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Anatomy & Physiology > Kady's Quizlet > Flashcards

Kady's Quizlet Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

Neuron period of rest (refractory period)
Inside cell is more negative (less than -70 mV)

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1
Q

superior/inferior

A

above/below

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2
Q

standard anatomical position

A

standing upright
head faces forward
arms at sides
palms face forward
thumbs pointed outward
feet flat
toes pointed forward

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3
Q

sagittal plane

A

divides body into left and right

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4
Q

anterior/posterior

A

front/back

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5
Q

coronal plane

A

divides into front and back

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6
Q

What type of neurons are auditory neurons?

A

bipolar

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7
Q

dorsal/ventral

A

dorsal = top of brain
ventral = bottom of brain

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8
Q

voltage of resting membrane potential

A

-70 mV

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9
Q

What are the steps of the action potential?

A

Depolarization, then hyperpolarization (resting period)

Gates open between Schwann cells at the Nodes of Ranvier

All or nothing event!

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10
Q

perilymph

A

sodium-rich (Na+)
similar to CSF
located in scala vestibuli and scala tympani

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11
Q

endolymphp

A

potassium-rich (K+)
produced by stria vascularis
in scala media (cochlear duct)

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12
Q

What are the five balance organs?

A

Anterior/Superior SCC
Posterior SCC
Horizontal/Lateral SCC
Utricle
Saccule

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13
Q

angular acceleration

A

semicircular canals

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14
Q

linear acceleration

A

utricle and saccule

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15
Q

Where does CN VIII insert?

A

pontomedullary junction
or
cerebellopontine angle

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16
Q

What are the structures of the CNS?

A

brain
brainstem
cerebellum
spinal cord

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17
Q

What are the structures of the PNS?

A

12 cranial nerves
31 spinal nerves

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18
Q

What is the purpose of nerve cells?

A

Messenger between the nervous system and the body

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19
Q

What are neurons?

A

nerve cells

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20
Q

What do neurons do?

A

Transmit nerve impulses (send signals)

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21
Q

What do neuroglia do?

A

support neurons
provide nutrients

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22
Q

Name the parts of a neuron

A

Dendrites
Axon, myelinated
Cell body

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23
Q

What’s the function of the dendrite?

A

Receive afferent signals

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24
Q

Where do axons originate?

A

axon hillock of the cell body

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25
Q

What is the function of the synapse?

A

Site where neurons communicate with other neurons, muscles, or glands

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26
Q

What is the function of myelin?

A

Supports, protects, and insulates axon

Increases conduction speed of electrical signals (fire faster)

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27
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

gaps in the myelin sheath of a nerve, between adjacent Schwann cells
site of ion gates

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28
Q

What is an internode of neuron?

A

Area of axon wrapped in myelin
Between Nodes of Ranvier

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29
Q

Nuclei

A

group of cell bodies in the CNS

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30
Q

ganglion

A

group of cell bodies in the PNS

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31
Q

What does the brainstem consist of?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

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32
Q

What is the purpose of the brainstem?

A

Connects the diencephalon to the spinal cord
Monitors all brain output

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33
Q

What is the tegmental area of the the medulla responsible for?

A

heartbeat
blood vessels
breathing

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34
Q

Where is the medulla located?

A

lowest portion of the brainstem

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35
Q

What is located in the pyramidal area of the medulla?

A

descending motor fibers

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36
Q

What does the pons contain?

A

cochlear nerve nuclei
reticular formation
direct contact to the cerebellum for vestibular

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37
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

generates neurotransmitters

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38
Q

What are the important structures of the midbrain?

A

superior and inferior colliculi

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39
Q

What is the cerebellum’s function?

A

-equilibrium and coordination
-muscle tone, speed, and range
-integration of motor and vestibular input

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40
Q

superior colliculus

A

vision

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41
Q

inferior colliculus

A

projections from ear to brain (ascending)

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42
Q

diencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

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43
Q

Where is the medial geniculate body located?

A

thalamus

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44
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

regulates motor function
muscle tone
(ex: Parkinson’s)

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45
Q

telencephalon

A

cerebral hemispheres
basal ganglia
corpus callosum

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46
Q

Which are the important Brodmann’s areas?

A

Areas 41, 22, and 42

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47
Q

grey matter

A

superficial
unmyelinated cell bodies

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48
Q

white matter

A

deep
myelinated axons and dendrites

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49
Q

What is the purpose of sulci and gyri?

A

Increases surface area of the brain

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50
Q

sulci

A

grooves

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51
Q

gyri

A

ridges

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52
Q

fissures

A

deep grooves in the brain

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53
Q

What is the function of the corpus callosum?

A

connects left and right hemispheres
heavily myelinated

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54
Q

lateral/medial

A

away from midline / toward midline

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55
Q

contralateral / ipsilateral

A

opposite side / same side

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56
Q

bilateral/unilateral

A

both sides / one side

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57
Q

transient

A

temporary

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58
Q

persistent

A

lasting

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59
Q

static

A

unchanging

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60
Q

improving

A

beginning to resolve

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61
Q

progressive

A

continue to worsen

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62
Q

acute

A

over minutes or hours

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63
Q

subacute

A

over days or weeks

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64
Q

chronic

A

over months or years

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65
Q

bipolar nerve cell

A

one dendrite
one axon
auditory nerve (IHC and OHC)

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66
Q

multipolar nerve cell

A

many dendrites
one axon
CNS to save space

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67
Q

unipolar nerve cell

A

combination one dendrite/one axon

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68
Q

Type I afferent neurons

A

heavily myelinated
1:1 ratio on IHC (exclusive relationship)

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69
Q

Type II afferent neurons

A

innervate multiple OHCs

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70
Q

neuroglial cells

A

physical support
insulation
nutrients for neurons
NOT PART OF ACTION POTENTIAL

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71
Q

Schwann cells

A

myelinate axons in the PNS

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72
Q

oligodendroglial cell

A

myelin in CNS

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73
Q

endoneurium
perineurium
epineurium

A

layers of connective tissue of a nerve from inferior to exterior

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74
Q

Voltage change required for an action potential

A

15 mV

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75
Q

depolarization

A

Na (endolymph) enters the cell
Cell becomes more positive (-55 mV or higher)

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76
Q

congenital age

A

beginning at conception

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77
Q

gestational age

A

beginning at start of last menstrual cycle

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78
Q

morphogenesis

A

development of an organism and its structures

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79
Q

How is morphogenesis achieved?

A

sparked by gene expression and cell fate determination

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80
Q

How does CNS development begin?

A

trilaminarization

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81
Q

What is derived from ectoderm?

A

skin
nervous system
sense organs

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82
Q

What is derived from mesoderm?

A

skeleton
circulatory system
kidneys
reproductive system
muscles

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83
Q

Embryology:
Weeks 1 and 2

A

egg is fertilized and divides (blastula)

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84
Q

Embryology:
Day 21

A

neural groove invaginates toward the notochord

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85
Q

Embryology: Day 22

A

neural tube closure begins
otic placode forms

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86
Q

Embryology: Day 24

A

neural tube continues to close
otic placode begins to invaginate

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87
Q

Embryology: Day 25

A

neural tube is fully closed

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88
Q

Anencephaly and Spina Bifida

A

Neural tube malformation
Missing brain or incomplete closure of spinal cord
Reduced by folic acid supplement
Revealed through ultrasound

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89
Q

Embryology: Day 27

A

otic pit forms

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90
Q

When are teratogens most harmful?

A

weeks 4-9

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91
Q

Which end of the neural tube is the brain?

A

rostral

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92
Q

What is the prosencephalon?

A

forebrain

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93
Q

What does the prosencephalon divide into?

A

telencephalon and diencephalon

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94
Q

What does the mesencephalon develop into?

A

midbrain

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95
Q

What ist he rhomencephalon?

A

hindbran

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96
Q

What does the rhombencephalon divide into?

A

metencephalon and myelencephalon

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97
Q

What does the metencephalon become?

A

pons and cerebellum

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98
Q

What does the myelencephalon become?

A

medulla oblongata

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99
Q

Embryology: Week 4

A

-rostral neural tube divides
-cranial nerve nuclei present (in BAs)
-otic vesicle formed
-“hollow” cochlear duct formed
-branchial arches present
-pharyngeal pouch extends
-primordial ossicles present

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100
Q

Pathology:
Halted cochlear development at Week 4

A

Common cavity

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101
Q

Pathology:
Malformation of branchial arches I and II

A

Treacher Collins Syndrome
(inner ear generally unaffected)

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102
Q

Embryology: Week 5

A

branchial groove I deepens (beginning of EAM)

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103
Q

Embryology: Week 6

A

-SCC arch-like formations visible
-rudimentary utricle and saccule formed
-ET form from pharyngeal pouch
-tympanic cavity forms (endoderm)
-hillocks of pinna form (BA 1 and 2)

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104
Q

Embryology: Week 7

A

cochlea has one coil

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105
Q

Embryology: Week 6.5

A

cochlea begins coiling
SCC is more defined

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106
Q

Pathology:
Halted cochlear development at Week 6

A

cochlear hypoplasia

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107
Q

Pathology:
Halted cochlear development at Week 7

A

Incomplete partition/Mondini’s dysplasia

May not affect hearing ability

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108
Q

Auricle movement: Weeks 7-20

A

superior and lateral movement as face and jaw displaces it

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109
Q

Pathology:
Atypical movement of pinna

A

Caudal displacement
Goldenhar Syndrome

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110
Q

Embryology: Week 8

A

EAM sinks toward tympanic cavity with thick epithelium (metal plug)

Mesoderm grows between EAM and tympanic cavity

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111
Q

Pathology:
Halted cochlear development at Week 9

A

“Normal” structural development, missing internal structures

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112
Q

Embryology: Week 9

A

Tympanic membrane is forming

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113
Q

Embryology: Weeks 8.5 - 10

A

incus and malleus complete but still cartilaginous

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114
Q

Embryology: Week 10

A

-corpus callosom present
-Organ of Corti begins development (3 ducts in cochlea)
-tectorial membrane defined

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115
Q

Pathology: Agenesis

A

failure of all or part of an organ to develop

under-developed corpus callosum; risk for APD

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116
Q

Embryology: Week 11

A

hair cells begin developing

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117
Q

How do hair cells develop?

A

inner before outer
base to apex
afferent before efferent

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118
Q

Embryology: Week 12

A

afferent nerves on ALL hair cells

stereocilia begin to develop

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119
Q

Embryology: Week 14

A

all stereocilia present (not adult-like)

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120
Q

Embryology: Week 15

A

stapes formation is complete but still cartilaginous

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121
Q

Embryology: Week 16

A

ossification of incus and malleus begins

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122
Q

When is the auricle essentially adult-like?

A

16-20 weeks (grows until 9 years old)

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123
Q

Embryology: Week 18

A

ossification of stapes begins

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124
Q

Embryology: Week 19

A

three layers of tympanic membrane is complete

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125
Q

When is the stapes completely ossified?

A

adulthood

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126
Q

Embryology: Week 20

A

-cerebral hemispheres are smooth
-cochlea and vestibular organs are essentially complete
-efferent replace afferent on OHCs

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127
Q

Embryology: Week 22

A

stereocilia adult-like shapes

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128
Q

Embryology: Week 24

A

sulci and gyri begin to form
cochlea is fully developed (definition of OoC)

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129
Q

Embryology: Week 26

A

malleus and incus are completely ossified

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130
Q

When is the EAM completely open?

A

week 28-30

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131
Q

Embryology: Week 30

A

cochlear development complete (adult-like hearing)

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132
Q

hydrocephalus

A

excessive CSF in the brain

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133
Q

microcephaly

A

significantly reduced skull/brain

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134
Q

Which deformities go together?

A

outer and middle ear

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135
Q

What is the cochlea derived from?

A

ectoderm

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136
Q

What is the lining of the middle ear derived from?

A

endoderm

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137
Q

Can a fetus hear at 20 weeks GA?

A

Yes, but with elevated thresholds and poor discrimination

138
Q

When can electrophysiologic measures be estimated for a fetus?

139
Q

What is formed from branchial arch I?

A

malleus
part of incud
tragus
tensor tympani

140
Q

What is formed from branchial arch II?

A

part of incus
stapes
stapedius muscle

141
Q

What is the tympanic cavity formed from?

A

pharyngeal pouch

142
Q

What invaginates to become the EAM?

A

branchial arch I

143
Q

What are the hillocks derived from?

A

branchial arch I and II

144
Q

What are the ossicles derived from?

145
Q

What is the lateral layer of the tympanic membrane?

146
Q

Pinna strucures

A

lobe
cavum concha
cymba concha
antitragus
intetragal notch
antihelix
helix
scaphoid fossa
triangular fossa
crus of antihelix
crus of helix

147
Q

Name 3 extrinsic auricular muscles

A

superior
anterior
posterior

148
Q

Are there intrinsic muscles in the pinna?

A

Yes, 6 of them but underdeveloped in humans (wiggle ears)

149
Q

Upper pinna nerve supply

A

auriculotemporal nerve - branch of trigeminal nerve

150
Q

Lower pinna nerve supply

A

greater auricular nerve - branch of C2 and C3 spinal nerves

151
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the outer ear?

A

CN VI, VII, IX, X, and Spinal C2 and C3

152
Q

What does the posterior auricular (carotid) artery supply?

A

posterior surface, lobe, concha

153
Q

What does the superficial temporal (carotid) artery supply?

A

upper pinna

154
Q

What is the pinna made of?

A

elastic cartilage and ligaments
thin epidermis
no subcutaneous fat

155
Q

Why is the pinna very susceptible to trauma?

A

no subcutaneous fat

156
Q

Resonance of the concha

A

8 dB with boot at 5000 Hz

157
Q

Size of the concha

158
Q

What is the purpose of the pinna?

A

sound scoop
8 dB boost at 5000 Hz
localization via ILD and ITD

159
Q

Typical extension of pinna from skull

A

15-30 degrees

160
Q

What is a pre-auricular appendage?

A

Improper migration of cartilage in front of tragus
may indicate syndrome

161
Q

Pathology:
Pre-auricular sinus

A

divot, may lead to nasopharynx
usually benign

162
Q

Pathology:
Auricular Dysplasia

A

malformed pinna
“earbud”
possible EAM atresia

163
Q

Pathology:
CHARGE syndrome

A

prominent pinna

164
Q

Pathology:
Cup Ear

A

thick overlapping helix
may affect hearing aid fitting

165
Q

Pathology:
Down Syndrome

A

cup ear
small EAM and cerumen buildup
chronic otitis media
CHL and SNHL

166
Q

types of skin cells

A

epidermis
dermis
subcutis

167
Q

Layers of epithelium

A

squamous
melanocyte
basal cell

168
Q

Pathology:
Actinic Keratosis

A

pre-malignant growth occurs on sun-damaged skin

169
Q

Pathology:
Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

scaly patches
open sores
rarely fatal

170
Q

Pathology:
Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

shiny and pink
not deadly; but disfiguring

171
Q

Pathology:
Melanoma

A

serious skin cancer
black and uneven

172
Q

Pathology:
Hairy Pinna Syndrome

A

affects resonance, cerumen removal, and hearing aid fitting

173
Q

Tympanic Membrane Structures

A

pars flaccida
pars tensa
annular ligament
cone of light
umbo
manubrium
short/lateral process of malleus
long process of incus
chord tympani
posterior fold
anterior fold

174
Q

What does the annular ligament do?

A

holds TM to canal wall

175
Q

Why does the pars tensa have more rigidity?

A

third layer of connective tissue

176
Q

Where does the manubrium face?

A

anterior, superior quadrant

177
Q

Where is the cone of light?

A

anterior, inferior quadrant

178
Q

Where are the TM perforations typically?

A

posterior, inferior quadrant

179
Q

What are the four TM quadrants?

A

anterior superior
anterior inferior
posterior superior
posterior inferior

180
Q

Is the TM concave or convex?

181
Q

What are the measurements of the TM?

A

8-9 mm horizontally
9-10 mm vertically
0.1 mm thick

182
Q

What are the three layers of the TM?

A

epidermal (lateral)
fibrous tissue (middle)
mucosal lining (medial)

183
Q

What is Shrapnell’s membrane?

A

pars flaccida

184
Q

What is the function of the TM?

A

transform acoustic energy to mechanical energy

185
Q

Pathology:
Tympanosclerosis

A

scarring on TM

186
Q

Pathology:
Tympanic perforation

A

CHL
dry or wet

187
Q

Pathology:
TM refraction

A

negative pressure due to ET dysfunction

188
Q

Pathology:
Cholesteatoma

A

-collection of dead skin cells within the middle ear
-stimulates osteoclasts
-seen in pars flaccida
-CHL, facial paralysis, vertigo

189
Q

What is the function of a PE tube?

A

relieve ET dysfunction
aerate middle ear space

190
Q

What is the lining of the EAM?

A

squamous epithelium

191
Q

What are the measurements of the EAM?

A

2.5 - 3 cm length
.75 cm diameter

192
Q

What is the outer 1/3 of the EAM made of?

A

carilaginous
0.5 - 1.0 mm skin
cerumenous glands
dynamic variability when moving mandible
tympanomandibular joint

193
Q

What is the inner 2/3 of EAM made of?

A

bony
0.2 mm skin
profuse blood supply
fixed diameter
ossification by 3 years old

194
Q

Narrowest part of EAM

A

osseocartilaginous junction (isthmus)

landmark for ear mold impressions

195
Q

Anterior Wall and Roof of EAM nerve supply

A

auriculotemporal nerve - branch of trigeminal nerve

196
Q

Posterior Wall and Floor of EAM nerve supply

A

auricular nerve - branch of vagus nerve

197
Q

What does Arnold’s branch of CN X do?

A

cough reflex in EAM

198
Q

Which walls of the EAM are most sensitive?

A

posterior and floor

199
Q

What is the function of the EAM?

A

amplify 2000-4000 Hz by 10-15 dB
peak resonance at 2700 Hz by 17-22 dB
filter low frequencies
protect TM by cerumen, hair, and distance

200
Q

Where is cerumen produced?

A

outer 1/3 of EAM

201
Q

What is the purpose of cerumen?

A

antibiotic/antifungal
anti-insect
catch foreign bodies
lubricant

202
Q

sebaceous glands

A

sebum: oily substance for lubrication
close to hair follicles

203
Q

ceruminous glands

A

wax-like substance
apocrine sweat

204
Q

Causes of cerumen impaction

A

overactive ceruminous glands
lack of epithelial migration
pushing of cerumen medially

205
Q

Epithelial migration

A

centrifugal migration from umbo
0.5-1.0 mm per day

206
Q

Pathology:
Keratosis Obturans

A

obstructing desquamated epithelium
abnormal epithelial migration

207
Q

Pathology:
Osteoma

A

single bony growth

208
Q

Pathology:
Exostoses

A

multiple bony growths
common in cold water swimmers

209
Q

Pathology:
Microtia / Anotia

A

small / missing pinna

210
Q

Pathology:
Otomycosis

A

fungal infection
hard to treat

211
Q

Pathology:
External Otitis

A

Swimmers ear
infection of EAM
painful to touch

212
Q

Pathology:
Malignant Otitis Externa

A

high morbidity rate
primarily in diabetes mellitus

213
Q

What is the middle ear cavity?

A

air filled cavity in petrous temporal bone

214
Q

Roof of the middle ear cavity called?

A

tegmental wall

215
Q

Floor of the middle ear cavity called?

A

jugular wall

216
Q

Anterior wall of the middle ear cavity

A

carotid wall

217
Q

Posterior wall of middle ear cavity

A

mastoid wall

218
Q

Medial wall of middle ear cavity

A

labyrinthine wall

219
Q

Lateral wall of the middle ear cavity

A

membranous wall

220
Q

Tegman Tympani

A

thin plate of bone separating the middle ear from the cranial cavity

221
Q

Anterior wall of ME cavity structures

A

tensor tympani
Eustachian tube to nasopharynx

222
Q

Posterior wall of ME cavity structures

A

auditus ad antrum = opening to mastoid air cells
sigmoid sinus
pyramidal eminence
stapedius muscle

223
Q

Which cranial nerves run through the jugular fossa

A

CN IX, X, XI

224
Q

What is the purpose of the ossicles?

A

impedance matching and pressure equalization

225
Q

What are the components of impedance matching?

A

areal ratio (large TM to small oval window) : 17 dB
buckling of TM : 6 dB
lever action of ossicles: 2 dB

226
Q

What does the stapes move?

A

oval window of vestibule
moves perilymph

227
Q

Epitympanic Recess

A

superior portion of middle ear (above TM)

228
Q

Tympanic Cavity Proper

A

space directly medial to tympanic membrane

229
Q

Lateral wall of ME cavity structures

A

bony wall superiorly
tympanic membrane (3 layers)
handle of malleus firmly attached

230
Q

Radial Fibers of TM

A

collagen
superficial

231
Q

Circular Fibers of TM

A

thicker on periphery
deep

232
Q

Medial wall of ME cavity structures

A

longitudinal ridge (CN VII)
prominence of lateral SCC
cochleariform process
oval window
round window
promontory

233
Q

What is the promontory?

A

bony accommodation for the basal turn of the cochlea

234
Q

What holds the stapes to the oval window?

A

annular ligament

235
Q

Describe the movement of the stapes

A

like a door hinge
anterior moves more than posterior

236
Q

Pathology:
Otosclerosis

A

bony growth of annular ligament
stapes cannot move = CHL

237
Q

Where does the tensor tympani connect?

A

neck of the malleus

238
Q

Which nerve innervates the tensory tympani?

A

trigeminal nerve

239
Q

What is the chorda tympani?

A

branch of facial nerve
sense of taste
within ME cavity

240
Q

ME cavity measurements

A

~2.4 mm width
~13 mm vertical
~2-3 cm volume

241
Q

Which cranial neve innervates the stapedius muscle?

A

CN VII, facial

242
Q

What connects the stapedius to the stapes?

A

stapedial tendon

243
Q

Which artery lies next to the anterior wall of the middle ear cavity?

A

internal carotid artery

244
Q

What is the groove along the floor of the ME cavity?

A

jugular fossa

245
Q

What is the space between the malleus and the TM?

A

Prussia’s space

246
Q

Where does the stapedial tendon attach to the stapes?

A

posterior crus

247
Q

Which direction does the stapedius muscle pull?

A

lateral and posterior

248
Q

Which direction does the tensory tympani pull?

A

medial and anterior

249
Q

Measurements of the Malleus

A

23-37 mg
9 mm long

250
Q

Measurements of Incus

A

23-32 mg
5x7 mm

251
Q

Measurements of Stapes

A

2.1-4.3 mg
2.5-3.8 mm
Footplate: 1.4 x 3.2 mm

252
Q

Measurements of Tensor Tympani

A

25 mm long
5.8 mm cross section

253
Q

What occurs during tensor tympani and stapedius muscle contraction?

A

response to loud sounds
lock ossicles
retract TM
40 ms response time
dampens sound intensity (20 dB in low freq)
contraction increases as intensity increases
congruent!

254
Q

Measurements of Stapedius Muscle

A

6.3 mm long
4.9 mm cross section

255
Q

Ipsilateral Acoustic Reflex Testing

A

stimulating and recording in the same ear

256
Q

Contralateral Acoustic Reflex Testing

A

stimulus in one ear, record in the other ear

257
Q

What is the function of the Eustachian Tube?

A

air pressure equalization
drainage to nasopharynx

258
Q

What is the “direction” of the ET?

A

45 degrees inferior, anterior, and medial

259
Q

Measurements of Eustachian Tube

A

3.5 - 3.9 mm long
narrowest at isthmus

260
Q

Which muscles opens the ET?

A

tensor veli palatini

261
Q

Pathology:
Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

A

oxygen in ME is absorbed by the mucosal lining
reserve air from mastoid air cels
serous fluid builds up
TM retracts

262
Q

Treatment - Serous Otitis Media

A

nothing
PE tube
myringotomy

263
Q

Treatment - Supportive Otitis Media

A

antibiotics
PE tube
myringotomyWh

264
Q

What is the sense organ for hearing?

265
Q

4 main parts of temporal bone

A

squamous
mastoid
petrous
tympanic

266
Q

What is a temporal bone slide?

A

thin slice of temporal bone
structures vary based on depth of cut

267
Q

Where are the cochlea and vestibular organs located?

A

petrous portion of temporal bone

268
Q

Bony Labyrinth

A

portion of the temporal bone
houses membranous labyrinth
hardest bone in the body

269
Q

Membranous Labyrinth

A

fluids and sensory organs for hearing and balance
cochlea
utricle
saccule
SCCs

270
Q

Measurements of Cochlea

A

~5 mm tall
~1 cm wide
2.2 - 2.9 turns
wider and flatter towards apex

271
Q

canalis reuniens

A

transports fluids from cochlea to saccule

272
Q

Fluid in the vestibule

A

perilymph (Na+)

273
Q

Fluid in scala media

A

endolymph (K+)

274
Q

fluid in scala vestibuli and scala tympani

A

perilymph (Na+)

275
Q

Place where the scala vestibuli and scala tympani meet

A

helicotrema

276
Q

Core of the cochlea

277
Q

Purpose of Modiolus

A

houses nerves and blood vessels

278
Q

Characteristics of basilar membrane at base

A

narrow
stiff
high frequency sensitive

279
Q

Characteristics of basilar membrane at apex

A

wide
loose
low frequency sensitive

280
Q

osseous spiral lamina

A

bony shelf for auditory nerve fibers
not flexible

281
Q

habenula perforata

A

exits for nerve fibers out of osseous spiral lamina

282
Q

spiral ligament

A

supportive connective tissue

283
Q

stria vascularis

A

produces endolymph in scala media

284
Q

spiral ganglion

A

auditory nerve cell bodies

285
Q

limbus

A

attachment for Reissner’s membrane and tectorial membrane

286
Q

Organ of Corti Anatomy

A

Reissner’s membrane
basilar membrane
tectorial membrane
limbus
stria vascularis
spiral ligament
IHCs
OHCs
support cells
cortilymph (between support cells)

287
Q

Length of Basilar Membrane

288
Q

Tectorial Membrane

A

gelatinous flap above OoC
articulates with tallest stereocilia of OHC
increase in mass and width from base to apex (like BM)

289
Q

Types of Supporting Cells in the Cochlea

A

Dexter’s cells
Henson’s cells
Claudius cells
Boetcher’s cells

290
Q

What is the function of sensory cells?

A

transduce mechanical energy to electrochemical energy for the nervous system

291
Q

OHC characteristics

A

12,000
3-5 rows
“tube” shaped
mostly efferent (motor) with many connections
sits on Deiter’s cells
“W” shaped
60-160 stereocilia

292
Q

IHC characteristics

A

3500
1 row
“flask” shaped
mostly afferent (sensory)
exclusive relationship
“U” shaped
50-70 stereocilia

293
Q

Stereocilia characteristics

A

tip-links (row to row)
cross-links (same size to same size)
ion channels

294
Q

“Surface” that stereocilia poke through

A

reticular lamina

295
Q

How do ototoxic drugs damage hearing?

A

usually take out OHC before IHC
cannot be regrown

296
Q

How does loud music damage hearing?

A

displaces hair cells
temporary or permanent

297
Q

Afferent nerve fiber pathway

A

from hair cell to brainstem via CN VIII

298
Q

Efferent nerve fiber pathway

A

from brainstem to hair cells via CN VIII
primarily terminates on OHC

299
Q

Type I afferent nerve fibers

A

95% auditory nerve fibers
terminate on each IHC (exclusive relationship)
each IHC has ~20 nerve fibers

300
Q

Type II afferent nerve fibers

A

5% of auditory nerve fibers
one fiber on many OHC

301
Q

How does a traveling wave affect the basilar membrane?

A

pressure wave from stapes causes pressure difference in scala vestibuli and scala tympani, causes vertical displacement along BM in the scala media

302
Q

How does the stapes pushing inward affect the BM?

A

causes condensation
pushes BM downward
stereocilia shearing down
ion channels closed
inhibitory

303
Q

How does the stapes pulling outward affect the BM?

A

causes refraction
pulls BM upward
stereocilia shearing up
ion channels open = K rush in (endolymph)
excitatory

304
Q

How is frequency represented by the stapes?

A

faithful representation
linear displacement of 1:1 ratio

305
Q

How is intensity represented by the stapes?

A

pushes into vestibule shallower/deeper is quiet/loud

306
Q

Which movement excited the hair cells?

A

towards the tallest stereocilia

307
Q

What causes upward spread of masking?

A

stimulating unintended areas of the BM by increasing the intensity of sounds
causes less frequency selectivity

308
Q

Why is the cochlea nonlinear

A

to give us a greater dynamic range!
cochlear compression (reduce impact of loud sounds)
cochlear amplifier (OHCs amplify soft sounds to stimulate IHCs)

309
Q

Describe the cochlear amplifier

A

move tectorial membrane
increase amplitude of the signal
increased total displacement of BM

310
Q

Where is the cochlear amplifier more useful?

A

up to 50 dB (OHC hearing range)

311
Q

What is the measurement of the cochlear amplifer called?

A

otoacoustic emissions

312
Q

What are the types of OAEs?

A

spontaneous (SOAE)
transient evoked (TEOAEs)
distorted produce (DPOAE)

313
Q

What happens when the IHCs are depolarized?

A

release neurotransmitters at synaptic cleft
excite auditory nerve fibers

314
Q

What happens when the IHCs are hyperpolarized?

A

decrease neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft
inhibits auditory nerve fiber firing

315
Q

Explain the resonance of the BM

A

tonotopically mapped
traveling wave amplitude builds up resonance point then quickly attenuates

316
Q

Describe the tonotopicity of CN VIII

A

high frequencies outside
mid frequencies inner
low frequencies in the center

317
Q

What is the characteristic frequency?

A

where it takes the least energy to stimulate the auditory nerve

318
Q

How does OHC health affect tuning curves?

A

affects their sharpness/frequency specificity

319
Q

What are the two types of frequency coding?

A

Place coding: location of stimulation

Temporal coding: firing rate after 1000 Hz relies on volley principle

320
Q

How is intensity coded by the auditory nerve?

A

number of fibers involved and higher firing rate

321
Q

What does reflex decay measure?

A

recovery speech of the nerve fibers
louder = more fibers = change in recovery time before firing again
evidence of retrocochlear pathology

322
Q

Where does the auditory nerve exit through?

323
Q

Which nerves are in the internal auditory canal (IAC)?

A

3 branches of CN VIII
CN VII

324
Q

How does the location of a vestibular schwannoma affect the presentation of symptoms?

A

depends on if it is touching facial, vestibular, auditory, or a combination

325
Q

What is hearing?

A

perceptual representation of acoustic energy

326
Q

What acoustic features are coded by the CNS?

A

frequency
temporal issues
intensity
binaural cues

327
Q

Describe the ascending central auditory pathway from the cochlea

A

cochlea
cochlear nucleus
superior olivary complex
nucleus of the lateral lemniscus
inferior colliculus
medial genicular body (thalamus)
auditory cortex

328
Q

How many cochlear nuclei are there?

329
Q

Which structure is the first level where sound is processed?

A

cochlear nucleus

330
Q

How are acoustic features enhanced within the neural signal?

A

neural firing

331
Q

What are the three major divisions of the cochlear nucleus?

A

posterior ventral
anterior ventral
dorsal

332
Q

Where is the cochlear nucleus located

A

pontomeduallary junction or cerebellopontine angle

333
Q

How is the cochlear nucleus tonotopically organized?

A

low frequencies ventral
high frequencies dorsal

334
Q

Characteristics of the anterior central cochlear nucleus

A

localization
large synapse with auditory nerve fibers
periodicity
entire frequency range

335
Q

Characteristics of the posterior central cochlear nucleus

A

stimulus onset
enhances temporal cues

336
Q

Characteristics of dorsal cochlear nucleus

A

duration coding
“build up” from onset
localization

337
Q

Where do the auditory nerve fibers go after leaving the cochlear nucleus?

A

20% ipsilateral SOC
80% contralateral SOC

338
Q

What is the function of IPSI and CONTRA auditory nerve fibers?

A

binaural hearing (temporal, intensity, squelch, dual input)
binaural processing

339
Q

Where is the SOC located?

340
Q

Where is the first level of binaural integration?

341
Q

What is the function of the SOC?

A

process binaural input of ILD and ITD (localization, fusion, lateralization)

342
Q

What is the nuclei of the SOC?

A

medial superior olive (MSO)
lateral superior olive (LSO)
trapezoid body

343
Q

What is the primary function of the MSO?

A

intraural time difference

Anatomy & Physiology (3 decks)

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