Judicial Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the purpose of judicial review?

A

It reviews government (the executive’s) actions to ensure the government does not act illegally or beyond its powers.

JR reviews:
a) government secondary legislation (SIs), Orders or decisions passed under an Act;

b) government/public bodies’ (e.g. police) use of powers under an Act; and

c) royal prerogatives and the use of those royal prerogatives (if such RPs are “justiciable”)

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2
Q

What is the test to use to see if a defendant is a public body?

A

Datafin two-stage test:

1) Source of power: has the body been set up by an Act of Parliament, secondary legislation or royal prerogative (instead of contractual or a private enterprise)? if no,

2) Nature of power: does the defendant carry out or provide public services?

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3
Q

When are damages available in a judicial review claim?

A

In a claim for judicial review, a claimant can only be awarded damages if they can establish that their private law rights have been infringed. However, damages are not available purely for the infringement of a public law right (ex p Maguire (above)).

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4
Q

What are the 5 preliminary considerations regarding the availability of judicial review?

A
  1. Amenability
  2. Procedural exclusivity
  3. Standing
  4. Time limits
  5. Ouster clauses (where relevant)
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5
Q

What is amenability (JR)?

A

The idea that only public law decisions are appropriate for judicial review.

Usually when the decision is made by a public body carrying out a public function almost always through the exercise of some form of statutory power.

  • Usually if a body was created by or exercised power pursuant to statute its decision would normally be amenable to judicial review.
  • includes bodies which exercise a public law function or if its functions have public law consequences
  • also includes self-regulatory authorities e.g. bar council (if authority had not already been in existence, Parliament would have intervened to regulate the activity - but for) UNLESS of a private nature or are in no sense governmental eg Jockey Club
  • ‘contracting-out’ ask whether the org is under any ongoing statutory controls.
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6
Q

What is procedural exclusivity?

A

The idea that judicial review is the exclusive procedure for challenging public law decisions.

Exceptions:
- neither party objects to the use of private law procedure
- when the contested decision is collateral ie arises out of some other legal claim

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6
Q

What is standing?

A

The particular applicant must have standing to bring a claim - sufficient interest in the matter to which the applicant relates.

“sufficient interest test”: mix of law and fact

As well as individuals directly effected by the decision, Associations and representative groups, pressure and interest groups and ‘concerned citizens’ can also bring claims.

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7
Q

What is an association (JR)?

A

Associations are made up of individuals who would themselves be seen to have sufficient interest - courts are generally content to allow that association standing to challenge a matter in the communal interest.

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8
Q

Do pressure groups and interest groups have standing?

A

They can have standing - courts will consider:

  • importance of vindicating the rule of law
  • the likely absence of any other responsible challenger
  • the nature of the breach of duty (seriousness)
  • expertise of the challengers in this area.

For a pressure group acting on behalf of an individual or people, they must be directly affected or have sufficient standing, reputation, presence, experience and expertise and should be the main pressure group for that particular issue.

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9
Q

Can “concerned citizens” bring claims?

A
  • Sometimes, the issue will turn on the facts. Court will consider if there are more directly interested challengers.

‘Sincere concern” - rees-mogg allowed to challenge signing og the treaty of maastricht

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10
Q

What is the time limit for binging a judicial review claim?

A

a) promptly
b) no later than 3 months after the grounds to make the claim arose.

Judicial review can sometimes be refused even if a claim is not filed promptly (even if it was filed within three months.

Planning permission: six weeks

Public procurement: 30 days

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11
Q

What is a JR ouster clause?

A

A legislative provision which excludes the jurisdiction of the court to conduct to conduct judicial review

Total ouster clause - completely excludes it. Very rare.

Courts do not like these clauses as they represent a challenge to the rule of law.

If an ouster clause restricts the 3 month time limit to a shorter period the courts will usually accept this.

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12
Q

What is the presumption regarding ouster clauses for JR?

A

Modern take: extremely strong presumption of statutory interpretation the Parliament does not intend to exclude judicial review.

Need very explicit exclusions

i.e. an illegal decision was found outside remit of ouster clause because as it was illegal it was not a determination for the purposes of the ouster clause.

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13
Q

Can potential parties to a judicial review claim agree an extension of the time limit by consent?

A

No they cannot.

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14
Q

What are the stages of making a judicial review claim?

A
  1. An ex parte application for permission must be made to the Administrative Court or Tribunal. An applicant will only be granted permission if they have standing (“sufficient interest”) in the matter before them, the application is made within time or there is good reason for delay and there is an arguable case.
  2. The inter partes hearing (both sides involved): this is where applicants will present the ground to challenge the decision.
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15
Q

What are the remedies of judicial review?

A

Specific to judicial review (prerogative orders):
1. Quashing order
2. Prohibitory order
3. Mandatory order

General:
4: Declaration
5. Injunction
6. Damages

These remedies are discretionary in nature. They can be awarded on both an interim and final basis.

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16
Q

JR: Quashing order

A

This is the most common remedy. It overturns the impugned decision, and the public body must then take the decision again, applying the correct law or following a fair procedure

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17
Q

JR: Prohibitory order

A

This prevents a public body from acting or continuing to act unlawfully

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18
Q

JR: Mandatory order

A

This compels the public body to perform a public law duty imposed by law

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19
Q

JR: Declaration

A

The court may declare what the legal position is, or what the rights of the parties are. This does not question the public body’s exercise of the power. Declarations can be made without any other order or alongside other others.

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20
Q

JR: Injunction

A

This order a party to perform or refrain from performing a specific act. Injunctions are relatively rare as prohibiting and mandatory orders effectively do the same thing. However, they are sometimes granted at the permission stage of the proceedings as a form of interim relief - either before of after permission is granted.

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21
Q

JR: Damages

A

These may be awarded but only if wither (i) the court is satisfied that damages could have been awarded in a private law action or (ii) the public body has breached its duties under the HRA 1998.

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22
Q

What if alternative remedies are available to the claimant besides judicial review?

A

The court can refuse permission to bring a judicial review claim or refuse an interim or final remedy.

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23
Q

What does acting ultra vires mean?

A

That a public body is not entitles to act beyond (ultra vires) its powers.

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24
Q

What is meant by ‘illegality’ as a ground for judicial review?

A

Illegality reflects the traditional doctrine of ultra vires. Means that the exercise of power has been outside the limits given to the executive prescribed by the governing legislation.

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25
Q

What are the subcategories of illegality?

A
  1. Simple illegality (ultra vires)
  2. Errors of law
  3. Errors of fact
  4. Abuse of discretion
  5. Retention of discretion
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26
Q

What is simple illegality (ultra vires)?

A

Narrow sense: refers to a decision that goes beyond the boundaries of legal power given to the body concerned.

E.g. Secretary of State for Health passing regulations governing the deployment of armed forces.
- not unlawful if it does something reasonably incidental e.g. power to build public lavatories could also be used to build a road to access them

ALSO
Principle of legality: presumes Parliament did not intend to authorise the infringement of fundamental or ‘constitutional’ rights and cardinal principles of the rule of law unless it had given very specific statutory authorisation.

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27
Q

What are “errors of law”?

A

Typically involves the decision-maker making a mistake regarding a question of law e.g. misinterpreting the meaning of words in a legislative provision.

Exceptions to reviewability:
- where the error of law is not decisive - ‘but for’ the error concerned the decision would have been different
- special system of rules, where parliament provides decision at first instance of an inferior court was to be binding, application of review of a superior court.
- where power granted is so imprecise it is capable of being interpreted in a wide range of different wats

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28
Q

What are “errors of fact”?

A

Where the decision-maker makes a mistake of fact when deliberating on a decision. Three types:

1) Precedent facts: where a decision-maker’s power to decide on a particular matter depends on it making an initial finding of fact.
e.g. power to compulsorily purchase land that is not parkland but the land is in fact parkland. Power to detain ‘illegal entrant’ - power to review facts to ensure person is an illegal entrant.

2) No evidence for a fact: where a finding of fact on which a decision is based is not supported by any evidence.

3) Ignorance or Mistakes of an established fact: An established fact, which is material to the decision is ignored or misunderstood.
four-part test:
1. there must be a mistake as to an existing fact
2. the fact or evidence must have been established in the sense that it was uncontentious and objectively verifiable.
3. the appellant or advisors must not have been responsible for the mistake
4. the mistake must have been material (but not necessarily decisive) in the tribunal’s reasoning

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29
Q

Abuse of discretion

A

i) failing to take a relevant consideration into account OR taking an irrelevant consideration into account
Factors:
1. Mandatory factors: identified by the statute as considerations to which regard must be had
2. Prohibitory factors: identified by the statute as considerations to which regard must not be had
Failing to take into account 1 or taking into account 2 is unlawful
3. Discretionary factors: can choose to take into account if they wish - not unlawful if they are not irrational considerations and has taken other appropriate considerations into account as well.

ii) using the power for an improper purpose: should only use powers for the purpose it was given

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30
Q

Retention of discretion

A

If given discretionary powers, decision makers must exercise that discretion and not fetter or restrict themselves.

i) Fettering Discretion: acting in a way that hampers its own ability to properly exercise a discretionary power eg public body decides not to consider exercising a power at all. Adopting a rigid policy so that outcomes are decided in advance, can draw conclusion even if public body says they haven’t shut their ears.

ii) Unlawful delegation of discretion: usually not allowed to delegate power but can eg local authorities can arrange for their functions to be carried out by committees or by council officers, minister can delegate discretion to officials within the department even if statute does not expressly say so.
- important decisions must be of suitable seniority
- needs be sufficient degree of accountability between Secretary of State and relevant official making the decision.

31
Q

What is the time limit for bringing a JR claim for planning permission?

A

Six weeks (promptly)

32
Q

What is the time limit for bringing a JR claim for public procurement

A

30 days (promptly)

33
Q

Can an act specify a shorter time to bring a JR claim?

A

Yes and the courts will usually accept this.

34
Q

Is judicial review appropriate where there are other remedies?

A

No - it is only appropriate if there are no suitable alternative remedies or alternative remedies have been exhausted.

eg statutory right of appeal, internal complaints/procedures process; complaint to ombudsman

If alternative remedies are available the court may refuse permission to bring the claim or refuse a remedy.

35
Q

What is abuse of discretion?

A

Where the decision maker:
- fails to take into account a relevant consideration
- takes an irrelevant consideration into account
- uses the statutory power for an improper purpose

36
Q

What is retention of discretion?

A

Where the decision-maker:
- Fetters their discretionary power by failing to exercise the power at all
- fetters their power by applying a policy rigidly or in a blanket fashion
- unlawfully delegates the power

37
Q

If a decision-maker fails to take into account a mandatory factor or takes into account a prohibitory factor, will the decision automatically be unlawful?

A

In ex parte Fewings where the court made it clear that failing to consider a mandatory factor and/ or considering a prohibitory factor would render a decision unlawful.

38
Q

What are the three main areas of unreasonableness?

A

1) Material defects in the decision-making process

2) Oppressive decisions

3) Decisions that violate constitutional principles

39
Q

What are material defects in the decision-making process?

A

(i) Wrongly weighing-up relevant factors

“Decision made was one which a reasonable secretary of state could not have made if properly directing himself in law, if in possession of the facts and if taking account of necessary considerations”

(ii) Failure to provide a comprehensive chain or reasoning: ‘irrationality’
- refusing to recognise a significant body of expert opinion, no rational basis for decision or policy

“no reasonable body could have done this”

40
Q

What are Oppressive decisions?

A

Where a decision imposes excessive hardship or represents an infringement of rights which are deemed unnecessary the courts will consider it to be oppressive and therefore in that sense unreasonable.

e.g. imposition of a penalty for legal behaviour - unreasonably punitive

41
Q

Decisions that violate ‘constitutional principles’

A

Decisions made by public bodies should be consistent and rules should be sufficiently certain. Decisions that contradict these principles can be held to be unreasonable as they represent arbitrary decision-making and lead to inequality before the law.

Inconsistent or uncertain decisions

42
Q

What is intensity of review?

A

To what degree will the courts scrutinise the decision under challenge? Depends on policy involved.

  • Higher intensity: ordinarily in cases involving fundamental rights
  • Lower intensity: cases involving social and economic policy or other high policy matters such as national security (give a higher degree of deference to the decision-maker)

Not a binary decision and consider on the facts of hte case.

43
Q

What is procedural impropriety?

A

Concerns a public decision-maker’s failure to follow correct statutory procedure and/or act fairly in a more general sense measured against common law standards.
Two key areas:

  1. Failure to observe procedural statutory rules
  2. Duty to act fairly (common law rules)
44
Q

What is failure to observe procedural statutory rules?

A

Closely related to illegality.

Judiciary will focus on the consequences of non-compliance with the statutory requirement. Whether Parliament could have intended that non-compliance should result in a quashing of the relevant decision.

45
Q

What is the duty to act fairly (common law fairness)?

A

Two common law rules concerning the duty to act fairly:

a) the right to be heard: a person affected by a public law decision should be given the opportunity to present their case

b) the rule against bias: decision makers cannot act fairly if there is a risk that they may be biased

Before considering thees rules courts will consider:
i) when does the duty to act fairly arise?

ii) What level of duty to act fairly is owed by the decision maker?

46
Q

i) when does the duty to act fairly arise?

A

Applies universally. The question is what is the extent of justice?

eg there is an obligation to observe natural justice in the exercise of a statutory function affecting the rights of an individual

47
Q

ii) What level of duty to act fairly is owed by the decision maker?

A

What is the level of fairness owed? The more that there is at stake to the individual, the higher the level of fairness they should have been owed.

Three broad considerations:
1) The character of the decision-making body

2) The kind of question it has to make

3) The statutory or other framework in which it operates

Note: difference between cases where something is being granted and something is being taken away (taken away= more likely to need an explanation)

48
Q

In what instances will a duty to act fairly not apply at all or to a limited extent?

A

Where there are more countervailing public interest factors:

  • overriding concerns of national security eg. duty to consult trade unions was overridden by national security concerns
  • in emergency cases where public safety demands urgent action
49
Q

What are the elements of the right to be heard?

A

(i) Notice of the case against the person
(ii) Right to make representations
(iii) Witnesses
(iv) Legal representation
(v) Reasons

50
Q

(i) Notice of the case against the person

A

Failure to inform a person of the evidence against them or of a decision taken that affects their interests will mean that person is unable to make any effective representations in response.

Includes being given a reasonable amount of time in which to respond prior to an actual decision being made.

51
Q

(ii) Right to make representations

A

Note: no automatic right to oral hearings, can be fair in some instances for it to be confined to written form

BUT having an inflexible policy to never hold oral hearings can be fettering discretion

Criteria for determining whether oral hearings are required to meet the requisite standard of fairness:

(a) subject matter and circumstances of the particular case
(b) the nature of the decision to be made
(c) Whether there are substantive issues of fact that cannot be satisfactorily resolved on the available written evidence

Would an oral hearing held assess character, present mitigating factors, assist overall in the task? What is at stake?

Time, trouble and expense are not good reasons.

52
Q

(iii) Witnesses

A

Duty to act fairly may be infringed if a person is not allowed to call witnesses.
Will depend on nature of body and proceedings i.e. is liberty at stake?

53
Q

(iv) Legal representation

A

No general right, and can be counterproductive.

Factors:
- seriousness of the charge
- likelihood that a point of law may arise
- ability of a person to conduct his own case
- need for a speedy process

54
Q

(v) Reasons

A

Duty to give reasons may be imposed by statute e.g. imposed on tribunals.

No clear common law duty - but there is a trend towards the desirability of giving reasons for administrative decisions as part of the general attempt by the courts to promote the values of accountability and good administration.

Where a fundamental interest is at stake, fairness would seem to require reasons to be given

i.e. if a decision is unexpected the idea is that the matter is crying out for an explanation to be given

Moving in direction that reasons should be given unless there is a proper justification for not doing so.

55
Q

What is the rule against bias?

A

Decision makers cannot act fairly if there is a risk that they may be biased. The rule against bias disqualifies such a person from deciding a matter and will lead to the quashing of any decision made.

Two elements:
- Direct bias
- Indirect bias

56
Q

Direct bias

A

Any direct bias such as pecuniary interest on the part of the decision-maker will invalidate the decision unless this very strong presumption can somehow be rebutted - automatic disqualification.

Extent of this interest is irrelevant as is the state of knowledge of the decision-maker.

If a decision is taken by a group of individuals such as a local authority or a committee, a pecuniary interest on the part of any one member will be sufficient to invalidate the decision.

Pinochet: judicial decision was disqualified because Lord Hoffman was actively involved in amnesty international which was a party to the proceedings.

57
Q

Indirect bias

A

Test:
Would a fair-minded and informed observer, having considered the facts, conclude that there was a real possibility that the tribunal was biased?

i.e. a judge rejecting a palestinian asylum claim was found not to be directly biased even though she was a member of the international association of jewish lawyers and jurists whose leader had made pro Israel comments - found the judge her self had never expressed these views and the org was not involved in proceedings

58
Q

Bias: unauthorised participation or presence

A

Participation in a decision or even mere presence when the decision is taken by someone who may be biased may invalidate a decision.

59
Q

Bias: view formed in advance

A

If a body has already formed a view of the matter in questions before considering its decision the court may intervene because of the possibility of bias.

E.g. councillors having a predisposition in relation to a planning application was not unlawful: they are entitled to have an opinion and are justified in taking a general political position - must show they had a ‘closed mind’ in relation to the specific application (pre-determined)

60
Q

Bias: policy bias

A

Overlap with fettering discretion.

If a department has a policy and must hear objections to that policy, how can it consider objections impartially?

Only obligation is to show they genuinely consider objections submitted.

61
Q

Bias: necessity

A

sometimes the duty to act fairly must give way to necessity - if only one person is empowered to decide a question then s/he cannot be disqualified for boas as the administrative process would otherwise grind to a halt.

62
Q

What is legitimate expectation?

A

The most recent ground of challenge to be developed in judicial review is that of legitimate expectation.

Relates to the concept that an expectation of either a procedure or a benefit arising from a representation or promise made by a public body - or even an established practice carried out by a public body may be protected in law.

63
Q

What are the two forms of legitimate expectation?

A

1) Procedural legitimate expectation

2) Substantive legitimate expectation

64
Q

What is procedural legitimate expectation?

A

Where either:

1) A public body has promised or represented that a particular procedure will be followed before a decision is made
e.g. found to be unlawful when local authority said it would not issue more licences for taxis without hearing representations from the association but did

2) Where there has been an established practice for the public body to use a particular procedure

65
Q

What is Substantive legitimate expectation?

A

Arises where an assurance or promise has led a person to believe that they will receive a particular, tangible benefit.

66
Q

What is the courts approach to assessing legitimate expectation?

A
  1. Has an expectation arisen?
  2. If so, is the expectation legitimate?
  3. Has the public body lawfully frustrated the legitimate expectation?
67
Q

Has an expectation arisen?

A
  • can only be generated by or on behalf of a public authority

Express promise:
Specific representation: eg a promise by a local authority

Representation in policy: can be contained in a policy laid down by a public body e.g. promising to hold consultation

Regular practice: arises from an established practice or settled course of conduct by the public body towards the claimant or towards a class of people
e.g. GCHQ had long practice of consulting trade unions

is there a pattern of conduct which the claimant could rely on?

68
Q

Is the expectation legitimate?

A

Will depend on:

  • clarity
  • legality
  • agency
  • knowledge
  • reliance
69
Q

Legitimate expectation: Clarity

A

clear and unambiguous, promise would have reasonably be understood by those to whom it was made

70
Q

Legitimate expectation: legality

A

Must be on the basis of a lawful promise or practice

note:

A promise does not need to be made by the person or body who may be bound by it (eg promise by one govt department is binding on another)

an expectation can still be legitimate where the public authority made a promise in the mistaken belief it was under a statutory duty to do what it had promised to do (unless they don’t have the power at all)

eg even though it turned out the local authority did not have a duty to provide housing to x, because it lay within their powers and they made a representation they needed to

71
Q

Legitimate expectation: agents

A

A public body will not be bound by a representation to one of its agents where the agent acted outside its authority in making the representation

72
Q

Legitimate expectation: knowledge

A

Must have knowledge of the representation in order to claim legitimate expectation

Exception (unusual):
Although in an asylum case they found that it did not matter that the asylum seeker did not know about the policy and it would be grossly unfair if the court’s ability to intervene depended on a claimant having heard of a policy

73
Q

Legitimate expectation: reliance

A

Detrimental reliance is not essential but convincing and one the court must consider

74
Q

How has the body lawfully frustrated legitimate expectation?

A

Courts impose the burden of proof in establishing that a frustration was lawful on the public body seeking to defend itself in this way.

Procedural legitimate expectations: generally conclude that the importance of fairness dictate that the expectation be fulfilled. Unless compelling public interest reasons.

Substantive: less clear (public authorities should be able to change their policy) will consider fairness

Moving towards proportionality