrees
d. 50-60 degrees

A

c. 40-50 degrees

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57
Q

When positioning the MLO, the height of the image receptor should be no higher than the
patient’s what?
a. The Posterior Nipple Line
b. The Mid-Axillary Line
c. The Clavical
d. The Axilla

A

d. The Axilla

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58
Q

What tissue is lost on the MLO if the Image Receptor is too high?
a. Lateral Tissue
b. Inframammary Fold
c. Medial Tissue
d. Axillary Tissue

A

b. Inframammary Fold

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59
Q

What is the name of the lateral border of the breast that we use to position the MLO?
a. Pectoral Muscle
b. Lattisimus Dorsi
c. Axilla
d. Mid-Axillary Line

A

d. Mid-Axillary Line

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60
Q

On the MLO view, the receptor should be placed posterior to the Latissimus Dorsi Muscle
a. True
b. False

A

b. False – The receptor should be place anterior to the Lattisimus Dorsi muscle and
posterior to the Pectoralis muscle

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61
Q

According to the ACR, for the MLO view, what angle should be used fo a patient taller an dmore
slender?
a. 50-60 degrees
b. 40-50 degrees
c. 30-40 degrees
d. 20-30 degrees

A

a. 50-60 degrees

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62
Q

On the MLO view, it is acceptable NOT to demonstrate the IMF
a. True
b. False - One of the main purposes of the MLO view is to see an opened up IMF

A

b. False - One of the main purposes of the MLO view is to see an opened up IMF

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63
Q

How much compression should be applied to a breast?
a. 25-30 pounds
b. 30-45 pounds
c. 25-45 pounds
d. Until the breast is taut

A

d. Until the breast is taut

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64
Q

What is the advantage of proper compression?
a. Reduced motion
b. Separation of glandular tissue
c. Lower dose
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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65
Q

What is the most common Supplemental View?

a. XCCL
b. XCCM
c. Lateral
d. From Below

A

a. XCCL

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66
Q

What is the most common Diagnostic View?

a. XCCL
b. Medial Lateral (ML)
c. Cleavage
d. XCCM

A

b. Medial Lateral (ML)

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67
Q

What is the best view for visualizing Milk of Calcium

a. MLO
b. XCCL
c. Axillary Tail
d. ML or LM

A

d. ML or LM

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68
Q

What is the order the 3 views should be placed in triangulation?

a. MLO, CC, LM
b. CC, MLO, XCCL
c. CC, MLO, ML
d. CC, MLO, XCCM

A

c. CC, MLO, ML

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69
Q

What is the main purpose of the Cleavage View?

a. To visualize lateral tissue
b. To visualize medial tissue
c. To visualize inferior tissue
d. To visualize superior tissue

A

b. To visualize medial tissue

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70
Q

Which views are used to separate superimposed tissues?

a. MLO
b. Rolled View
c. CC
d. LM

A

b. Rolled View

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71
Q

If a radiologist sees a lesion in the MLO but not the CC, what could you be asked to perform?

a. Perform a 90 degree lateral
b. Perform an XCCL
c. Perform an XCCM
d. 15 degree Obliques

A

Perform a 90 degree lateral

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72
Q

In Triangulation, if a lesion moves down on the ML compared to the MLO, where will the lesion be
on the CC view?
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Inferior
d. Superior

A

b. Lateral

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73
Q

Which of the following is only a diagnostic view?

a. XCCM
b. Tangential
c. SIO
d. Axillary Tail

A

b. Tangential

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74
Q

It is acceptable to perform an Axillary Trail view when you performed a poorly positioned MLO on an
average patient?
a. True
b. False – It is not acceptable to add additional views on a patient that is average and the
MLO should be easily attainable

A

b. False – It is not acceptable to add additional views on a patient that is average and the
MLO should be easily attainable

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75
Q

In an Axillary Tail View, the IMF is optimized

a. True
b. False – The Axillary Tail is optimized

A

b. False – The Axillary Tail is optimized

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76
Q

Which view below would best demonstrate skin calcifications?

a. Tangential
b. XCCL
c. XCCM
d. Rolled View

A

a. Tangential

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77
Q

The lateral Medial View maximizes visualization of the lateral tissue

a. True
b. False – The xray enters the lateral side of the breast and exits medially, which is next
to the detector so medial tissue is best visualized as detail is higher on the body part
laying on the detector

A

b. False – The xray enters the lateral side of the breast and exits medially, which is next
to the detector so medial tissue is best visualized as detail is higher on the body part
laying on the detector

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78
Q

For a rolled MLO Inferior, your top hand travels superiorly

a. True
b. False – The top hand always travels in the direction of the view – in this case Inferior

A

b. False – The top hand always travels in the direction of the view – in this case Inferior

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79
Q

The labeling code for Magnification is MAG

a. True
b. False – The labeling code for Magnification is M

A

b. False – The labeling code for Magnification is M

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80
Q

The compression paddle used for a Magnification is which of the following?

a. 18 x 24 compression paddle
b. Spot Compression paddle
c. 24 x 30 Compression paddle
d. Biopsy compression paddle

A

b. Spot Compression paddle

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81
Q

An Open Grid Compression paddle is used for which view?

a. Spot Compression
b. Rolled view
c. Magnification
d. Tangential

A

d. Tangential

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82
Q

What is the most common Diagnostic View

a. XCCL
b. XCCM
c. Cleavage
d. Medial Lateral (ML)

A

d. Medial Lateral (ML)

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83
Q

If a radiologist sees a lesion in the MLO but not the CC, what could you be asked to perform?

a. ML for triangulation
b. Perform an XCCM
c. 15 degree obliques
d. Perform a XCCL

A

a. ML for triangulation

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84
Q

How many Fibers, Speck Groups and Masses are embedded in the ACR DM Phantom?
a. 6 Fibers, 6 Speck Groups, 6 Masses
b. 6 Fibers, 5 Speck Groups 6 Masses
c. 6 Fibers, 5 Speck Groups, 5 Masses
d. 5 Fibers, 5 Speck Groups, 5 Masses

A

a. 6 Fibers, 6 Speck Groups, 6 Masses

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85
Q

The minimum Frequency for the Phantom to be performed is:
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Daily
d. Weekly

A

d. Weekly

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86
Q

What is the minimum number of test objects that need to be visualized in the Phantom
Evaluation?
a. 4 Fibers, 3 Speck Groups, 3 Masses
b. 3 Fibers, 2 Speck Groups, 3 Masses
c. 2 Fibers, 3 Speck Groups, 2 Masses
d. 3 Fibers, 3 Speck Groups, 3 Masses

A

c. 2 Fibers, 3 Speck Groups, 2 Masses

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87
Q

What is the ideal size paddle to use to compress the phantom during the weekly phantom
evaluation?
a. Any compression paddle is fine
b. The smallest paddle used clinically
c. The largest paddle used clinically
d. Spot Compression Paddle

A

c. The largest paddle used clinically

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88
Q

How many Pounds of pressure should be exerted on the Phantom during evaluation?
a. 25 pounds of pressure
b. 8 pounds of pressure
c. 5 pounds of pressure
d. 12 pounds of pressure

A

d. 5daN or 12 pounds of pressure

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89
Q

What is the name of the artifacts that appear as non-uniformities, blotches or streaks?
a. Broad Area Artifacts
b. Random Artifacts
c. Detailed area Artifacts
d. Phantom Artifacts

A

a. Broad Area Artifacts

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90
Q

Detailed area artifacts

A

Detailed area artifacts (e.g. black or white pixels, clusters of pixels, lines or dust
particles) usually are best seen while observing the phantom image at full spatial
resolution, where one pixel on the display matches one pixel in the image, or with
magnification, using a zoom factor greater than 1.0

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91
Q

When evaluating the DBT Phantom, scroll to the slice or slab in which the test objects are best
visualized
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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92
Q

You can count a fiber as a full point if you see at least how many millimeters (mm) of the fiber?
a. 8 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 10 mm
d. 12 mm

A

a. 8 mm

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93
Q

If an artifact is noticed on the phantom evaluation & found to come from the monitor, you have
30 days to fix it.
a. True
b. False – it needs to be fixed before the monitor is used clinically

A

b. False – it needs to be fixed before the monitor is used clinically

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94
Q

4 Specks visible in a Speck Group will count as 1⁄2 of a full point
a. True
b. False – 4-6 specks yields a full point

A

b. False – 4-6 specks yields a full point (pg 88)

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95
Q

What is the minimum frequency of the Compression Thickness Indicator?
a. Quarterly
b. Daily
c. Weekly
d. Monthly

A

d. Monthly

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96
Q
  1. Which compression paddle is used with the Compression Thickness Indicator QC Test?
    a. Spot Compression Paddle
    b. The smallest Paddle you have
    c. The largest paddle you have
    d. Either A or C
A

a. Spot Compression Paddle (If not available, use the smallest non=flex compression paddle available.) Apply a compression force of approx 10-15 pounds (4.4 to 6.7 decanewtons to the phantom.)

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97
Q

How many pounds of pressure to you exert on the phantom in the Spot Compression Indicator
QC Test?
a. 15 – 20 pounds
b. 10 – 15 pounds
c. 7-10 pounds
d. 5-7 pounds

A

b. 10 – 15 pounds (4.4 to 6.7 decanewtons to the phantom.)

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98
Q

The Compression Thickness Indicator QC performance criteria needs to be accurate to what
degree?
a. +/- .1 mm
b. +/- 1 cm
c. +/- .5 cm
d. +/- .5 mm

A

c. +/- .5 cm

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99
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered Critical on the Visual Checklist QC Test
a. Cleaning Solutions need to be available
b. The breast support must not be cracked
c. Locks working correctly
d. Collimator light working properly

A

d. Collimator light working properly

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100
Q

Failures of less critical Visual Checklist tests must be corrected before clinical use of the
equipment
a. True
b. False – The less critical tests must be corrected within 30 days

A

b. False – The less critical tests must be corrected within 30 days

(FAILURE OF VISUAL CRITICAL CHECKLIST MUST BE CORRECTED BEFORE CLINCAL USE)

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101
Q
A
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102
Q

Failures of the Critical Visual Checklist tests must be corrected before clinical use of the
equipment
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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103
Q

How often is the Acquisition Monitor QC performed?
a. Daily
b. Quarterly
c. Monthly
d. Weekly

A

c. Monthly

104
Q

Monitor Manufacturer Automated QC is elective if offered with the monitor?
a. True
b. False – If Monitor Manufacturer Automated QC is available from manufacturer it is
mandatory that this QC be done in addition to the 2018 ACR DM Monitor QC

A

b. False – If Monitor Manufacturer Automated QC is available from manufacturer it is
mandatory that this QC be done in addition to the 2018 ACR DM Monitor QC

105
Q

How often is the Radiologist Review Workstation QC performed?
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Weekly
d. Daily

A

a. Monthly

106
Q

What is the main difference between the Acquisition Monitor and Review Workstation (RWS)
Monitor QC?
a. Artifacts can be present on the AWS monitor
b. The RWS QC contains a phantom evaluation
c. 95-100% Contrast boxes need not be visible on AWS
d. 0-5% contrast boxes do not need to be visible on AWS monitors

A

b. The RWS QC contains a phantom evaluation???

107
Q

What is the frequency of the Repeat Analysis QC Test?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. As needed

A

d. As needed

108
Q

Which of the following would NOT count as a repeat?
a. Good images in retrospect
b. Poor Positioning
c. Additional views needed to visualize the entire breast
d. Patient Motion

A

c. Additional views needed to visualize the entire breast

109
Q

Ideally the Repeat Rate should be between 2-5 %
a. True
b. False – Ideally the Repeat Rate will be < 2%

A

b. False – Ideally the Repeat Rate will be < 2%

110
Q

The procedure for documenting procedures when images are of poor quality does not have to be a written procedure?
a. True
b. False

111
Q

A periodic clinical image review of all active RT’s and IP’s is required at least quarterly?
a. True
b. False – it is recommended to be quarterly but required at least annually

A

b. False – it is recommended to be quarterly

but Required at least Annually

112
Q

Written documentation of the clinical image review is required?
a. True
b. False

113
Q

Written documentation of the LIP’s oversight of the QC/QA program is required?
a. True
b. False

A

b. False ?

114
Q

Hormone receptors are proteins found on the surface and inside of some cancer cells
a. True
b. False

115
Q

Tamoxifen is a form of chemotherapy
a. True
b. False – Tamoxifen is a receptor modulator

A

b. False – Tamoxifen is a receptor modulator

(Considered a Hormonal therapy/Systemic therapy. Its (the most comon anti estrogen drug) it binds to CA cells , and blocks ER/PR from binding.)

116
Q

Systemic Therapy types
(Treatment via bloodstream- whole body treatment)
Ovarian Ablation
Chemotherapy
Hormone Therapy
Anti-HER2 Therapy

117
Q

Breast Cancer cells can be ER+, PR+, or ER+ and PR+
a. True
b. False

118
Q

ER/PR negative tumors have few or no hormone receptors
a. True
b. False

119
Q

What is the name of the drug that is used to combat HER2+ breast cancers
a. Tamoxifen
b. Aromotase Inhibitor
c. Radiation Seeds
d. Herceptin

A

d. Herceptin

120
Q

What is the name of the therapy used to shrink tumors before surgery?
a. Chemotherapy
b. Hormone Therapy
c. Neo-Adjuvant Therapy
d. Adjuvant Therapy

A

c. Neo-Adjuvant Therapy

121
Q

Which breast cancer is difficult to treat?
a. PR+
b. ER+
c. ER/PR+
d. Triple Negative

A

d. Triple Negative (Breast Cancer is
negative for ER,PR and
HER2).

122
Q

Treatment for Early Breast Cancer
Lumpectomy Plus Radiation vs Mastectomy
Overall survival rate?

A

Overall survival rate is the same.

123
Q

Which feature of calcifications would be LEAST likely to be benign?

a. Clustered together
b. Found in both breasts
c. Scattered
d. Well defined

A

a. Clustered together

124
Q

Name the characteristic of a lesion that is MOST likely to be considered benign

a. Irregular borders
b. Well circumscribed
c. Painless
d. Hard and fixed

A

b. Well circumscribed

125
Q

In what part of the breast do most breast cancers arise?

a. Parenchyma
b. Fatty tissue
c. Segmental Duct
d. Terminal Ductal Lobular Unit

A

d. Terminal Ductal Lobular Unit

126
Q

Name the characteristic of a lesion that is typically Malignant?

a. Oval
b. Circumscribed
c. Found in both breasts
d. Spiculated

A

d. Spiculated

127
Q

A benign condition that looks like a breast within a breast

a. Hemotoma
b. Hamartoma
c. Galactocele
d. Lipoma

A

b. Hamartoma

128
Q

What diagnostic procedure is used to diagnose a papilloma?

a. Cystogram
b. Fine Needle Aspiration
c. Core Biopsy
d. Ductogram

A

d. Ductogram

129
Q

What benign condition is a pocket of fat encapsulated by a layer of fibrous tissue can be seen with
the naked eye?
a. Sarcoma
b. Lipoma
c. Galactocele
d. Radial Scar

A

b. Lipoma
(lipo)

130
Q

A condition when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked and causes a greenish discharge?

a. Ductal Hyperplasia
b. Ductal Ectasia
c. Lobular Hyperplasia
d. Atypical Hyperplasia

A

b. Ductal Ectasia

131
Q

Which view shows Milk of Calcium the best?

a. Lateral Medial
b. Medial Lateral
c. Tangential
d. Both A&B

A

d. Both A&B

132
Q

What condition occurs when there is an overgrowth of cells in the lobules?

a. Lobular Hyperplasia
b. Lobular carcinoma in situ
c. Invasive Lobular Carcinoma
d. Lobular Hypoplasia

A

Lobular Hyperplasia

133
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed breast cancer in the United States?

a. Invasive Lobular Carcinoma
b. Ductal Carcinoma In Situ
c. Invasive Ductal Carcinoma
d. Lobular Carcinoma In Situ

A

c. Invasive Ductal Carcinoma

134
Q

What very rare breast cancer (less than 1%) starts in the connective tissue of the breast?

a. Lipoma
b. Sarcoma
c. Radial Scar
d. Lymphoma

A

b. Sarcoma

135
Q

Which of the following is a rare and very aggressive breast cancer in which the cancer cells block
lymph vessels?
a. Paget’s Disease
b. Invasive Lobular Carcinoma
c. Inflammatory Carcinoma
d. Lymphoma

A

c. Inflammatory Carcinoma

136
Q

Which cancer is referred to as the “sleeper cancer” and patients will complain of breast thickening
instead of a lump?
a. Invasive Lobular Carcinoma
b. Lobular Carcinoma In Situ
c. Fibroadenoma
d. Ductal Carcinoma In Situ

A

a. Invasive Lobular Carcinoma

137
Q

Which breast cancer is thought to be the earliest form of breast cancer and is confined to a duct?

a. Invasive Ductal Carcinoma
b. Ductal Carcinoma In Situ
c. Ductal Estasia
d. Sebacious Cyst

A

b. Ductal Carcinoma In Situ

138
Q

What characteristic of a stellate lesion leads to suspicion?

a. Size of the lesion
b. Translucent Center
c. Dense Center
d. Mottled Center

A

c. Dense Center

139
Q
  1. What is a milk filled lesion?
    a. Fibroadenoma
    b. Fat Necrosis
    c. Cyst
    d. Galactocele
A

d. Galactocele

140
Q

What is the name of the endocrine disorder found in males?

a. Gynoclamidia
b. Hormone Replacement Therapy Result
c. Gynecomastia
d. Gynectasia

A

c. Gynecomastia

141
Q

Which of the following would be a lesion that is caused by trauma to the breast?

a. Galactocele
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Hematoma
d. Hamartoma

A

c. Hematoma

142
Q

A firm round lump that develops following surgery, reconstruction or a needle biopsy is called what?

a. Sarcoma
b. Fat Necrosis ( Oil Cyst)
c. Lipoma
d. Galactocele

A

b. Fat Necrosis ( Oil Cyst)

143
Q

Which of the following would typically be found in the axilla?

a. Fibroadenoma
b. Oil Cyst
c. Lymph Nodes
d. Lipomas

A

c. Lymph Nodes

144
Q

Which of the following represents tea cups on the ML or LM view?

a. Radial scar
b. Fat Necrosis
c. Breast Abcess
d. Milk of Calcium

A

d. Milk of Calcium

145
Q

Which of the following is a malignant condition of the nipple?

a. Pagent’s Disease
b. Papilloma
c. Erythema
d. Edema

A

Pagent’s Disease`

146
Q

Lobular Carcinoma in Situ are cancer cells that live inside the lobule but never have the ability to break out
a. True
b. False

147
Q

Under Breast Ultrasound, a lesion that is taller than wide might indicate what?
a. One would never see a lesion taller than wide
b. The findings are normal
c. This lesion is suspicious
d. The lesion is normal

A

c. This lesion is suspicious

148
Q

On Breast Ultrasound, which of the following would be an indication of a simple cyst?
a. Posterior Enhancement
b. Smooth Borders
c. Anechoic
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

149
Q

Which of the following would be an indication of a suspicious lesion?
a. Posterior Shadowing
b. Smooth Borders
c. Hypoechoic
d. Both A & C

A

d. Both A & C

150
Q

A Stereotactic Biopsy is typically used when a radiologist sees what?
a. Lymph Node
b. Suspicious Calcifications
c. A Large Mass
d. Scar Tissue

A

b. Suspicious Calcifications

(Stereotatic guidance vacuum core bx *Used for suspicious calcifications)

151
Q

Which of the following procedures might be done for unilateral bloody nipple discharge?
a. Galactography
b. Fine Needle Aspiration
c. Vacuum Assisted Biopsy
d. Core Biopsy

A

a. Galactography

GALACTOGRAPHY: An injection of a milk duct with contrast material. Radiographic
procedure in which a duct is cannulated and contrast is injected to delineate the size, site,
type and extent of a pathological lesion causing nipple discharge.

152
Q

A clip is placed after a breast biopsy if?
a. A mass is small
b. To continue surveillance
c. Lesion is suspicious
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

153
Q

Which of the following is an indication of cyst aspiration?
a. Posterior Enhancement
b. Lesions with thick walls/ septation
c. Macrolobulation
d. Hyperechoic

A

b. Lesions with thick walls/ septation

154
Q

Which of the following would be used to evaluate breast problems at a cellular level?
a. Fine Needle Aspiration
b. Galactogram
c. Cyst Aspiration
d. Core Biopsy – No vacuum

A

a. Fine Needle Aspiration

155
Q

What needle size is used in Fine Needle Aspirations?
a. 12-15 gauge
b. 10-16 gauge
c. 5-10 gauge
d. 18-25 gauge

A

d. 18-25 gauge

156
Q

Which of the following is used for assisting with NON-Vacuum Core Biopsy?
a. Breast MRI
b. Mammography
c. Breast CT
d. Breast Ultrasound

A

d. Breast Ultrasound ?

157
Q

What size needle would be used for Vacuum Assisted Core Biopsy?
a. 14-16 gauge
b. 4-8 gauge
c. 7-14 gauge
d. 18-25 gauge

A

c. 7-14 gauge

158
Q

For Needle Localization procedures, which views are used to localize the lesion?
a. The CC and 90 degree
b. CC, MLO, and 90 degree
c. The MLO and 90 degree
d. The CC and MLO

A

a. The CC and 90 degree

159
Q

What is used to indicate where a biopsy has occurred?
a. Fine Needle Aspiration
b. Needle Localization
c. MRI
d. Clip Placement

A

d. Clip Placement

160
Q
  1. The sentinel node biopsy is performed to determine what?
    a. To assign a Stage to a cancer
    b. To determine type of cancer
    c. If the breast cancer has metastisized
    d. TO check for Lymph node infection
A

c. If the breast cancer has metastisized

161
Q

Which modality has greater accuracy in sampling dense masses and requires only 1 pass?
a. Core Biopsy
b. Vacuum Assisted Biopsy
c. Localization
d. Fine Needle Aspiration

A

b. Vacuum Assisted Biopsy

162
Q

What imaging procedure might be used when a summation artifact or superimposition, is seen
on a 2D screening mammogram?
a. 3D Breast Tomosynthesis
b. Breast MRI
c. Magnification view
d. Breast Ultrasound

A

a. 3D Breast Tomosynthesis

163
Q

What is something that mammography is better at seeing than Breast Ultrasound?
a. Fluid Filled Cysts
b. Masses
c. Solid Filled Cysts
d. Calcifications

A

d. Calcifications

164
Q

Which breast imaging study is expensive, has high false positive rates and only detects 50% of early breast cancer?
a. Breast Ultrasound
b. Breast MRI
c. Galactography
d. Core Biopsy

A

b. Breast MRI

165
Q

Which type of biopsy device would you use if the patient has a blood clotting disorder?
a. Core Biopsy – Non vacuum
b. Stereoactic biopsy
c. Fine Needle Aspiration
d. Vacuum assisted core biopsy

A

a. Core Biopsy – Non vacuum

166
Q

What is the average kvp range of mammography?
a. 110-130 kvp
b. 50 – 65 kvp
c. 25-35 kvp
d. 75-90 kvp

A

c. 25-35 kvp

167
Q

What is the interface material of mammography linear grids?
a. Carbon
b. Cesium
c. Copper
d. Air

168
Q

In Full Field Digital Mammography, what determines which light field will be chosen to use with each patient?
a. The target filter combination chosen
b. The amount of compression exerted on the breast
c. The mammography technologists chooses
d. The size of the compression paddle chosen

A

d. The size of the compression paddle chosen

169
Q

What 2 imaging factors are grids used to control?
a. Scatter and dose
b. Scatter and Contrast
c. Scatter and Resolution
d. Contrast and Dose

A

b. Scatter and Contrast

170
Q

Mammography grids absorb what percentage of scatter?
a. 50-60%
b. 75-85%
c. 90-95%
d. 25-30%

171
Q

What is the grid ration used in mammography?
a. 8:1 – 10:1
b. 10:1 – 12:1
c. 5:1 – 8:1
d. 3:1 – 5:1

A

d. 3:1 – 5:1

172
Q

What 2 types of grids are used in mammography?
a. Honeycomb and HTC
b. Focused and HPC
c. Linear and Honeycomb
d. Linear and Focused

A

c. Linear and Honeycomb

173
Q

Which principle has to do with the actual focal spot and the effective focal spot?
a. Half Value Layer
b. Heel Effect
c. Half Field Geometry
d. Line Focus Principle

A

d. Line Focus Principle

174
Q

What focal spot size is used for standard mammography imaging?
a. .3 mm
b. .4 mm
c. .1 mm
d. .2 mm

175
Q

Which statement is true regarding magnification in mammography?
a. Grids are used to decrease scatter
b. Dose to the breast is unchanged
c. Dose is decreased to the breast
d. Grids are not used in magnification

A

d. Grids are not used in magnification

176
Q

What material is used in the xray tube’s window to allow photons to pass through
a. Glass
b. Selenium
c. Berylium
d. Cesium

A

c. Berylium

177
Q

What causes the Heel Effect
a. The angling of the anode
b. The size of the cathode
c. The kvP selected
d. The resulting MAS

A

a. The angling of the anode

178
Q

What is one of the roles of filtration in mammography?
a. Removes high energy photons which decrease resolution
b. Remove high energy photons which increase contrast too much
c. Removes high energy photons which decrease contrast
d. Removes soft photons that increase contrast and improve detail

A

c. Removes high energy photons which decrease contrast

179
Q

What is the typical SID in Mammography
a. 35-36 cm
b. 55-56 cm
c. 65-66 cm
d. 75-76 cm

A

c. 65-66 cm

180
Q

What is the maximum allowable dose per view in mammography?
a. .003 mgy
b. 300 mrad
c. 3 mrad
d. 300 mgy

A

b. 300 mrad

181
Q

What is used in mammography to assure radiation does not enter into the lung field?
a. Half Field Geometry
b. The tube is turned 90 degrees
c. The Line Focus Principle
d. The Heel Effect

A

a. Half Field Geometry

182
Q

What size focal spot is used with magnification?
a. .1 mm
b. .2 mm
c. .3 mm
d. .4 mm

183
Q

Which target filter combination might be used for a larger than average, but not extremely
dense, breast?
a. Rh/Mo
b. Rh/Rh
c. Mo/Rh
d. Mo/Mo

184
Q

What is the characteristic radiation range produced by a Molybdenum target (anode)?
a. 59-68 kev
b. 17-19 kev
c. 19-21 kev
d. 20-23 kev

A

b. 17-19 kev

185
Q

What 3 factors determine the Mammography x-ray spectrum?
a. Anode, Cathode, window material
b. Anode, kev, Cathode
c. Kev, Filter, Kv
d. Kv, Anode, filter material

A

d. Kv, Anode, filter material

186
Q

Rhodium produces characteristic radiation in what kev range?
a. 20-23 kev
b. 22-25 kev
c. 27-30 kev
d. 30-32 kev

A

a. 20-23 kev

187
Q
  1. All mammography machines are created to produce what?
    a. Medium contrast images with no worry of dose
    b. Low contrast images at a high patient dose
    c. Medium does levels with no concern of contrast
    d. High contrast images at a low patient dose
A

d. High contrast images at a low patient dose

188
Q

Which form of Mastectomy removes only the breast tissue?
a. Modified Mastectomy
b. Simple mastectomy
c. Lumpectomy
d. Radical Mastectomy

A

b. Simple mastectomy

189
Q

TRAM reconstruction stands for Transverse Rectus Abdominus……?
a. Muscle
b. Mastectomy
c. Middle
d. Myocutaneous

A

d. Myocutaneous

190
Q

Which of the following is surgical treatment for breast cancer?
a. Chemotherapy
b. Radiation
c. TRAM
d. Non-Adjuvant therapy

191
Q

Which of the following is an indication for Chemotherapy?
a. Postmenapausal
b. Positive Lymph Nodes
c. ERB2 Negative
d. Small Tumor

A

b. Positive Lymph Nodes

192
Q

What therapy is used for Triple Negative Breast Cancer?
a. Radiation
b. Chemotherapy
c. Brachytherapy
d. Neo-Adjuvant Therapy

A

b. Chemotherapy

193
Q

Neo-Adjuvant Therapy is indicated for large tumors to shrink the size and conserve tissue
a. True
b. False

194
Q

Tamoxifen is a hormone inhibitor that blocks estrogen from attaching to the cancer wall
a. True
b. False

A

a. True Tamoxifen (most common anti-estrogen therapy)

195
Q

Mastectomy patients have what chance of recurrence, if zero axillary nodes were involved
originally?
a. 4
b. 10
c. 2
d. 6

196
Q

Which NON surgical treatment uses a seed inserted into the breast?
a. Brachytherapy
b. Neo-Adjuvant Therapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radiation

A

a. Brachytherapy

197
Q

What are the hormone receptors on the surface and inside of cells?
a. Tamoxifen
b. Negative Charges
c. Proteins
d. Positive Charges

A

c. Proteins

198
Q

Survival rate is the same in early breast cancer whether you do a lumpectomy & radiation or a
mastectomy
a. True
b. False

199
Q

Most local recurrences occur in the first 5 years
a. True
b. False

200
Q

Ultrasound is a good way to measure changes in masses treated with Neo-Adjuvant Therapy
a. True
b. False

201
Q

What can help lessen the recurrence rate following lumpectomy?
a. Radiation
b. Chemotherapy
c. Proton Beam Therapy
d. Herceptin

A

a. Radiation

202
Q

With a HER2+ Breast Cancer, the _________________ are over stimulated
a. Protein Receptors
b. Estogen Receptors
c. Projesterone Receptors

A

a. Protein Receptors

203
Q

What type of therapy is administered after surgery to attempt to keep any outlying cancer cells?
a. Neo adjuvant Therapy
b. Hormone Therapy
c. Adjuvant Therapy
d. The use of Aromotase Inhibitors

A

c. Adjuvant Therapy (ADJUVANT CHEMOTHERAPY: Use of anticancer drugs IN ADDITION to other treatments to delay or to prevent a recurrence.)

204
Q

What is the preferred method of treatment for post- menopausal women who are ER+ or PR +?
a. Neo-adjuvant therapy
b. Aromotase Inhibitors
c. Chemotherapy
d. Tamoxifen

A

b. Aromotase Inhibitors

205
Q

What therapy is used for 5 years following breast cancer treatment for women who are
Pre- menopausal and ER+ or PR+?
a. Aromotase Iinhibitors
b. Chemotherapy
c. Tamoxifen
d. Adjuvant therapy

A

c. Tamoxifen

206
Q

Breast Cancer cells can be ER+, PR+, or ER+ and PR+
a. True
b. False

207
Q

ER/PR negative tumors have few or no hormone receptors
a. True
b. False

208
Q

What is the name of the drug that is used to combat HER2+ breast cancers
a. Tamoxifen
b. Aromotase Inhibitor
c. Radiation Seeds
d. Herceptin

A

d. Herceptin

209
Q

In what year was the Mammography Quality Standards Act passed?
a. 1999
b. 1994
c. 1992
d. 1990

210
Q

Under MQSA which of the following is NOT mandatory?
a. FDA Certification
b. Having an “M” as a mammography technologist
c. Annual Medical Physicist Survey
d. ACR Accreditation

A

b. Having an “M” as a mammography technologist

211
Q

How many mammography credits are required by MQSA every how many years for
mammography technologists?
a. 24 credits every 2 years
b. 15 credits every 2 years
c. 24 credits every 3 years
d. 15 credits every 3 years

A

d. 15 credits every 3 years

212
Q

Under MQSA, how many mammograms must you perform every 2 years to stay legal?
a. 25
b. 200
c. 75
d. 100

213
Q

If a mammography technologist falls out of legal status, what must she do to become legal
again?
a. Perform 25 supervised mammograms
b. Shadow a supervisor for 25 supervised mammograms
c. Bring mammography credits up to 15
d. Both a & c

A

d. Both a & c

214
Q

Which of the following does NOT need to be on a Medical Report?
a. The name of the patient
b. The name of the interpreting physician
c. The name of the mammography technologist
d. The name of the facility

A

c. The name of the mammography technologist

215
Q

A Category 3 BIRAD equates to:
a. Probably benign
b. Benign
c. Negative
d. Incomplete, needs additional imaging information

A

a. Probably benign

216
Q

How often does ACR Accreditation need to happen?
a. Every year
b. Every 2 years
c. Every 3 years
d. Every 4 years

A

c. Every 3 years

217
Q

How long do Breast Centers have to keep a returning patient’s mammograms?
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. Indefinitely

A

b. 5 years

218
Q

How many years must a breast center keep a Serious Complaint?
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

A

b. 3 years

219
Q

What would the recommendation be for a Category 0 BIRAD?
a. Receive short interval follow up
b. Continue screening based on practice guidelines
c. Must indicate what additional imaging study is recommended
d. Indicate the suggested Biopsy method

A

c. Must indicate what additional imaging study is recommended

220
Q

How many years must a breast center keep a non-returning patient’s mammograms?
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 1 year

A

a. 10 years

221
Q

A suspicious lesion that turns out negative after a diagnostic work up will be deemed:
a. A missed cancer
b. A false negative
c. A false Positive
d. Interpreted correctly

A

c. A false Positive

222
Q

How many days does a breast center have to take corrective action after a Level 2 FDA
violation?
a. Until the next inspection
b. Immediately
c. 30 working days
d. 15 days

A

c. 30 working days

223
Q

A follow up BIRAD recommendation: Must indicate suggested Biopsy method:
a. Would be a follow up recommendation for Cat 4 BIRADS
b. Would be a follow up recommendation for a Cat 2 BIRADS
c. Would be a follow up recommendation for a Cat 6 BIRADS
d. Would be a follow up recommendation for a Cat 3 BIRADS

A

a. Would be a follow up recommendation for Cat 4 BIRADS

224
Q

A missed malignancy on a screening mammogram is referred to as what?
a. Correctly interpreted mammograms
b. Diagnostic
c. False Positive
d. False Negative

A

d. False Negative

225
Q

How many days after a Level 1 citation on an MQSA inspection does the facility have to correct?
a. Immediate action is required
b. 10 working days
c. 15 working days
d. 30 working days

A

c. 15 working days

226
Q

Which of the following can you NOT count toward your 200 mammograms required every 2 years?
a. Needle localizations
b. Magnification views
c. Diagnostic views
d. Spot compression views

A

a. Needle localizations

227
Q

Who will oversee your proof of 15 mammography credits every 3 years to remain legal?
a. FDA
b. Your annual MQSA inspector
c. ARRT
d. ASRT

A

b. Your annual MQSA inspector

228
Q

In what year did the Final MQSA Regulations go into effect?
a. 1992
b. 1994
c. 1999
d. 2000

229
Q

When do the ARRT required additional mammograms need to be supervised?
a. All 100 mammograms always need to be supervised
b. After you perform 25 supervised mammograms and take the 40 hour course
c. They would never need to be supervised
d. If you perform all 100 mammograms before taking the 40 hour course

A

d. If you perform all 100 mammograms before taking the 40 hour course

230
Q

AWS stands for…..?
a. Acquisition Workstation
b. Available Workstation
c. Alteration Workstation
d. Analog Workstation

RWS stands for…..?
a. Reserve Workstation
b. Radiologist Workstation
c. Reject Workstation
d. Review Workstation

A

a. Acquisition Workstation

d. Review Workstation

231
Q

MQSA requires RWS monitors to be at least how many megapixels?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 5
d. 3

232
Q

HIS stands for….?
a. Helpful Information Systems
b. Hospital Information System
c. Health Internal System
d. History Information System

A

b. Hospital Information System

233
Q

HIS is a data information system that manages what?
a. Legal
b. Financial
c. Medical
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

234
Q

What is the Universal language used for storage and transmission of patient information?
a. HL5
b. HL6
c. HL7
d. HL8

235
Q

What does RIS stand for?
a. Reading Information System
b. Review Information System
c. Reports Information System
d. Radiology Information System

A

d. Radiology Information System

236
Q

What do we use DICOM for?
a. Storing Images
b. Transmitting Images
c. Printing Images
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

237
Q

MQSA only allows what type of Compression
a. Lossy
b. Lossless
c. Long
d. Low Contrast

A

b. Lossless

238
Q

Computer Aided Detection (CAD) has 2 major roles:
a. Compression/organization
b. Storage/Detection
c. Detection/Classification
d. Classification/Compression

A

c. Detection/Classification

239
Q

Of the 8 Imaging Evaluation Criteria, which 2 are the ones failed most often?
a. Positioning/Exposure
b. Compression/Noise
c. Positioning/Compression
d. Compression/Image Sharpness

A

c. Positioning/Compression

240
Q

A periodic Clinical Image review of all active RT and IP’s required at least quarterly?
a. True
b. False – it is required at least annually

A

b. False – it is required at least annually *

241
Q

Written documentation of the Clinical Image Review is required
a. True
b. False

242
Q

CA stands for what in the EQUIP section for mammography?
a. Contrast Acceptable
b. Centered Area
c. California
d. Corrective Action

A

d. Corrective Action

243
Q

Which of the following is a reason facilities are getting a Level 2 violation?
a. Interpreting Physician not included in the EQUIP process
b. EQUIP procedure is only verbally explained to inspector – nothing written
c. QA/QC peer reviews
d. RT Reviews done only quarterly

A

a. Interpreting Physician not included in the EQUIP process

244
Q

EQUIP requires the need for a procedure to be in place for Corrective Action (CA) when images are of poor quality
a. True
b. False

245
Q

The Corrective Action (CA) taken for poor image quality has to be documented in the dept.
a. True
b. False

246
Q

The Procedure for Corrective Action (CA) in a dept has to be a written document to be shown to an MQSA inspector?
a. True
b. False

247
Q

EQUIP does NOT require the Lead Interpretive Physician (LIP) to oversee the QA/QC

a. True
b. False – The LIP is ultimately responsible to make sure QA/QC is done and corrective
action taken in necessary

A

b. False – The LIP is ultimately responsible to make sure QA/QC is done and corrective
action taken in necessary

248
Q

The procedure for LIP oversight of the QA/QC records does NOT have to be a written policy?
a. True
b. False

249
Q

There is a required Quarterly frequency of LIP oversight of QA/QC records
a. True
b. False – Quarterly is recommended but currently there is no required frequency

A

b. False – Quarterly is recommended but currently there is no required frequency

250
Q

What does the E in EQUIP stand for?
a. Efforts
b. Evaluating
c. Enhancing
d. Equipment

A

c. Enhancing

251
Q

Most MQSA inspection violations are related to image quality
a. True
b. False

252
Q

What happens if you get a repeat of an EQUIP violation Level 2 the following year?

a. You receive a 2nd Level 2 violation that must be corrected within 15 days, instead of 30

b. Your facility is shut down
c. You receive a 2nd Level 1 violation that must be corrected within 15 days
d. Your Lead Interpreting Physician is placed on Probation

A

a. You receive a 2nd Level 2 violation that must be corrected within 15 days, instead of 30

253
Q

Daily image reading takes away the need for periodic Clinical Image Review
a. True
b. False – This incorrect thought process is one of the reasons for Level 2 violations

A

b. False – This incorrect thought process is one of the reasons for Level 2 violations

254
Q

Equip stand for?

A

EQUIP – Enhancing Quality Using the Inspection Program

255
Q

ACR accreditation every 3 yrs for each machine.

A

ACRAccreditation
Frequency ‐ Every3years
Purpose– providesfacilitieswithpeerreviewand
constructivefeedbackonstaff,qualifications,
equipment,qualitycontrol,qualityassurance,image
qualityandradiationdose.The1992Mammography
QualityStandardsAct(MQSA)requiresthatall
mammographyfacilitiesintheUnitedStatesbe
accredited.

Ifyourapplication/sareaccepted,youwillbegivena
45daywindowtoselectyourbestimages.

Assessmentofimagesyousubmitmustbe
NEGATIVE:
BI‐RADS1Negative
BI‐RADS2Benign‐ withAB(AccreditingBody)
priorapproval&MedicalReportwillberequired–
(usuallygrantedtodiagnosticcenterswithlowscreening
volume)

MammogramofFattybreast– 4images
2CC’s2MLO’s
MammogramofDensebreast– 4images
2CC’s2MLO’s
Phantomimage
 Thephantomimageselectedmustbewithin30daysofclinicalimages
selectedandif havelaserprinter,withinsametimeperiodoflaserqc
chart
QCChartsfromthesame30dayperiodastheimageswerechosenfrom

256
Q

Communication patient results

A

Writtenreportsmustbesentdirectly
tothepatientintermseasily
understoodbyalayperson,within30
days.

IfthereportindicatesSuspicious
orHighlySuggestiveofMalignancy,
everyattemptshouldbemadeto
communicatetheseresultswithin5
workingdays

257
Q

Medical outcome audit done once a year

A

Confidential checks: Numberoffalsenegatives– (missedcancer) 😱😣
* NumberoffalsePositives–(suspectedbutturnsoutok)😌
* FollowBIRADS4and5
* Numberofmammogramsinterpretedcorrectly #️⃣✅

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