JUNE EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Indications for Hormonal replacement therapy in menopausal women.

A

Relief of vasomotor symptoms: HRT can effectively alleviate hot flashes, night sweats, and other symptoms related to hormonal fluctuations during menopause.

Vaginal symptoms: HRT, especially in the form of local estrogen therapy, can relieve vaginal dryness, itching, and discomfort.

Osteoporosis prevention: HRT can help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporosis-related fractures in menopausal women at an increased risk.

Prevention of certain chronic conditions: HRT may provide protection against colorectal cancer, as well as a reduced risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases in some women.

Improvement of mood and sleep disturbances: HRT can help alleviate mood swings, irritability, and sleep disturbances associated with menopause.

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2
Q

Contraindications for Hormonal Replacement Therapy (HRT) in menopausal women:

A
  1. Estrogen-dependent cancers: Women with a history of estrogen-dependent cancers, such as breast or endometrial cancer, generally should not undergo HRT.
  2. Active liver disease: HRT is contraindicated in women with acute liver disease or significant impairment of liver function.
  3. History of blood clots: Women with a history of blood clots in the legs (deep vein thrombosis) or lungs (pulmonary embolism) should avoid HRT due to an increased risk of recurrent clots.

4.Unexplained vaginal bleeding: Women experiencing unexplained vaginal bleeding should not initiate HRT until the cause is determined.

  1. Coronary artery disease: HRT is generally not recommended for women with active coronary artery disease or a history of heart attacks or strokes.
    6.Severe migraine headaches: Women with a history of severe migraines accompanied by aura may be at an increased risk of stroke with the use of HRT.
  2. Porphyria: HRT is contraindicated in women with porphyria, a group of rare genetic disorders that affect the production of heme in the body.
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3
Q

Which of the following is an indication for Hormonal Replacement Therapy (HRT) in menopausal women?
a) Allergic rhinitis
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Relief of vasomotor symptoms
d) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

A

c) Relief of vasomotor symptoms

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4
Q

HRT is contraindicated in menopausal women with a history of:
a) Migraine headaches without aura
b) Estrogen-dependent cancers
c) Mild liver disease
d) Osteoporosis

A

b) Estrogen-dependent cancers

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5
Q

Which condition is HRT primarily used to prevent in menopausal women?
a) Alzheimer’s disease
b) Type 2 diabetes
c) Colorectal cancer
d) Hypertension

A

c) Colorectal cancer

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6
Q

Women with unexplained vaginal bleeding should:
a) Initiate HRT immediately
b) Undergo a thorough evaluation before considering HRT
c) Avoid HRT only if they have a history of blood clots
d) Use local estrogen therapy instead of systemic HRT

A

b) Undergo a thorough evaluation before considering HRT

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7
Q

HRT may help alleviate which of the following menopausal symptoms?
a) Blurred vision
b) Weight gain
c) Mood swings
d) Chronic cough

A

c) Mood swings

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8
Q

Women with a history of blood clots should generally:
a) Avoid HRT
b) Increase the dosage of HRT
c) Switch to oral contraceptives instead of HRT
d) Only use local estrogen therapy

A

a) Avoid HRT

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9
Q

HRT is contraindicated in menopausal women with:
a) Seasonal allergies
b) Mild migraines
c) Active liver disease
d) Mild osteoporosis

A

c) Active liver disease

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10
Q

Which of the following is a potential benefit of HRT in menopausal women?
a) Increased risk of cardiovascular diseases
b) Increased risk of type 2 diabetes
c) Improved bone density
d) Reduced risk of breast cancer

A

c) Improved bone density

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11
Q

Women with a history of severe migraines accompanied by aura:
a) Can safely use HRT
b) Are at an increased risk of stroke with HRT
c) Should avoid HRT due to liver impairment
d) Should opt for local estrogen therapy instead of systemic HRT

A

b) Are at an increased risk of stroke with HRT

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12
Q

HRT is contraindicated in women with:
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Active coronary artery disease
c) Thyroid nodules
d) Mild migraine headaches without aura

A

b) Active coronary artery disease

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13
Q

What is the goal of the values clarification process?
a) To determine what your values should be
b) To provide the means to discover your values
c) To impose values on others
d) To change and update values constantly

A

b) To provide the means to discover your values

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14
Q

True or False: Values can change over time in response to changing life experiences.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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15
Q

When developing an authentic value system, it is important to:
a) Rely on parental conditioning
b) Incorporate values from friends
c) Arrive at values independently of outside pressures
d) Conform to societal expectations

A

c) Arrive at values independently of outside pressures

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16
Q

Which of the following is a criterion for a full value according to Raths, Harmin, and Simon?
a) Imposing the value on others
b) Rejecting and discarding values
c) Choosing the value freely from alternatives
d) Changing values constantly

A

c) Choosing the value freely from alternatives

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17
Q

True or False: It is necessary to translate a value into behaviors consistent with the chosen value.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

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18
Q

Which category of criteria for a full value involves cherishing and making the value known to others?
a) Choosing
b) Prizing
c) Acting
d) Reviewing

A

b) Prizing

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19
Q

How satisfied are you with a chosen value and would you be prepared to say it in public?
a) How definite is your decision?
b) Have you achieved anything?
c) How sure are you?
d) Have you done this repeatedly?

A

c) How sure are you?

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20
Q

What is one of the roles of helping one another examine values?
a) Imposing values on others
b) Respecting the values of others
c) Changing and updating values constantly
d) Conforming to societal expectations

A

b) Respecting the values of others

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21
Q

True or False: Updating values may involve bringing them in line with recent experiences.
a) True
b) False

A

True True

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22
Q

What is the purpose of looking at consequences when choosing a value?
a) To impose values on others
b) To determine what your values should be
c) To assess the authenticity of values
d) To consider the result of your choice

A

To consider the result of your choice

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23
Q

Discuss the significance of consultation in the process of determining whether termination of pregnancy is warranted.

A

Consultation plays a crucial role in determining whether termination of pregnancy is warranted. It involves discussions between the pregnant woman and the medical practitioner or registered midwife. The purpose of consultation is to assess the woman’s health, evaluate the risks associated with continuing the pregnancy, and ensure that the decision aligns with the legal and ethical guidelines. Consultation helps in making an informed choice and ensures that the termination of pregnancy is carried out based on valid reasons and professional judgment.

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24
Q

Explain the roles of medical practitioners and registered midwives in the termination of pregnancy process.

A

Generally, the termination of a pregnancy can only be carried out by a medical practitioner. However, during the first 12 weeks, it can also be performed by a registered midwife who has completed the prescribed training course. The involvement of medical practitioners and registered midwives ensures that the termination is conducted safely and within the legal framework.

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25
Q

Describe the conditions under which termination of pregnancy can be carried out after the 20th week of gestation.

A

Termination of pregnancy can be carried out after the 20th week of gestation if a medical practitioner, after consultation with another medical practitioner or a registered midwife, determines that:

The continued pregnancy would endanger the woman’s life.
The pregnancy would result in a severe malformation of the fetus.
The continued pregnancy would pose a risk of injury to the fetus.

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26
Q

Discuss the reasons for which termination of pregnancy can be permitted between the 13th and 20th week of gestation.

A

Termination of pregnancy can be permitted between the 13th and 20th week of gestation if a medical practitioner, after consultation with the pregnant woman, determines that:

The continued pregnancy would pose a risk of injury to the woman’s physical or mental health.
There exists a substantial risk that the fetus would suffer from a severe physical or mental abnormality.
The pregnancy resulted from rape or incest.
The continued pregnancy would significantly affect the social or economic circumstances of the woman.

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27
Q

Explain the circumstances under which a woman can request termination of pregnancy during the first 12 weeks of gestation.

A

A woman can request termination of pregnancy during the first 12 weeks of gestation without any specific medical reasons. It is based on her personal choice and does not require consultation with a medical practitioner. The termination can be carried out by either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife.

28
Q

Who can carry out the termination of a pregnancy referred to in subsection (l)(a)?
a) Only a medical practitioner
b) Only a registered midwife
c) Either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife
d) Only a specialist obstetrician

A

c) Either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife

29
Q

What additional consultation is required for termination of pregnancy after the 20th week?
a) Consultation with a specialist obstetrician
b) Consultation with a psychologist
c) Consultation with another medical practitioner or registered midwife
d) Consultation with a religious leader

A

c) Consultation with another medical practitioner or registered midwife

30
Q

In which circumstance is the termination of pregnancy permitted between the 13th and 20th week?
a) Economic hardship
b) Risk of injury to the woman’s health
c) Desire for a male child
d) Convenience of the pregnant woman

A

b) Risk of injury to the woman’s health

31
Q

What is the maximum gestation period for termination of pregnancy when the woman’s life is endangered?
a) 20 weeks
b) 24 weeks
c) 28 weeks
d) There is no maximum gestation period in such cases

A

D

32
Q

Who can carry out the termination of a pregnancy after the 20th week?
a) Medical practitioner only
b) Registered midwife only
c) Another medical practitioner or registered midwife
d) Surgeon specializing in fetal abnormalities

A

c) Another medical practitioner or registered midwife

33
Q

What condition is NOT a valid reason for terminating a pregnancy between the 13th and 20th week?
a) Risk of injury to the woman’s physical or mental health
b) Severe physical or mental abnormality of the fetus
c) Pregnancy resulting from rape or incest
d) Social or economic circumstances of the woman

A

d) Social or economic circumstances of the woman

🧐not really

34
Q

After the 20th week of gestation, termination of pregnancy can be carried out if:
a) The fetus is severely malformed
b) The woman’s life is endangered
c) There is a risk of injury to the fetus
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

35
Q

Who can carry out the termination of a pregnancy during the first 12 weeks?
a) Medical practitioner only
b) Registered midwife only
c) Either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife
d) A specialist obstetrician

A

c) Either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife

36
Q

Who can carry out the termination of a pregnancy during the first 12 weeks?
a) Medical practitioner only
b) Registered midwife only
c) Either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife
d) A specialist obstetrician

A

c) Either a medical practitioner or a registered midwife

37
Q

Under what circumstances can a pregnancy be terminated between the 13th and 20th week of gestation?
a) When the woman’s life is endangered
b) When there is a risk of injury to the fetus
c) When the pregnancy resulted from rape or incest
d) When there is a severe malformation of the fetus

A

c) When the pregnancy resulted from rape or incest

38
Q

What is the maximum gestation period for a woman to request termination of pregnancy?
a) 12 weeks
b) 20 weeks
c) 24 weeks
d) 28 weeks

A

a) 12 weeks

39
Q

What is the main characteristic of cerebral palsy?
a) Progressive brain lesion
b) Non-progressive brain lesion
c) Cognitive impairment
d) Vision impairment

A

b) Non-progressive brain lesion

40
Q

Which type of cerebral palsy affects all four limbs?
a) Quadriplegia
b) Hemiplegia
c) Diplegia
d) Monoplegia

A

Quadriplegia

41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of movement disorder associated with cerebral palsy?
a) Spasticity
b) Tremor
c) Athetosis
d) Flaccidity

A

) Flaccidity

42
Q

Which additional difficulty is common in children with cerebral palsy?
a) Hypertension
b) Diabetes
c) Epilepsy
d) Asthma

A

c) Epilepsy

43
Q

What term is used to describe delayed development in children with cerebral palsy?
a) Intellectual disability
b) Perceptual difficulties
c) Developmental delay
d) Nutritional difficulties

A

) Developmental delay

44
Q

Which orthopedic problem is commonly associated with cerebral palsy?
a) Scoliosis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Fractures

A

a

45
Q

What is a common gastrointestinal problem in children with cerebral palsy?
a) Gastritis
b) Constipation
c) Gastroenteritis
d) Ulcerative colitis

A

b) Constipation

46
Q

Which sensory difficulty may become apparent in children with cerebral palsy at school age?
a) Hearing loss
b) Visual impairment
c) Taste abnormalities
d) Perceptual difficulties

A

Perceptual difficulties

47
Q

Which respiratory problem can occur in children with cerebral palsy?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Pneumonia
c) Bronchitis
d) Pulmonary embolism

A

Pneumonia

48
Q

Which reproductive issue is more common in boys with cerebral palsy?
a) Undescended testes
b) Ovarian cysts
c) Uterine fibroids
d) Erectile dysfunction

A

a) Undescended testes

49
Q

Discuss the additional difficulties that children with cerebral palsy may experience, beyond motor impairments.

A

Children with cerebral palsy may experience various additional difficulties, including problems with hearing, eyesight (squints and other visual issues), epilepsy, intellectual or learning disability, perceptual difficulties, gastro-oesophageal reflux, orthopedic problems (muscle or joint contractures, hip subluxation/dislocation), constipation, nutritional difficulties, saliva control problems (dribbling), recurrent chest infections, bone disease (osteoporosis and increased fracture risk), and undescended testes in boys.

49
Q

Discuss the additional difficulties that children with cerebral palsy may experience, beyond motor impairments.

A

Children with cerebral palsy may experience various additional difficulties, including problems with hearing, eyesight (squints and other visual issues), epilepsy, intellectual or learning disability, perceptual difficulties, gastro-oesophageal reflux, orthopedic problems (muscle or joint contractures, hip subluxation/dislocation), constipation, nutritional difficulties, saliva control problems (dribbling), recurrent chest infections, bone disease (osteoporosis and increased fracture risk), and undescended testes in boys.

50
Q

Describe the types of movement disorders associated with cerebral palsy and provide examples.

A

The types of movement disorders associated with cerebral palsy include spasticity (increased muscle tone), rigidity, hypotonia (decreased muscle tone), tremor, athetosis, and ataxia. Spasticity causes stiff and jerky movements, while rigidity results in stiff muscles and limited range of motion. Hypotonia leads to floppy or weak muscles. Tremor is characterized by rhythmic shaking movements, athetosis involves slow, involuntary writhing movements, and ataxia causes problems with balance and coordination.

51
Q

Explain the potential impact of cerebral palsy on a child’s intellectual abilities and learning.

A

Children with cerebral palsy can have a wide range of intellectual abilities. Some may have normal intelligence despite severe physical disabilities, while others may experience intellectual or learning disabilities. Assessing learning ability in the early years can be challenging, and developmental delay is sometimes used to describe delayed development compared to other children. It is important to recognize the diversity in intellectual abilities among children with cerebral palsy.

52
Q

Discuss the orthopedic problems commonly associated with cerebral palsy and their implications.

A

Children with cerebral palsy are at risk of developing orthopedic problems due to spasticity or stiffness in muscles. This can lead to muscle or joint contractures, especially in areas such as the ankle, knee, hip, elbow, and wrist. Hip subluxation (movement of the head of the thigh bone out of the hip socket) and dislocation are also common, particularly in children who are not walking independently. These orthopedic problems can impact mobility and overall physical function, requiring appropriate management and interventions.

53
Q

Who plays a crucial role in incorporating suggestions from therapists and teachers into the daily routine of a child with cerebral palsy?
a) Family practitioner
b) Nurses
c) Parents/caregivers
d) Occupational therapist

A

c) Parents/caregivers

54
Q

Which professional is responsible for helping children with cerebral palsy in developing skills such as sitting, crawling, and walking?
a) Nurses
b) Physiotherapist
c) Occupational therapist
d) Speech therapist

A

b) Physiotherapist

55
Q

Which professional specializes in hand skills and activities of daily living for children with cerebral palsy?
a) Occupational therapist (OT)
b) Speech therapist
c) Social worker
d) Psychologist

A

a) Occupational therapist (OT)

56
Q

Who provides advice on speech and language development for children with difficulty talking or understanding speech?
a) Family practitioner
b) Physiotherapist
c) Speech therapist
d) Social worker

A

c) Speech therapist

56
Q

Who provides advice on speech and language development for children with difficulty talking or understanding speech?
a) Family practitioner
b) Physiotherapist
c) Speech therapist
d) Social worker

A

c) Speech therapist

57
Q

Which professional can provide counseling, advocacy support, and information about available services for families of children with cerebral palsy?
a) Nurses
b) Occupational therapist (OT)
c) Psychologist
d) Social worker

A

d

58
Q

Describe the role of a family practitioner in the care of children with cerebral palsy.

A

Family practitioners address the common health problems of children with cerebral palsy and can provide support, encouragement, and referrals to other members of the multidisciplinary team. They work closely with professionals involved in helping children with cerebral palsy.

59
Q

What are the areas of focus for an occupational therapist (OT) working with children with cerebral palsy?

A

Occupational therapists specialize in hand skills and activities of daily living. They provide advice on play, appropriate toys, bathing, feeding, dressing, toileting, and help children become more independent in self-care tasks. They also assist in acquiring skills needed for school, such as handwriting.

60
Q

What role does a speech therapist play in the management of children with cerebral palsy?

A

Speech therapists provide advice on speech and language development, encourage communication skills, and may introduce alternative means of communication for children who have difficulty with speech. They also address eating and drinking difficulties related to poor muscle control in the mouth, face, and throat.

61
Q

How can a social worker support families of children with cerebral palsy?

A

Social workers can provide information about available services, assist in finding appropriate intervention programs and schools, help families connect with others facing similar experiences, and offer counseling and advocacy support.

62
Q

Explain the importance of regular dental check-ups and oral hygiene for children with cerebral palsy.

A

Regular dental check-ups and proper tooth brushing are essential for children with cerebral palsy to maintain oral health and prevent dental decay. Special attention may be required due to specific challenges related to muscle control and oral care management in children with cerebral palsy.

63
Q

CRITERIA FOR A FULL VALUE
(3)

A

Choosing- Did anyone suggest that to
you?

Prizing-How satisfied are you? Are you glad you’ve chosen
that? How sure are you? Would you be prepared to
say it in public?

Acting- Have you achieved
anything? How definite is your
decision? Have you done this
repeatedly? Have you been consistent
in your actions?