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K 101 Biology > K 101 Final Exam > Flashcards

K 101 Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by..

A

polar covalent bonds

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2
Q

Stanley Miller’s 1953 experiments demonstrated conclusively that

A

organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early earth

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3
Q

What do the four “elements of life” (C,O,H,N) have in common

A

they all have unpaired electrons in their valence shell

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4
Q

Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because

A

the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds

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5
Q

What modification of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures

A

adding hydrogens to the fatty acids

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6
Q

A comparison of saturated and naturally occuring unsaturated fats reveals that the unsaturated fats are _____ at room temperature and have ______.

A

liquids, cis double bonds

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7
Q

A molecule with four joined rings that is the precursor of vertebrate sex horomones (shown in an image) and is also found in the vertebrate phospholipid bilayer is:

A

cholesterol

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8
Q

A molecule with C18H36O2 is probably a ___, where one with the formula C6H12O6 is probably a ____

A

fatty acid and monosaccharide

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9
Q

A bond that forms by joining monomers (such as nucleotides or amino acids) into polymers (such as DNA or insulin) is a(n):

A

covalent bond

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10
Q

Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they

A

are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions

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11
Q

site of transcription of mRNA and tRNA for protein synthesis

A

Nucleus

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12
Q

synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation

A

Mitochondria

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13
Q

site of RNA for protein synthesis

A

Nucleolis

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14
Q

synthesis of the insulin receptor, a transmembrane glycoprotein

A

Rough ER

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15
Q

sorting of proteins targeted for extracellular secretion

A

Golgi Appartus

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16
Q

intercelluar digestion

A

Lysosome

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17
Q

synthesis of the steroid horomone testosterone

A

Smooth ER

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18
Q

site of cell to cell adhesion and cell recognition

A

Extracellular Matrix

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19
Q

Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell):

A

are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles

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20
Q

Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15M NaCl. Seawater contains the eq. of 0.45M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?

A

water will leave the cells and they will shrivel and collapse

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21
Q

All of the floowing are functions of intergral membrane proteins except…

A

synthesis of horomones

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22
Q

Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism ?

A

it provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions

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23
Q

Increasing substrate concentration in a reaction could overcome…

A

competitive inhibition

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24
Q

The primary way that cells do work is called energy coupling, using ATP. Which statements below accurately defines energy coupling?

A

exergonic reactions drive endergonic reactions
ATP hydrolysis releases free energy that can be coupled to an endergonic reaction via the formation of a phosphorylated intermediate

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25
Q

The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is…

A

protein kinase

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26
Q

In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the areas of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve?

A

it increases the surface area for oxidative phosphorylation

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27
Q

Why is the Calvin Cycle dependent on the light reactions?

A

the light reactions produce the ATP energy and NADPH for sugar production in the Calvin Cycle

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28
Q

One function of alcohol and lactic acid fermentation is to….

A

oxidize NADH to NAD+

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29
Q

When skeletal muscle undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused by..

A

pyruvate kinase, phosphoglycerokinase

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30
Q

Kreb’s Cycle- location

A

mitochondrial matrix

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31
Q

Calvin Cycle- location

A

chloroplast stroma

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32
Q

Light Reactions- location

A

thylakoid membrane

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33
Q

Proton gradient in aeroic respiration

A

mitochondrial inner membrane space

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34
Q

Proton gradient in light reactions

A

thylakoid lumen

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35
Q

Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approx. what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?

A

100%

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36
Q

A C4 plant initially fixes CO2 into ___ where a C3 plant fixes CO2 into ___.

A

oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase, PGA using rubisco

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37
Q

Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction ?
6 CO2 +6 H2O + Energy > C6H12O6 + 6O2

A

CO2 is reduced and H2O is oxidized

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38
Q

The oxygen consumed during aerobic cellular respiration is involved directly with which process ?

A

accepting electrons at the end of the electron chain

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39
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco ?

A

it is a kinase

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40
Q

Up to 60% of all medicines used today influence what structures in cell membranes ?

A

G protein linked receptors

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41
Q

How does adenylyl cyclase help transmit signals within a cell ?

A

it converts the ATP to CAMP, which then amplifies the signal throughout the cell

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42
Q

Epinephrine

A

ligand

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43
Q

Integral Membrane Protein Receptor

A

GPCR

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44
Q

Intergral Membrane Protein Enzyme

A

adenylyl cyclase

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45
Q

Peripheral membrane protein that binds GTP

A

G- Protein

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46
Q

Second messenger generated from ATP

A

CAMP

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47
Q

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases are found in high levels on cancer cells. Herceptin has been found to bind an RTK known as HER-2 if which of the following is true ?

A

if the genome codes for the HER2 receptor

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48
Q

What does Adenylyl Cyclase do ?

A

converts ATP to CAMP after G-protein signaling

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49
Q

What does Phosphodiesterase do ?

A

converts CAMP to AMP, inhibitied by caffeine

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50
Q

What does Phospholipase C do ?

A

converts membrane lipids to IP3 and DAG

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51
Q

What do RTK’S do?

A

they phosphorylate relay molecules after activation and dimerization

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52
Q

If the DNA content of a diploid cell in G1 phase of the cell cycle is X. What would it be at metaphase of meiosis 1.

A

2x

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53
Q

If the cell whose nuclear material (almost into metaphase/anaphase) which of the following events would occur?

A

formation of telophase nuclei

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54
Q

Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells:

A

all of the above

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55
Q

Which of the following occur in meiosis, but not mitosis?

A

homologus chromosomes seperate

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56
Q

In a plant with a diploid number of 2n=46, how many pairs of homologus chromosomes are present in a cell that has just entered meiosis II?

A

0

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57
Q

Using a microscope to examine skin from a female, it shows two barr bodies. What is the the chromosomal condition?

A

47 XXX

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58
Q

At what stage of meosis do cells become haploid ?

A

telophase 1

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59
Q

After telophase 1 of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is:

A

haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids

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60
Q

Homologus chromosomes synapse or pair during

A

prophase I

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61
Q

Mendel’s law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis?

A

alignment of tetrads at the eqautor in metaphase

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62
Q

In a population with two alleles for CF, C and c, the frequency for the recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of the pop. would be heterozygous carriers for CF ?

A

48%

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63
Q

Black fur is dominant to brown fur. Short tails are dominant to long tails. What fraction of the progeny BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails?

A

1/2

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64
Q

What are the probabilties for blood types in the offspring of indiviuals who both have type AB blood?

A

type a and b = 25%
type ab = 50%

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65
Q

BbEe x bbEe. With a litter of 16 how many will be black, chocolate or yellow?

A

9 Black, 3 Chocolate, 4 Yellow

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66
Q

Hemophilia is an X-linked, recessive trait. XFXf x XfY. Select all that apply:

A

there is a 50% chance that their sons and daughters will have it
there is a 50% chance that the daughters will be carriers

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67
Q

What are the autosomal dominant conditions ?

A

Marfan’s, Polydactyly and Achondroplasia

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68
Q

What are the autosomal recessive conditions ?

A

Tay Sachs and Cystic Fibrosis

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69
Q

What are X-linked conditions ?

A

Hemophilia

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70
Q

What are multifactoral condtions?

A

Schizophrenia

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71
Q

If a tall plant (HH or Hh) is mated with a short plant (hh) as a Test Cross, which outcome would indicate that the tall plant was heterozygous?

A

the ratio of tall offspring to short offspring is 1:1

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72
Q

Which of the following terms decribes where a disease affects multiple different systems and parts of the body ?

A

pleiotrophy

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73
Q

A scientist removed the AAC nucleotides at the 3’ end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid meth. Which of the following describes the most likely result?

A

the amino acid meth. will not be able to bind to the tRNA

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74
Q

mRNA transcription initiates at ___, the messenger RNA transcript in the figure is labeled ____, and the template strand is labeled ___.

A

E, D, C

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75
Q

The component labeled B in the figure is:

A

RNA Polymerase

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76
Q

What type of mutation does the deletion of a single codon cause ?

A

frameshift

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77
Q

When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are brought to the ER membrane by…

A

a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane

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78
Q

What is a missense mutation ?

A

when one base pair is deleted or changed and it changes the attached protein (sickle cell anemia)

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79
Q

What is a nonsense mutation ?

A

premature stop codon (PKU)

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80
Q

What is a silent mutation ?

A

when one base pair is changed, but it doesn’t affect the protein that is made (SNP)

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81
Q

The 5’ end of DNA has a free___, while the 3’ has a free ____.

A

phosphate, hydroxyl

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82
Q

Why are certain genes only expressed in certain parts of the part? Such as crystalline in the lens of the eye.

A

activator proteins that bind to regulatory regions of the gene are only found in the lens
the specific gene has a promoter and enhancer that bind to only the lens specific specific activators

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83
Q

What is the attachment site for RNA Polymerase ?

A

the TATA box

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84
Q

Upstream promoter elements in eukaryotes are…

A

nulceotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation

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85
Q

Which is most likely to be tagged for ubiquitin?

A

a cyclin that usally acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2

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86
Q

Alternative RNA Splicing is:

A

can allow the production of protiens of different sizes from a single mRNA

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87
Q

In eukaryotes, histone methylation ____, while histone acetylation _____.

A

represses transcription, promotes transcription

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88
Q

In females one X chromosome is inactivated and turned into a Barr Body. What form is this DNA in ?

A

heterochromatin

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89
Q

MiRNA’s and siRNA’s both function to silence genes by,

A

binding to complementary RNA sequences to prevent translation

90
Q

Which occurs in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, gene expression ?

A

3’ Poly A Tail and a 5’ Cap

91
Q

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells because

A

express different genes

92
Q

The function of enhancers is to….

A

Transcriptional control of gene expression

93
Q

Viruses that attack bacteria are called:

A

phages

94
Q

In the bacteriophage, the functions of 2 and 3 are,

A

2- protection of the genetic material
3- attachment to the host cell

95
Q

Retroviruses differ from other viruses because

A

they use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy RNA to DNA

96
Q

All of the following are DNA viruses except,

A

the influenza virus that causes the flu

97
Q

During the lytic cycle of phages what occurs ?

A

the host cell often dies, releasing many new copies of the virus

98
Q

Filovirus

A

Ebola and other hemorrhagic fevers

99
Q

Picornaviruses

A

Polio and Hepatitis A

100
Q

Flavivirus

A

West Nile and Hepatitis C

101
Q

Paramyxoviruses

A

Measles and Mumps

102
Q

The Prion Hypothesis is,

A

transmissible spongiform encephalopathies result from the conversion of normal PRP-C to abnormally folded PRP-C

103
Q

Human Prion Diseases are,

A

Kuru and vCJD

104
Q

Which of the following characteristics are common to bacteria, viruses and prions?

A

proteins

105
Q

Which of the recombinant drugs is incorrectly matched:

A

Neupogen (Amgen)

106
Q

Ian Wilmut

A

cloning of dolly the sheep

107
Q

Jennifer Dounda

A

CRISPR CAS-9

108
Q

W. French Anderson

A

first human gene therapy

109
Q

Shinya Yamanaka

A

induced pleuripotent stem cells

110
Q

Stanley Cohen

A

isolation of bacterial plasmids

111
Q

Kary Mullis

A

polymerase chain reaction

112
Q

Herb Boyer

A

isolation of restriction enzymes, founder of genetech

113
Q

James Thompson

A

deviation of human embryonic stem cells

114
Q

Fred Sanger

A

Dideoxy DNA Sequencing

115
Q

Craig Venter

A

whole genome shotgun sequencing

116
Q

In the PCR technique, how many cycles would it take for the DNA to be amplified 1 billion times?

A

30

117
Q

Gene therapy treatments with Kymriah and Yescarta are:

A

the first FDA approved drugs for personalizied immunotherapy to treat leukemias
involve the use of genetically engineered chimeric antigen receptor T-cell to recognize proteins

118
Q

Herceptin

A

Her 2 + Breast Cancer

119
Q

Rituxin

A

CD20+

120
Q

Enbrel

A

T cell

121
Q

Synagis

A

RSV

122
Q

Avastin

A

Cancer

123
Q

In the PGLO lab, how could you tell that the bla gene was being expressed?

A

it would only grow on amp plates

124
Q

Why are the cells grown in LB broth for 20 minutes ?

A

there is a phenotypic lag

125
Q

When Arabinose is present

A

a and b

126
Q

PAM

A

a 3-6 nucleotide DNA sequence

127
Q

CAS 9

A

an endonuclease that creates double strand breaks in the DNA

128
Q

sgRNA

A

an RNA molecule engineered to be complementary to the target to be edited

129
Q

Which of these statements are not true regarding the procedure for making cloned animals

A

the donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell

130
Q

Idaho Gem

A

first cloned mule

131
Q

Dolly

A

first cloned mammal

132
Q

Prometia

A

first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin

133
Q

Zhong Zhong

A

first cloned macaqur for neuroscience research

134
Q

CC

A

first cloned housecat

135
Q

Joy

A

first cloned piglet

136
Q

HES cells and HIPS may be useful in transplantation medicine because the cells are

A

all of the above

137
Q

What concern has limited the potential of Pleuripotent Stem Cells as human therapeutics

A

the gene c-myc is an oncogene that causes a cancer phenotype in 25% of cell cultures

138
Q

HES cells derived from blastocysts donated after IVF have been successfully used to

A

Creat new mesodermal, ectodermal and endodermal cells

139
Q

The bacteria Bacillus thurengiensis,

A

naturally makes a crystal protein and is the active ingredient in Dipel q

140
Q

In the crop, Golden Rice, this GMO:

A

all of the above

141
Q

Crops that are round up ready:

A

are genetically modified
contain mutant form of the enzyme EPSP

142
Q

A dideoxy nucleotide used in dna sequencing differs from deoxynucleotide as:

A

it has a -H at the 3C and -H at the 2C

143
Q

Some bacteria avoid a host’s immune system by means of:

A

cloaking the cell with a watery capsule

144
Q

How can bacteria still perform the functions of various organelles ?

A

by using the infoldings of the plasma membrane

145
Q

Circles of DNA in bacteria are called ____ often carry genes involved in ____.

A

plasmids, antibiotic resistance

146
Q

How are Gram (+) bacteria able to survive harsh conditions? How do they protect their DNA ?

A

in an endospore

147
Q

What produces large quantites of oxygen gas ?

A

cyanobacteria

148
Q

What are the prokaryotes in the Great Salt Lake called ?

A

extreme halophiles

149
Q

Structure C is ___, structure I is ____

A

C- the capsule
I- the flagella

150
Q

What is the function of structure B (hair like things on the outside of the bacteria)

A

everything except to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the host

151
Q

The ___ archaebacteria like extreme heat, the ____ archaebacteria are found in swamps lacking oxygen.

A

extreme thermophile, methanogenic

152
Q

What organisms share the most DNA to mitochondria and chloroplasts ?

A

mitochondria- proteobacteria
chloroplasts- cyanobacteria

153
Q

What makes RNA a good evolutionary chronometer ?

A

all of the above

154
Q

What is the most significant difference between archea and eubacteria?

A

the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence

155
Q

The first indication of the difference between archea and eubacteria

A

the absence of peptidoglycans

156
Q

Why do bacterial cells not burst in a hypotonic environment ?

A

cell wall

157
Q

Gram (+) bacteria stain ___, because a thick layer of ___ in the cell wall

A

purple, peptidoglycan

158
Q

What group of prokaryotes contains Clostridium and are responsible for tetanus ?

A

Gram Positive Eubacteria

159
Q

What group of bacteria causes E. coli ?

A

Proteobacteria

160
Q

What prokaryotes are found in the Great Salt Lake, The Red Sea and the Dead Sea, but not necessarily in the ocean ?

A

extreme halophiles

161
Q

Which of the following structures are shared by bacteria, archaea and eukaryotes?

A

plasma membrane

162
Q

Cyanobacteria

A

closely related to sunflower chloroplasts

163
Q

Halophiles

A

thrive in the Great Salt Lake and salt evaporation ponds

164
Q

Gram (-) Proteobacteria

A

closely related to human mitochondria

165
Q

Thermophiles

A

extreme heat

166
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

tetanus

167
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

botulism

168
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

stomach ulcers

169
Q

Bacillus anthraxis

A

anthrax

170
Q

Tremonema pallidum

A

syphilis

171
Q

Which image is responsible for anthrax ?

A

purple worms

172
Q

The colorful organisms in this photo are:

A

halophillic, extremophiic archaea

173
Q

What is Spirogyra a member of ?

A

superclade III: archaeplastida

174
Q

What types of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk ?

A

cercozoans (forams)

175
Q

Why are pseudopods used for by the clade amoebozoa ?

A

movement

176
Q

What is true about Radiolarans ?

A

they capture prey through thread like pseudopods

177
Q

What clade is entamoeba histolytica a part of ?

A

amoebozoa

178
Q

Which protists’ silica shells are used in filters, polishs and toothpaste ?

A

diatoms

179
Q

What protists represent an intermeadite stage in eukaryotic evolution ?

A

giardia

180
Q

What organism serves as the vector for malaria?

A

mosquitos

181
Q

What superclade are trypanocomes in ?

A

Excavata

182
Q

What organisms produce red tides ?

A

dinoflagellates

183
Q

Mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose from

A

Rickettsia

184
Q

What are the short hairlike things that cover the surface in paramecium and stentors ?

A

cilia

185
Q

What bacteria are highly similar to chloroplasts ?

A

cyanobacteria

186
Q

Euglena and Dinoflagellaes show secondary endosymbiosis in…

A

they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts

187
Q

What parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei and 2 pairs of flagella, etc.

A

giaridia

188
Q

Evidence for the endosymbiotic theory includes…

A

all of the above

189
Q

What evidence shows that chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants?

A

cell wall and homologus chromosomes

190
Q

What is the dead frog disease ?

A

a chytridomycete fungus

191
Q

Sac fungi are characterized by sexual rep. ____ and asexual rep.____

A

asci, and conidia

192
Q

What is a precursor of LSD ?

A

an ergot

193
Q

What is the genus of the inhibition RNA polymerase mushrooms ?

A

amanita

194
Q

How do mycorrhizal fungi benefit plants,

A

increse surface area

195
Q

Sexual spores producec by black mold

A

zygospores

196
Q

Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ___.

A

soredia

197
Q

DNA and RRna analysis indicate that modern fungi descended from…

A

colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates

198
Q

Puffballs and shelf fungi are closely related,

A

the common edible mushroom

199
Q

Which of the following choices are mismatched ?

A

Amanita mushrooms and corn smut

200
Q

First flowering plants

A

130 million

201
Q

First seed plants

A

360 million

202
Q

First pteridphytes (ferns)

A

410 million

203
Q

First land plants

A

440 million

204
Q

First animals

A

700 million

205
Q

First fungi

A

1.3 billion

206
Q

First eukaryotes

A

1.5 billion

207
Q

First photosynthetic bacteria

A

3.2 billion

208
Q

First bacterial life

A

3.8 billion

209
Q

When you see green moss, what generation are you looking at?

A

haploid gametophyte

210
Q

The leafy fern that you might have as a houseplant is the…

A

diploid sporophyte

211
Q

Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim ___ and down the neck of ___.

A

antheridium, sporangium

212
Q

In mosses, what do the antheridia produce ?

A

sperm

213
Q

Following double fertilization in angiosperms, the triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the…

A

endosperm

214
Q

The eggs of gymnosperms have ovules that develop into ___ after fertilization

A

seeds

215
Q

In angiosperms, double fertilization produces…

A

the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm

216
Q

Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells. What is true?

A

The upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo
The lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor

217
Q

Seeds have advantages over spores. For example,

A

everything but seeds are single cells

218
Q

Pollen is ___, and contains ___

A

haploid… sperm nuclei

219
Q

What portion fo the flower recieves the pollen ?

A

stigma

220
Q

The triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the

A

endosperm

221
Q

A pea pod is formed from ____. A pea inside the pod is formed from ___.

A

ovary, ovule

222
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots ?

A

veins in leaves usually parallel

K 101 Biology (1 decks)

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