Jones & Bartlett: Fire Officer Flashcards
Chapter 01. 1. According to the NFPA, how many levels of Fire Officers are there? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
C) 4
Chapter 01 2. Which term does the International Association of Fire Chiefs use for a Fire Officer II? A) Station Officer B) Managing Fire Officer C) Supervising Fire Officer D) Administrative Line Office
B) Managing Fire Officer
Chapter 01 3. All of the following are common ways of organizing a fire department except one. Choose the exception. A) Function B) Geography C) Demographics D) Staffing
C) Demographics
- Which of the four functions of management deals with developing a scheme, program, or
method that is worked out beforehand to accomplish an objective?
A) Organizing
B) Leading
C) Controlling
D) Planning
D) Planning
02 - 1. What is the term for the ability of a test to measure what it is intended to measure on a consistent basis? A) Validity B) Objectivity C) Reliability D) Selectivity
C) Reliability
02 - 2. To be effective in a role-playing exercise, a candidate’s supervisory decisions should be strictly based on . A) past practice B) the larger context C) the subordinate’s work history D) Policies and Regulations
D) Policies and Regulations
03 - 1. Which statement best summarizes the role of the Supervising Fire Officer in decision
making and problem solving?
A) All serious issues will be deferred entirely to the Chiefs for their handling.
B) Fire Officers will work together with Chiefs on issues that come up, and they will present a united
front to fire fighters.
C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.
D) Fire Officers will run their own stations, leaving the Chiefs out of it entirely.
C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.
03 - 2. The formal Fire Department organization considers a Fire Officer to be the representative of whom? A) The customer B) The fire fighter C) The local government D) The Fire Chief
D) The Fire Chief
03 - 3. Fire Officers should consult their supervisors if they are going to make a decision that
.
A) goes beyond their scope of authority
B) will be felt differently by different people
C) is not explicitly spelled out in a directive from above
D) has no explicit precedent in that department
A) goes beyond their scope of authority
03 - 4. According to Annex A of NFPA 1021, public safety personnel must make choices based on the
.
A) swiftest mitigation of the original and consequent incidents
B) minimal expenditure of resources to correct the
problem
C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the
community
D) closest adherence possible to public speculations
C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the
community
03 - 5. is the complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person’s moral and ethical actions and reactions. A) Honor B) Integrity C) Veracity D) Reliability
B) Integrity
04 - 1. What is an effective method of providing feedback to responders for improving their
emergency radio communications skills?
A) Running a simulation communications exercise with portable radios
B) Installing microphone filters on radios that do not allow shouting
C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies
D) Running an exercise in which, each intended communication is delayed 10 seconds, then allowed only
3seconds to take place
C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies
04 - 2. Which type of documents are SOPs? A) Formal and permanent B) Formal and temporary C) Informal and permanent D) Informal and temporary
A) Formal and permanent
04 - 3. Which of the following is a type of communication that is archived as a permanent file? A) External communication B) Informal communication C) Formal communication D) Internal communication
C) Formal communication
05 - 1. What is the leading cause of on-duty death among fire fighters? A) Burns B) Falls or crushing C) Asphyxiation D) Sudden cardiac death
D) Sudden cardiac death
05 - 2. Approximately of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing a seat belt. A) 25 percent B) 40 percent C) 60 percent D) 75 percent
D) 75 percent
05 - 3. NFPA 1500 requires to track identities, assignments, and locations of all
firefighters operating at an incident scene.
A) tracking boards
B) helmet tags
C) a personnel tracking database
D) a personnel accountability system
D) a personnel accountability system
05 - 4. What is one of the most important reasons for establishing and maintaining an effective
incident command structure at every incident?
A) Reduce costs
B) Promote situational awareness
C) Perform risk–benefit analysis
D) Justify use of human resources
B) Promote situational awareness
05 - 5. Who determines when it is safe to reduce the level of PPE at an incident scene?
A) Safety officer only
B) Safety officer and company officer
C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer
D) Incident commander and company officer
C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer
05 - 6. In addition to meeting regulatory requirements, how can records of accidents be used? A) Identifying accident-prone employees B) Insurance reporting C) Identifying trends D) Employee administrative action
C) Identifying trends
06 - 1. What is the term used for the process of setting performance standards and evaluating performance against those standards? A) Performance management B) Labor standards C) Labor relations D) Staffing
A) Performance management
07 - 1. In which emergency is a democratic leadership style appropriate?
A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation
B) Whenever the span of control is exceeded
C) When immediate action is required
D) There are no emergency situations where it is appropriate.
A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation
07 - 2. Which leadership style uses all the ingenuity and resourcefulness of the group in determining how to meet an objective or complete a task? A) Democratic B) Laissez-faire C) Autocratic D) Centralized
A) Democratic
07 - 3. A goal of an effective Fire Officer is to delegate decision making in routine activities to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) most experienced individual B) lowest possible level C) most qualified individual D) group consensus
B) lowest possible level
07 - 4. According to Studies of Social Power, an Incident Commander directing resources on an incident is an example of power. A) reward B) referent C) coercive D) legitimate
D) legitimate
07 - 5. In which situation is an autocratic leadership style required?
A) There are not enough personnel to cover all the usual roles of an evolution.
B) There is a unified command structure.
C) The operation is expected to go beyond a single operational period.
D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.
D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.
07 - 6. Which of the following is a key component of leading? A) Motivating B) Delegating C) Empathizing D) Following
A) Motivating
07 - 7. Which of the following is one of the two unique leadership challenges faced by Fire Officers? A) Recruitment B) Fire station as a work location C) Budgets D) Technology
B) Fire station as a work location
08 - 1. “The process of achieving proficiency through instruction and hands-on practice in the operation of equipment and systems” is the definition of . A) training B) coaching C) mastery D) learning
A) training
08 - 2. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process of imparting knowledge or skill through systematic instruction. A) Teaching B) Education C) Training D) Mentoring
B) Education
08 - 3. What is the NFPA standard for live fire training? A) 1001 B) 1403 C) 1500 D) 1596
B) 1403
9 - 1. Which program is designed to deal with issues such as substance abuse, emotional or
mental health issues, marital and family difficulties, or other difficulties that affect job
performance?
A) Employee Assistance Program
B) Critical incident stress management
C) Member referral program
D) Performance assistance program
A) Employee Assistance Program
9 - 2. The success of an Employee Assistance Program relies on the ability of an Officer to _____.
A) create a healthy working environment
B) recognize signs of stress in an employee
C) deal with employees in a fair and consistent manner
D) establish trust with subordinates
B) recognize signs of stress in an employee
11 - 1. What is the first step in establishing a local public education program?
A) Establish objectives for the program.
B) Determine the resources that will be
required.
C) Identify the fire or life-safety
problem.
D) Identify the population to be instructed.
C) Identify the fire or life-safety
problem.
12 - 1. What happens to the number and complexity of decision-making situations as Fire Officers
move up through the ranks?
A) Both the number and the complexity decrease.
B) The number increases, but the complexity decreases.
C) The complexity increases, but the number
decreases.
D) Both the number and the complexity
increase.
D) Both the number and the complexity
increase.
13 - 1. A facility with which feature, is required to submit information to the local emergency
planning council in connection with pre-incident planning?
A) Elevators intended for human use
B) Height of four stories or more
C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials
D) High terrorist target potential
C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials
13 - 2. Which of the following is a primary goal of pre-incident planning?
A) Allow for office-based code inspections
B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions
C) Put a face on the fire department that the community can see
D) Document the history of calls to that building
B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions
13 - 3. In the pre-incident plan, assessment of the roof, floor, and wall construction and their
structural integrity should focus on .
A) factors that could lead to collapse
B) the expected level of difficulty of making an interior breach between rooms
C) the likely flow paths
D) where the utility lines run within the walls and floors
A) factors that could lead to collapse
13 - 4. What is the major risk factor that should be considered with assembly occupancies? A) Ceiling collapse B) Fire spread to adjacent exposures C) Multiple-fatality fires D) Combustible construction
C) Multiple-fatality fires
13 - 5. A facility that has an evacuation or emergency operations plan should provide the
Fire Department with as soon as command is established.
A) a liaison
B) access to the public-address system
C) a schematic of the private fire protection system
D) facility-specific protective ensembles
A) a liaison
13 - 6. Which NFPA term means “an organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the
requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment, materials, an installation, or
a procedure”?
A) Responsible party
B) Enforcing agency
C) Regulatory body
D) Authority having jurisdiction
D) Authority having jurisdiction
13 - 7. Properties containing agricultural equipment, electronic data processing equipment, or
scientific equipment; fine arts centers; and storage or manufacturing sites are examples of
properties.
A) high-rise
B) assemblies
C) multistory
D) high-value
D) high-value
13 - 8. Nuclear power plants, bulk fuel storage facilities, hospitals, and jails are examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ properties. A) high-risk B) assemblies C) multistory D) high-value
A) high-risk
14 - 9. What can an agency conduct to identify hazards and the probability of the hazard occurring? A) Business continuity evaluation B) Hazard analysis C) Incident probability analysis D) Risk assessment
D) Risk assessment
15 - 1. One of the benefits of the ICS is to maintain . A) a manageable span of control B) unity of command C) a unified command structure D) a rational risk–benefit ratio
a manageable span of control
15 - 2. In the ICS, which command level defines the actions necessary to achieve the strategic goals? A) Strategic B) Logical C) Tactical D) Executive
C) Tactical
15 - 3. Which of the following is one of the three strategic priorities within the ICS? A) NIMS compliance B) Incident stabilization C) Restoration of property D) Determination of cause
B) Incident stabilization
15 - 4. In the ICS, who is responsible for assigning the needed resources to perform the tactical assignments at an incident? A) Individual company officers B) Incident commander C) Chief fire official D) Division or group supervisor
B) Incident commander
15 - 5. Which of the following is one of the three command options that the first-arriving
company-level fire officer has when arriving at an incident and assuming command?
A) Defensive mode
B) Rescue mode
C) Investigation mode
D) Offensive mode
C) Investigation mode
15 - 6. What is the preferred method of communication between two officers during transfer of command? A) Radio B) Face-to-face C) Writing D) There is no preferred method
B) Face-to-face
15 - 7. Which of the following is one of the five components of NIMS? A) Resource management B) Programmed response C) Recovery D) Reimbursement
A) Resource management
15 - 8. Which component of ICS outlines the strategic objectives and states how emergency operations will be conducted? A) Operational plan B) Standard operating procedures C) Incident action plan D) Situation status briefing
C) Incident action plan
15 - 9. Where should later-arriving units stand by while awaiting instructions? A) The nearest fire station B) Rehab C) The staging area D) The command post
C) The staging area
15 - 10. When a fire officer observes poor performance by an individual on an incident scene, the matter should be discussed . A) in private B) immediately C) with the entire crew D) during the incident critique
A) in private
15 - 11. When conducting an incident review for a building fire, the process should begin with ________________.
A) the initial 911 call
B) a review of the building
C) the first-arriving fire officer
D) the first officer to enter the structure
B) a review of the building
15 - 12. During a critique, in which order should fire officers present their descriptions of the incident?
A) By order of rank, from lowest to highest
B) By order of rank, from highest to lowest
C) In the order they arrived on scene
D) In any order
C) In the order they arrived on scene
16 - 1. According to the Rules of Engagement, who makes the final decision regarding whether
to proceed with an assigned objective?
A) The company tasked with achieving the objective
B) The Safety Officer
C) The Operations Chief
D) The Incident Commander
A) The company tasked with achieving the objective
16 - 2. What is the first Rule of Engagement?
A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times.
C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property.
D) Size up the tactical area of operation.
D) Size up the tactical area of operation.
16 - 3. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a legacy home occurs in about \_\_\_\_\_ minutes. A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) 30
D) 30
16 - 4. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a modern home occurs in about . A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds B) 6 minutes C) 10 minutes and 30 seconds D) 13 minutes and 20 seconds
A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds
16 - 5. What is Rule 2 of the Rules of Engagement?
A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times.
C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
D) Determine and control the flow path.
A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
16 - 6. Which phrase best summarizes the factors to be considered when determining the
occupant survivability profile?
A) Fire conditions upon arrival of the fire department
B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process
C) The likely location of the occupants
D) Available resources
B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process
16 - 7. According to the Rules of Engagement, how much risk is acceptable in attempting to save property that is “savable”? A) None B) Incidental C) Limited D) Significant
C) Limited
16 - 8. What is Rule 6 of the Rules of Engagement?
A) Maintain situational awareness through air management.
B) Constantly monitor communications for critical information.
C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
D) Situational awareness is everyone’s responsibility.
C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
16 - 9. Which strategy is the most appropriate when a structure is fully involved in fire and the fire is threatening adjacent exposures? A) Combination B) Offensive C) Transitional D) Defensive
D) Defensive
16 - 10. According to the Rules of Engagement, who is responsible for observing and reporting unsafe conditions? A) Everyone at the incident B) Operations Chief C) Safety Officer D) Company Officers/team leaders
A) Everyone at the incident
17 - 1. What is the key to using an authoritative style of leadership effectively?
A) Projecting an overwhelming “command presence” that brooks no opposition
B) Giving orders only after beginning the activity being ordered
C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident
D) Consistent application of the “red-hot stove rule”
C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident
17 - 2. What is a primary product of a strong emphasis on SOPs? A) Reduced reflex time B) Strong leadership C) Reduced supervisory load D) Operational efficiency
D) Operational efficiency
17 - 3. What allows Fire Officers to be able to predict where the fire is burning and where it will spread?
A) The hot lap
B) Forcible entry
C) Knowledge of fire behavior
D) Familiarity with the specific structure
C) Knowledge of fire behavior
17 - 4. What does churning smoke indicate? A) High organic fuel content B) Ventilation-controlled fire C) High heat-release rate D) Fuel-controlled fire
C) High heat-release rate
17 - 5. Fire development in modern structures is -limited. A) fuel B) temperature C) time D) ventilation
D) ventilation
17 - 6. What is the end result of a good size-up? A) Good tactical execution B) An effective incident action plan C) Unity of command D) An incident command staff
B) An effective incident action plan
17 - 7. Which strategy would an Incident Commander select when he or she believes the benefits of controlling and extinguishing the fire outweigh the risks to fire fighters? A) Transitional B) Combination C) Offensive D) Defensive
C) Offensive
17 - 8. Compared to legacy dwellings, modern structures .
A) have greater compartmentalization
B) have a lower heat-release rate
C) have a shorter time to flashover
D) are less sensitive to changes in flow path
C) have a shorter time to flashover
17 - 9. What are the two major components of the incident action plan? A) Risk and analysis B) Tactics and strategies C) Staffing and fire conditions D) Resources and fire flow requirements
B) Tactics and strategies
17 - 10. Which incident priority takes precedence over the others? A) Property conservation B) Incident stabilization C) Life safety D) Fire attack
C) Life safety
17 - 11. On what basis does the Incident Commander assign resources when tasks outnumber available resources
A) Risk–benefit analysis
B) Tactical priorities and available resources
C) Tasks and conditions
D) Strategies and tactics
B) Tactical priorities and available resources
17 - 12. Which resource can a Fire Officer consult to determine evacuation distances? A) Fire Protection Handbook B) NFPA Handbook C) NIOSH Handbook D) Emergency Response Guidebook
D) Emergency Response Guidebook
17 - 13. In which type of building do the majority of civilian deaths occur? A) Shopping malls B) High-rise apartments C) Multiple-family dwellings D) Single-family dwellings
D) Single-family dwellings
17 - 14. How do cathedral ceilings affect firefighting operations?
A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.
B) They are more prone to self-ventilation.
C) They increase heat build-up.
D) They are more prone to collapse.
A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.
18 - 1. When is the fire cause investigation conducted?
A) After the fire has been brought under control, but is not yet extinguished
B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner
C) Within the several hours immediately after the property is turned back over to the owner
D) After issuance of a warrant
B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner
- Who is responsible for conducting the fire cause investigation?
A) Chief fire official
B) Incident Commander
C) Property owner (by hiring a private agency)
D) Officer from the first-arriving engine company
B) Incident Commander
- A fire’s point of origin is usually determined by .
A) interviewing owners, witnesses, and bystanders
B) interpreting fire pattern evidence
C) using the Iowa volume formula
D) chemical sampling and analysis
B) interpreting fire pattern evidence
4. A U- or V-shaped fire pattern is also known as . A) pattern inversion B) movement pattern C) wall jet D) day-sleeper’s fire
B) movement pattern
- What is the relationship between char and a fire’s point of origin?
A) The cracklier the char, the closer that surface was to facing 90 degrees from the direction of the
point of origin.
B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.
C) Sooty char means it was far from the point or origin.
D) There is no relationship between the two.
B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.
- After all investigative possibilities have been exhausted, if two or more potential causes
remain, the cause of the fire should be reported as _________.
A) the most likely of the potential causes
B) under investigation
C) undetermined
D) unreportable
C) undetermined
- What is the usual location of the ignition source relative to the point of origin?
A) Anywhere in the fire-burned area
B) At the opposite end of the flow path
C) In direct contact with the point of origin
D) At or near the point of origin
D) At or near the point of origin
- What does “transmission” mean in the context of a competent ignition source?
A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation
B) Sufficient heat energy being transmitted from the point of origin to the first exposure
C) Actions made in preparation for the creation of the ignition source
D) The act of changing a human intention into a physical fact of action
A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation
- What is the fire investigator’s primary responsibility when conducting a fire investigation?
A) Develop a properly documented case.
B) Determine the point of origin.
C) Determine the identity of the arsonist.
D) Complete the NFIRS documentation.
A) Develop a properly documented case.
10. Who is responsible for preventing the contamination of evidence? A) Fire investigator B) Law enforcement C) Fire crews on the scene D) Homeowners
C) Fire crews on the scene
IFSTA 6Th edition
1. Chapter 9, states the priorities of a primary search are;
A) Most severely threatened, least severely threatened, remainder of hazard zone,
and exposures.
B) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, other of hazard zones, and exposures
C) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures.
D) None of the above
C) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures.
- Chapter 5 lists and explains the following backdraft indicators;
A) Building, Smoke, Exposures, Flames, and Surfaces.
B) Smoke, Air Flow, Weather, Exposures, and Volume.
C) Fuel Load, Air Flow, Heat, Structure, and Volume.
D) Building, Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, and Flame.
D) Building, Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, and Flame.
- Chapter 4, Building Construction - When considering the potential for structural collapse factors such as renovations, additions, alterations, age of the structure, weather and loads are all factors. Other factors include;
A) Construction type, initial fire conditions, stage of fire, open trusses, and amount of water used.
B) If the building is being renovated or demolished, if there are breached walls, and the contents.
C) Initial fire tactics and type of extinguishment used.
D) Construction type, length of time fire burns, stage of the fire, contents, and amount of water used to extinguish the fire.
D) Construction type, length of time fire burns, stage of the fire, contents, and amount of water used to extinguish the fire.
- Chapter 1, Orientation and Fire Service History, states that responsibilities of a
District/BattalionChiefs:
A) Supervise a fire company in the station and at fires and other emergencies. They may also supervise a group of fire companies within their response area.
B) Supervise a group of fire companies and stations. They may also manage units responsible for logistics, fire prevention, training planning or other functions.
C) Supervise a group of fire companies, logistics units, or other functions.
D) None of the above.
B) Supervise a group of fire companies and stations. They may also manage units responsible for logistics, fire prevention, training planning or other functions.
IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, staffing assignments must be based on each
individual’s ability to:
A) Work overtime or work different jobs
B) Perform any jobs that are short-staffed
C) Cross-train within all departments in the organization
D) Perform the job so that resources are utilized in an effective manner
D) Perform the job so that resources are utilized in an effective manner
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, staffing/duty assignments can be affected by:
A) Policies implemented in nearby jurisdictions
B) Policies in the labour/management agreement
C) The need to keep a prominent presence in the community
D) The need to compete with other organizations for personnel
B) Policies in the labour/management agreement
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a benefit of rotating personnel between
different stations?
A) Eliminates interdepartmental rivalries
B) Eliminates or minimizes employee burnout
C) Allows the organization to hire fewer personnel
D) Requires the organization to purchase less equipment
B) Eliminates or minimizes employee burnout
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the organization’s expectations regarding
controlled substances and alcohol should be:
A) Highlighted in the job position postings
B) Defined in the employee benefits package
C) Assumed because of the nature of the job
D) Provided in writing to the employee during new employee orientation
D) Provided in writing to the employee during new employee orientation
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what term refers to process of determining the
duties of a specific position and the qualifications needed to fill the position?
A) Job analysis
B) Needs analysis
C) Benefits analysis
D) Resource analysis
A) Job analysis
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is enhanced when members feel that they are
creating opportunities for themselves by participating in the organization?
A) Diversity
B) Turnover
C) Retention
D) Competition
C) Retention
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is an example of a question that would be
used during a behavioural interview?
A) Why do you want to be a volunteer firefighter?
B) What are typical duties that a firefighter performs?
C) Describe a stressful situation and how you handled it.
D) Do you have an emergency medical technician certificate?
C) Describe a stressful situation and how you handled it.
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, promotional examinations should be carefully
constructed to eliminate bias in order to:
A) Facilitate a faster process
B) Reduce the potential of legal issues
C) Decrease the potential applicant pool
D) Reduce the amount of time needed to take the test
B) Reduce the potential of legal issues
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a purpose of an occupational safety and
health committee?
A) Develop the health and safety program
B) Implement the health and safety program
C) Study and review safety and health matters
D) Discipline employees for violating health and safety rules
C) Study and review safety and health matters
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a core requirement of a health and safety program? A) Incentive plans B) Infection control procedures C) Individual needs assessments D) Contract physical fitness trainers
B) Infection control procedures
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the accepted approach for a hearing conservation
plan is to protect members from exposure to noises equal to or exceeding _________ over an
eight-hour Time Weighted Average.
A) 60 dB
B) 85 dB
C) 95 dB
D) 120 dB
B) 85 dB
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a public fire and life safety education program
should include a purpose and scope statement and that should be:
A) Included in comprehensive-risk approach documentation
B) Made available in teletypewriter telecommunication format
C) Translated into every language spoken within the service’s region
D) Included in an organization’s mission statement and strategic plan
D) Included in an organization’s mission statement and strategic plan
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the scope of an organization’s fire and life safety
education programs should:
A) Reflect the service area’s needs
B) Mirror what was done in previous years
C) Require minimum personnel to implement
D) Be similar to surrounding jurisdiction’s programs
A) Reflect the service area’s needs
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a benefit to having members deliver public
education programs within local response districts?
A) Reduces the chances for language barriers
B) Reduces the assumptions of risk by the organization
C) Opportunity to recruit individuals to apply to the organization
D) Opportunity to interact directly with people from local neighbourhoods
D) Opportunity to interact directly with people from local neighbourhoods
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when implementing a fire and life safety program it
is important to maintain close relationships with community groups:
A) To identify opportunities for public education
B) So that funding for programs can be justified
C) So that data for analysis can be easily collected
D) To identify individuals who have broken fire and life safety codes
A) To identify opportunities for public education
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when dealing with residents who are angry or
upset, chief officers should:
A) Remain calm and in control
B) Walk away from the individual
C) Escort the individual out of the building
D) Raise their voices and take a defensive posture
A) Remain calm and in control
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should be done when a complaint from the
public is voiced during an emergency operation?
A) The complaint should be ignored
B) The complaint should be immediately addressed
C) The resolution should wait until the incident is terminated
D) Law enforcement should be brought in to deal with the complaint
C) The resolution should wait until the incident is terminated
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, all customer concerns or complaints should be
resolved:
A) Under the watch of law enforcement
B) Under the supervision of legal counsel
C) As thoroughly and as slowly as possible
D) As reasonably and as quickly as possible
D) As reasonably and as quickly as possible
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, for the community risk reduction element of
emergency response to be effective, it must be coupled with:
A) Community fact-finding activities
B) An informal organizational structure
C) Other community risk reduction elements
D) Economic disincentives for the organization
C) Other community risk reduction elements
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, inspections and code enforcement programs were
created because of fires that resulted in:
A) Negative publicity
B) The need for mutual aid
C) High life or property loss
D) Increased insurance rates
C) High life or property loss
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when an organization has a mutual aid agreement,
response:
A) Is automatically dispatched to nearby incidents
B) Is always legally required, regardless of circumstances
C) May be generally delayed in order to determine whether it is truly needed
D) May be optional if it will reduce the ability of an organization to protect their own
community
D) May be optional if it will reduce the ability of an organization to protect their own
community
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, during an automatic response, resources from
participating jurisdictions are dispatched to:
A) An agreed-upon staging area near the incident scene
B) An undisclosed staging location within the jurisdiction
C) A common area used for all automatic responses in the area
D) An area half way between the incident scene and their assigned location
A) An agreed-upon staging area near the incident scene
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, joint training for major incidents involving multiple
organizations or agencies is based on:
A) Automatic aid agreements
B) Change management concepts
C) Incident Management Team concepts
D) Occupational Health and Safety standards
C) Incident Management Team concepts
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a step taken by the Incident Commander
at an incident?
A) Interview possible witnesses
B) Identify the incident priorities
C) Determine whether laws were broken
D) Determine the budget constraints of the incident
B) Identify the incident priorities
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which situation would require a written incident action plan? A) Haz Mat incident B) Small ground cover fire C) Single home residential fire D) Medical call for a heart attack
A) Haz Mat incident
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the tactical worksheet is the basis for the development of a(an): A) Legal mandate B) Incident action plan C) Fire inspection program D) Fire and life safety program
B) Incident action plan
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, actions taken outside the incident action plan’s
scope are referred to as freelancing and:
A) May place responders in jeopardy
B) Must be approved by two other responders
C) Are sometimes necessary in incident response
D) Can be taken only by senior, experienced responders
A) May place responders in jeopardy
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the operational strengths and weaknesses of an incident response are determined by the: A) Reimbursement logs B) Post-incident analysis C) Number of casualties D) Reaction of the public
B) Post-incident analysis
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is one function of the post-incident analysis
critique?
A) Provide the public with justification for the organization’s actions
B) Allow company and chief officers to display their leadership roles
C) Review the quality of customer service provided during the incident
D) Determine which participating personnel should be punished for negative actions
C) Review the quality of customer service provided during the incident
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, developing plans and strategies using an all-hazard approach ensures that:
A) Capabilities exist to handle any emergency
B) Each individual responder is cross-trained to handle any response
C) The public is aware of the capabilities and limitations of responders
D) Mutual aid partners will be involved in every emergency incident in the jurisdiction
A) Capabilities exist to handle any emergency
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, one reason that an all-hazards approach to
emergency management is important is that:
A) An all-inclusive list of disasters can never be completely complied
B) An all-inclusive list of disasters needs to cover every possible situation
C) Public and private emergency management entities treat disasters differently
D) Reimbursement for disaster response depends in part on the all-hazards preplanning
A) An all-inclusive list of disasters can never be completely complied
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, emergency management activities are broken into
four phases that:
A) Are distinct and do not overlap with one another
B) Often overlap and run concurrently with one another
C) Have to be completed within an allotted amount of time
D) Can be divided into eight operational response elements
B) Often overlap and run concurrently with one another
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what emergency management phase is a
continuous process involving efforts to identify threats and consequences before an
emergency?
A) Recovery
B) Response
C) Mitigation
D) Preparedness
D) Preparedness
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why is it critical that resources are deployed within
a structured response model?
A) To ensure that there are duplicates of all resources deployed
B) To help the public know who to trust in an emergency situation
C) To make quantifying response reimbursement easier for mutual aid organizations
D) To avoid the convergence of unrequested resources to a large-scale emergency scene
D) To avoid the convergence of unrequested resources to a large-scale emergency scene
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, emergency services organizations should create
relationships with outside agencies before an incident occurs to ensure that:
A) Liability is addressed and specific personnel are available
B) Capabilities are understood and proper request channels are followed
C) Resources and roles are duplicated during an actual emergency response
D) Non-disclosure agreements are signed and background checks performed
B) Capabilities are understood and proper request channels are followed
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, one of the primary determining factors in a
successful response and recovery to a disaster or large-scale incident is:
A) An excessive budget
B) Pre-incident planning
C) Redundant resources
D) Establishing multiple command structures
B) Pre-incident planning
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what facilities must an emergency operations
centre provide to on-scene personnel regardless of the length of the incident?
A) Rest and relief areas
B) Family readiness centres
C) Public media staging areas
D) At least five operational zones
A) Rest and relief areas
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should be a chief officer’s final goal in
workplace diversity/inclusion programs?
A) Eliminate any workplace conflicts so that all employees are satisfied
B) Create a workplace demographic that mirrors national demographics
C) Create a work environment that appreciates and respects diversity of all organizational members
D) Reduce the likelihood of the organization becoming involved in civil litigation regarding employment
C) Create a work environment that appreciates and respects diversity of all organizational members
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, an inclusive and diverse workforce improves
organizational functioning by increasing the:
A) Tax dollars from minority communities
B) Overall staffing levels of the organization
C) Perspectives available for problem solving
D) Number of individuals from the prominent dominant demographic group
C) Perspectives available for problem solving
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, succession planning should be developed in
conjunction with:
A) Pre-incident plans and operational budgets
B) Annual evaluation and departmental reorganization plans
C) Professional development and continuing education plans
D) Community development and fire and life safety education plans
C) Professional development and continuing education plans
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, succession planning maintains employee morale
and retention because employees:
A) Can see a clearly defined career path
B) Do not have to plan their career path
C) Can be assured of further promotions
D) Are aware of the career paths of co-workers
A) Can see a clearly defined career path
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when determining organizational needs, the goal
should be for all responders to be trained:
A) To the minimum standards
B) Well above local AHJ (agency having jurisdiction) standards
C) Well above the minimum standards
D) To at least 90% of the minimum standards
C) Well above the minimum standards
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, if a lack of education is noticed among personnel
who are likely candidates for advancement, the organization should:
A) Identify and coach individuals to establish educational goals
B) Remove the individuals from being a candidate for advancement
C) Place those candidates at the bottom of the list for advancement
D) Promote those candidates with the understanding that they will receive further education
A) Identify and coach individuals to establish educational goals
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, training delivered in an electronic format enables
personnel to:
A) Complete training with a minimum of effort
B) Earn overtime pay while completing training
C) Complete training during downtime at the station
D) Utilize techniques learned during an on-going incident
C) Complete training during downtime at the station
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, an organization’s behavioural health program
should include a stress crisis intervention team to provide the necessary support for the affected
member after incidents involving:
A) Mass casualties
B) Long work shifts
C) Community outreach
D) Unified command structures
A) Mass casualties
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, member assistance programs are developed to provide tools to cope with:
A) Issues that directly deal with the organization and its members
B) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members and their families
C) Job searches and interviews when members voluntarily leave the organization
D) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members employed more than one
year
B) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members and their families
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, peer-support programs have become a fire and
emergency services best practice in response to:
A) Decreasing responder retention rates
B) The increasing rate of responder suicide
C) The risk of responder on-scene fatalities
D) Responders failing to meet national training standards
B) The increasing rate of responder suicide
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should a chief officer do when a member
shows signs of stress or other emotional problems?
A) Place the member on unpaid leave
B) Recommend use of the member assistance program
C) Report the member’s issues to others in the organization
D) Wait and see if the member can resolve issues on their own
B) Recommend use of the member assistance program
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which term refers to ‘any arrangement of materials that presents the potential for harm’? A) Risk B) Hazard C) Danger D) Liability
B) Hazard
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which term refers to ‘a measure of the probability
and severity of adverse effects that result from an exposure to a hazard’?
A) Risk
B) Hazard
C) Danger
D) Liability
A) Risk
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when identifying risks, the chief officer should
compile a list of the organization’s emergency and nonemergency operations and duties that
includes the:
A) Best possible conditions or events
B) Worst possible conditions or potential events
C) Conditions or events that have previously occurred
D) Conditions or events that garner provincial or national attention
B) Worst possible conditions or potential events
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what aspect of risk evaluation can be measured by
lost time away from work and the cost of damage?
A) Liability
B) Severity
C) Frequency
D) Cost/benefit
B) Severity
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when prioritizing risks, which risks would be high
priority items deserving immediate action?
A) Risks with low probability of occurrence and serious consequences
B) Risks with high probability of occurrence and serious consequences
C) Risks with low probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences
D) Risks with high probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences
C) Risks with low probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when prioritizing risks, which risks can be placed
near the bottom of the action-required list?
A) Serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence
B) Serious incidents with high likelihood of occurrence
C) Non-serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence
D) Non-serious incidents with high likelihood of occurrence
C) Non-serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which risk control technique does not eliminate
risk, but reduces the likelihood of occurrence and the severity?
A) Risk transfer
B) Risk avoidance
C) Control measures
D) Intermittent measures
C) Control measures
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the intent of a risk management plan is to develop
a:
A) Strategy for reducing inherent risks associated with operations
B) Strategy for reducing community dissatisfaction with operations
C) Method to eliminate the majority of risks associated with operations
D) Method to eliminate the majority of hazards associated with operations
A) Strategy for reducing inherent risks associated with operations
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, in which phase of risk management plan
implementation are the actual results of a risk management plan compared to its desired
results?
A) Revision
B) Creation
C) Evaluation
D) Monitoring
D) Monitoring
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what would indicate that the risk management plan
is effective?
A) No change or increase in the number of injuries
B) Reduction in medical leave taken or lost-time injuries
C) Decrease in costs of other activities in the department
D) Increase in the use of family and medical leave by employees
B) Reduction in medical leave taken or lost-time injuries
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, how can chief officers and public information
officers create and maintain a positive image for the organization?
A) Use social media to share positive safety messages
B) Encourage members of the news media to tour every incident scene
C) Ask operations personnel to conduct media briefings instead of chief officers or the PIO
D) Donate money to political candidates who are most likely to support the organization’s
mission
D) Donate money to political candidates who are most likely to support the organization’s mission
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is protocol for media operating at an
emergency incident?
A) Restrict photographers from taking potentially negative photos
B) Provide all media personnel with personal protective equipment
C) Stage or pose for media photographers to get good pictures of an incident
D) Allow properly credentialed media personnel to witness and document an incident
D) Allow properly credentialed media personnel to witness and document an incident
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, police and fire officials can deny media personnel
entrance to a crime scene or incident scene:
A) To avoid any potential negative publicity
B) Whenever they feel the incident is too gruesome
C) To protect evidence that is being collected and processed
D) Whenever they do not want to deal with media personnel
C) To protect evidence that is being collected and processed
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what type of information at an incident scene
cannot be released to the media or the public?
A) Patient’s gender or age
B) Number of victims involved
C) Patient’s medical conditions
D) Names of the businesses involved
C) Patient’s medical conditions
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, how can social media be beneficial with regard to
enhancing the organization’s public image?
A) It provides an additional method for organization members to interact with the public
B) Organization members can link their personal social media accounts so the public can
befriend them
C) Organization leaders can interact with political candidates and community leaders in a
public, transparent manner
D) It provides a place for members of the public to access fire department resources, such
as copies of the organization’s SOPs
A) It provides an additional method for organization members to interact with the public
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, ‘Unified Command’ (UC) allows agencies to be a
part of the UC without losing or giving up agency authority, responsibility, or accountability
while:
A) Establishing common incident objectives and strategies
B) Maintaining individual agency incident objectives and strategies
C) Assisting with the incident objectives and strategies of multiple agencies within the UC
D) Establishing both individual agency and Unified Command incident objectives and
strategies
A) Establishing common incident objectives and strategies
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, fire and emergency services organizations should
establish relationships with provincial and local agencies and areas of apparent conflict should
be:
A) Avoided during interagency planning
B) Resolved during interagency planning
C) Addressed once they become an issue
D) Resolved independently by the fire chief or agency lead
A) Avoided during interagency planning
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, in which type of incident would interagency contact
between local and federal agencies occur?
A) Terrorism event
B) Localized wildfire
C) Medical transport call
D) Apartment complex fire
A) Terrorism event
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, if a governing body poses a question that a fire
department liaison cannot answer, the liaison should:
A) Admit the answer is not currently known
B) Attempt to answer the question as best they can
C) Deflect the question and answer another question
D) Ask to rephrase the question into one they can answer
A) Admit the answer is not currently known
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, fire and emergency services community
involvement means:
A) Donating warm or unused equipment to community charities and organizations
B) Being involved in the community as it directly relates to the organization’s mission statement
C) Asking members to spend personal time, not organization time, being involved in the community
D) Potentially being involved in the community in ways not directly related to the organization’s mission statement
D) Potentially being involved in the community in ways not directly related to the organization’s mission statement
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers should learn about the characteristics
of the community they serve so they can develop culturally sensitive services and processes
necessary to:
A) Avoid potential litigation with community members
B) Win local, provincial, and national awards for the organization
C) Support delivery of effective fire prevention and emergency services
D) Encourage community members to lobby politically for the organization
C) Support delivery of effective fire prevention and emergency services
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a long-term plan would include set goals in a
specific area such as:
A) Developing an inspection schedule for equipment and cross-training personnel in inspection duties
B) Shifting hazardous responsibilities and pre-incident planning for high-value properties
C) Purchasing real estate for future facilities, fulfilling staffing requirements, and response time benchmarks
D) Creating a fixed schedule for electrical system inspections and assigning new personnel to the inspection department
C) Purchasing real estate for future facilities, fulfilling staffing requirements, and response time benchmarks
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers should have a plan prepared in case
government mandates or adoption of NFPA standards require:
A) A change in the labour / management agreement
B) Personnel to retire due to change in maximum age limits
C) A change in benefits that the organization offers to new hires
D) The organization to hire or reassign personnel in order to meet minimum staffing levels
D) The organization to hire or reassign personnel in order to meet minimum staffing levels
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what process do fire officers use to make decisions
on the fire ground about saving lives and property?
A) Gap analysis
B) Risk analysis
C) Trends analysis
D) Hazards analysis
B) Risk analysis
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why should training activities be publicized within
an organization?
A) To meet local and provincial legal requirements
B) To recruit new members to the organization
C) So that instructors can pick what courses they want to teach
D) So that all personnel are aware of opportunities and training goals
) So that all personnel are aware of opportunities and training goals
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why is input from incident commanders and
supervisors important in program and course-level evaluations?
A) They often determine the budgets of the programs
B) They work with individuals who complete the programs
C) They want to ensure their opinions are taken into account
D) They are more political and can lobby for additional funding
B) They work with individuals who complete the programs
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a hazard is a condition, substance, or device that:
A) Can directly cause injury or loss
B) Is indirectly related to injury or loss
C) Increases the likelihood for failure or loss
D) Always exists but is not necessarily dangerous
A) Can directly cause injury or loss
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, building codes, fire codes, and zoning restrictions
can reduce the consequences of _______ hazards.
A) Natural
B) Secondary
C) Behavioural
D) Intentional
A) Natural
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the first step in determining occupancy related
hazards is to:
A) Survey residents in the community
B) Survey the types of buildings in the community
C) Analyze national trends in occupancy-related hazards
D) Understand building codes, fire codes, and locally adopted amendments
C) Analyze national trends in occupancy-related hazards
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when preparing an all-hazards plan for a disaster
or hostile event”
A) The plan should be approved by individuals in the fusion centre
B) Potential hazards should be listed in order of perceived public importance
C) Potential hazards should be identified by physical and geographic characteristics
D) The plan should be approved by individuals in the emergency operations centre
C) Potential hazards should be identified by physical and geographic characteristics
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, NFPA 3000 provides guidance and planning
resources for:
A) Terrorism pre-incident planning
B) Technological disaster planning
C) Incidents involving suspected arson
D) Major incidents involving active shooter situations
D) Major incidents involving active shooter situations
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers can refer to NFPA 3000 for:
A) Requirements and planning resources for training facilities
B) Operation and recovery procedures for natural and technological disasters
C) Guidelines specific to a chief officer’s political and community involvement
D) Preparedness, response, and recovery procedures that focus on contractual and mutual aid agreements for active shooter/hostile event response
D) Preparedness, response, and recovery procedures that focus on contractual and mutual aid agreements for active shooter/hostile event response
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is the primary focus of an emergency
operations centre (EOC)?
A) Rehabilitation services for log-term incidents
B) Decontamination and staging for long-term incidents
C) Multiagency coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities
D) Intra-jurisdictional coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities
C) Multiagency coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is one function of an emergency operations
centre (EOC)?
A) The EOC retains command of the incident so that no single agency is overtaxed
B) A centralized communications system allows senior management to command widespread operations
C) The EOC provides physical and personnel resources to major incidents, such as a strike team or task force
D) A centralized rehabilitation area allows all responders to receive the same level of care and monitoring during the incident
B) A centralized communications system allows senior management to command widespread operations
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, who determines when an incident can be declared
terminated?
A) First responding agency
B) Agency having ultimate authority
C) Any agency involved in the incident
D) Agency with the most personnel at the incident
B) Agency having ultimate authority
According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the first objective for restoration of services after a disaster is the restoration of: A) Public utilities B) Transportation services C) Normal business activities D) Fire and emergency services
D) Fire and emergency services
Blue Card page 55 According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Organization B) Situation Evaluation C) Emergency Response D) Revise, Evaluation & Revision
C) Emergency Response
According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Accountability B) Emergency Response C) Deployment D) None of the Above
C) Deployment
According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Accountability B) Emergency Response C) Tactical Priorities D) None of the Above
D) None of the Above
According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Organization B) Accountability C) Tactical Priorities D) Both B and C are correct
A) Organization
According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of
Command?
A) Tactical Priorities
B) Assumption, Confirmation and Positioning
C) Organization
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are central command’s tactical
priorities?
A) Conserve property and the environment during and after operations
B) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives
C) Protect, remove, and provide care for endangered customers
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of central command’s
tactical priorities?
A) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives
B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident
C) Stabilize the incident or problem
D) Provide for responder safety and survival
B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident
According to the Blue Card program, the command procedure mobilzes and integrates efforts
for on-scene firefighters with a central command presence. Which of the following statements is
incorrect about centralized command?
A) The command procedure provides a coordinated effort of all resources at the scene to gain control of the situation
B) The command procedure ensures that strong, direct and visible command is established as early as possible
C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP)
D) The command procedure fixes responsibility on an individual to become the Incident Commander through a standard identification system
C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP)
According to the Blue Card program, effective Incident Organization (Function 6), fulfills all of
the following except,
A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing
B) The Incident Commander controls where the firefighters are and what they are doing
C) The Incident Commander has control over the position and function of all resources
D) The Incident Commander builds an effective organization to decentralize the incident
scene
A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing
