Jones & Bartlett: Fire Officer Flashcards by Lorenzo Morcone

Chapter 01. 
1. According to the NFPA, how many levels of Fire Officers are there?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

C) 4

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Chapter 01
2. Which term does the International Association of Fire Chiefs use for a Fire Officer II?
A) Station Officer
B) Managing Fire Officer
C) Supervising Fire Officer
D) Administrative Line Office

B) Managing Fire Officer

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Chapter 01
3. All of the following are common ways of organizing a fire department except one. Choose 
the exception.
A) Function
B) Geography
C) Demographics
D) Staffing

C) Demographics

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Which of the four functions of management deals with developing a scheme, program, or
method that is worked out beforehand to accomplish an objective?
A) Organizing
B) Leading
C) Controlling
D) Planning

D) Planning

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02 - 1. What is the term for the ability of a test to measure what it is intended to measure on 
a consistent basis?
A) Validity
B) Objectivity
C) Reliability
D) Selectivity

C) Reliability

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02 - 2. To be effective in a role-playing exercise, a candidate’s supervisory decisions should be
strictly based on .
A) past practice
B) the larger context
C) the subordinate’s work history
D) Policies and Regulations

D) Policies and Regulations

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03 - 1. Which statement best summarizes the role of the Supervising Fire Officer in decision
making and problem solving?
A) All serious issues will be deferred entirely to the Chiefs for their handling.
B) Fire Officers will work together with Chiefs on issues that come up, and they will present a united
front to fire fighters.
C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.
D) Fire Officers will run their own stations, leaving the Chiefs out of it entirely.

C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.

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03 - 2. The formal Fire Department organization considers a Fire Officer to be the representative
of whom?
A) The customer
B) The fire fighter
C) The local government
D) The Fire Chief

D) The Fire Chief

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03 - 3. Fire Officers should consult their supervisors if they are going to make a decision that
.
A) goes beyond their scope of authority
B) will be felt differently by different people
C) is not explicitly spelled out in a directive from above
D) has no explicit precedent in that department

A) goes beyond their scope of authority

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03 - 4. According to Annex A of NFPA 1021, public safety personnel must make choices based on the
.
A) swiftest mitigation of the original and consequent incidents
B) minimal expenditure of resources to correct the
problem
C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the
community
D) closest adherence possible to public speculations

C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the

community

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03 - 5. is the complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person’s moral and ethical 
actions and reactions.
A) Honor
B) Integrity
C) Veracity
D) Reliability

B) Integrity

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04 - 1. What is an effective method of providing feedback to responders for improving their
emergency radio communications skills?
A) Running a simulation communications exercise with portable radios
B) Installing microphone filters on radios that do not allow shouting
C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies
D) Running an exercise in which, each intended communication is delayed 10 seconds, then allowed only
3seconds to take place

C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies

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04 - 2. Which type of documents are SOPs?
A) Formal and permanent
B) Formal and temporary
C) Informal and permanent
D) Informal and temporary

A) Formal and permanent

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04 - 3. Which of the following is a type of communication that is archived as a permanent file?
A) External communication
B) Informal communication
C) Formal communication
D) Internal communication

C) Formal communication

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05 - 1. What is the leading cause of on-duty death among fire fighters?
A) Burns
B) Falls or crushing
C) Asphyxiation
D) Sudden cardiac death

D) Sudden cardiac death

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05 - 2. Approximately of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing a seat belt.
A) 25 percent
B) 40 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 75 percent

D) 75 percent

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05 - 3. NFPA 1500 requires to track identities, assignments, and locations of all
firefighters operating at an incident scene.
A) tracking boards
B) helmet tags
C) a personnel tracking database
D) a personnel accountability system

D) a personnel accountability system

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05 - 4. What is one of the most important reasons for establishing and maintaining an effective
incident command structure at every incident?
A) Reduce costs
B) Promote situational awareness
C) Perform risk–benefit analysis
D) Justify use of human resources

B) Promote situational awareness

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05 - 5. Who determines when it is safe to reduce the level of PPE at an incident scene?
A) Safety officer only
B) Safety officer and company officer
C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer
D) Incident commander and company officer

C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer

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05 - 6. In addition to meeting regulatory requirements, how can records of accidents be used?
A) Identifying accident-prone employees
B) Insurance
reporting
C) Identifying trends
D) Employee administrative action

C) Identifying trends

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06 - 1. What is the term used for the process of setting performance standards and evaluating performance against those standards?
A) Performance management
B) Labor standards
C) Labor relations
D) Staffing

A) Performance management

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07 - 1. In which emergency is a democratic leadership style appropriate?
A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation
B) Whenever the span of control is exceeded
C) When immediate action is required
D) There are no emergency situations where it is appropriate.

A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation

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07 - 2. Which leadership style uses all the ingenuity and resourcefulness of the group in determining how to meet an objective or complete a task?
A) Democratic
B) Laissez-faire
C) Autocratic
D) Centralized

A) Democratic

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07 - 3. A goal of an effective Fire Officer is to delegate decision making in routine activities to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) most experienced individual
B) lowest possible level
C) most qualified individual
D) group consensus

B) lowest possible level

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``` 07 - 4. According to Studies of Social Power, an Incident Commander directing resources on an incident is an example of power. A) reward B) referent C) coercive D) legitimate ```

D) legitimate

07 - 5. In which situation is an autocratic leadership style required? A) There are not enough personnel to cover all the usual roles of an evolution. B) There is a unified command structure. C) The operation is expected to go beyond a single operational period. D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.

D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.

``` 07 - 6. Which of the following is a key component of leading? A) Motivating B) Delegating C) Empathizing D) Following ```

A) Motivating

``` 07 - 7. Which of the following is one of the two unique leadership challenges faced by Fire Officers? A) Recruitment B) Fire station as a work location C) Budgets D) Technology ```

B) Fire station as a work location

``` 08 - 1. “The process of achieving proficiency through instruction and hands-on practice in the operation of equipment and systems” is the definition of . A) training B) coaching C) mastery D) learning ```

A) training

``` 08 - 2. ________ is the process of imparting knowledge or skill through systematic instruction. A) Teaching B) Education C) Training D) Mentoring ```

B) Education

``` 08 - 3. What is the NFPA standard for live fire training? A) 1001 B) 1403 C) 1500 D) 1596 ```

B) 1403

9 - 1. Which program is designed to deal with issues such as substance abuse, emotional or mental health issues, marital and family difficulties, or other difficulties that affect job performance? A) Employee Assistance Program B) Critical incident stress management C) Member referral program D) Performance assistance program

A) Employee Assistance Program

9 - 2. The success of an Employee Assistance Program relies on the ability of an Officer to _____. A) create a healthy working environment B) recognize signs of stress in an employee C) deal with employees in a fair and consistent manner D) establish trust with subordinates

B) recognize signs of stress in an employee

11 - 1. What is the first step in establishing a local public education program? A) Establish objectives for the program. B) Determine the resources that will be required. C) Identify the fire or life-safety problem. D) Identify the population to be instructed.

C) Identify the fire or life-safety | problem.

12 - 1. What happens to the number and complexity of decision-making situations as Fire Officers move up through the ranks? A) Both the number and the complexity decrease. B) The number increases, but the complexity decreases. C) The complexity increases, but the number decreases. D) Both the number and the complexity increase.

D) Both the number and the complexity | increase.

13 - 1. A facility with which feature, is required to submit information to the local emergency planning council in connection with pre-incident planning? A) Elevators intended for human use B) Height of four stories or more C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials D) High terrorist target potential

C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials

13 - 2. Which of the following is a primary goal of pre-incident planning? A) Allow for office-based code inspections B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions C) Put a face on the fire department that the community can see D) Document the history of calls to that building

B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions

13 - 3. In the pre-incident plan, assessment of the roof, floor, and wall construction and their structural integrity should focus on . A) factors that could lead to collapse B) the expected level of difficulty of making an interior breach between rooms C) the likely flow paths D) where the utility lines run within the walls and floors

A) factors that could lead to collapse

``` 13 - 4. What is the major risk factor that should be considered with assembly occupancies? A) Ceiling collapse B) Fire spread to adjacent exposures C) Multiple-fatality fires D) Combustible construction ```

C) Multiple-fatality fires

13 - 5. A facility that has an evacuation or emergency operations plan should provide the Fire Department with as soon as command is established. A) a liaison B) access to the public-address system C) a schematic of the private fire protection system D) facility-specific protective ensembles

A) a liaison

13 - 6. Which NFPA term means “an organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment, materials, an installation, or a procedure”? A) Responsible party B) Enforcing agency C) Regulatory body D) Authority having jurisdiction

D) Authority having jurisdiction

13 - 7. Properties containing agricultural equipment, electronic data processing equipment, or scientific equipment; fine arts centers; and storage or manufacturing sites are examples of properties. A) high-rise B) assemblies C) multistory D) high-value

D) high-value

``` 13 - 8. Nuclear power plants, bulk fuel storage facilities, hospitals, and jails are examples of __________ properties. A) high-risk B) assemblies C) multistory D) high-value ```

A) high-risk

``` 14 - 9. What can an agency conduct to identify hazards and the probability of the hazard occurring? A) Business continuity evaluation B) Hazard analysis C) Incident probability analysis D) Risk assessment ```

D) Risk assessment

``` 15 - 1. One of the benefits of the ICS is to maintain . A) a manageable span of control B) unity of command C) a unified command structure D) a rational risk–benefit ratio ```

a manageable span of control

``` 15 - 2. In the ICS, which command level defines the actions necessary to achieve the strategic goals? A) Strategic B) Logical C) Tactical D) Executive ```

C) Tactical

``` 15 - 3. Which of the following is one of the three strategic priorities within the ICS? A) NIMS compliance B) Incident stabilization C) Restoration of property D) Determination of cause ```

B) Incident stabilization

``` 15 - 4. In the ICS, who is responsible for assigning the needed resources to perform the tactical assignments at an incident? A) Individual company officers B) Incident commander C) Chief fire official D) Division or group supervisor ```

B) Incident commander

15 - 5. Which of the following is one of the three command options that the first-arriving company-level fire officer has when arriving at an incident and assuming command? A) Defensive mode B) Rescue mode C) Investigation mode D) Offensive mode

C) Investigation mode

``` 15 - 6. What is the preferred method of communication between two officers during transfer of command? A) Radio B) Face-to-face C) Writing D) There is no preferred method ```

B) Face-to-face

``` 15 - 7. Which of the following is one of the five components of NIMS? A) Resource management B) Programmed response C) Recovery D) Reimbursement ```

A) Resource management

``` 15 - 8. Which component of ICS outlines the strategic objectives and states how emergency operations will be conducted? A) Operational plan B) Standard operating procedures C) Incident action plan D) Situation status briefing ```

C) Incident action plan

``` 15 - 9. Where should later-arriving units stand by while awaiting instructions? A) The nearest fire station B) Rehab C) The staging area D) The command post ```

C) The staging area

``` 15 - 10. When a fire officer observes poor performance by an individual on an incident scene, the matter should be discussed . A) in private B) immediately C) with the entire crew D) during the incident critique ```

A) in private

15 - 11. When conducting an incident review for a building fire, the process should begin with ________________. A) the initial 911 call B) a review of the building C) the first-arriving fire officer D) the first officer to enter the structure

B) a review of the building

15 - 12. During a critique, in which order should fire officers present their descriptions of the incident? A) By order of rank, from lowest to highest B) By order of rank, from highest to lowest C) In the order they arrived on scene D) In any order

C) In the order they arrived on scene

16 - 1. According to the Rules of Engagement, who makes the final decision regarding whether to proceed with an assigned objective? A) The company tasked with achieving the objective B) The Safety Officer C) The Operations Chief D) The Incident Commander

A) The company tasked with achieving the objective

16 - 2. What is the first Rule of Engagement? A) Determine the occupant survival profile. B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times. C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property. D) Size up the tactical area of operation.

D) Size up the tactical area of operation.

``` 16 - 3. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a legacy home occurs in about _____ minutes. A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) 30 ```

D) 30

``` 16 - 4. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a modern home occurs in about . A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds B) 6 minutes C) 10 minutes and 30 seconds D) 13 minutes and 20 seconds ```

A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds

16 - 5. What is Rule 2 of the Rules of Engagement? A) Determine the occupant survival profile. B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times. C) Go in together, stay together, come out together. D) Determine and control the flow path.

A) Determine the occupant survival profile.

16 - 6. Which phrase best summarizes the factors to be considered when determining the occupant survivability profile? A) Fire conditions upon arrival of the fire department B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process C) The likely location of the occupants D) Available resources

B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process

``` 16 - 7. According to the Rules of Engagement, how much risk is acceptable in attempting to save property that is “savable”? A) None B) Incidental C) Limited D) Significant ```

C) Limited

16 - 8. What is Rule 6 of the Rules of Engagement? A) Maintain situational awareness through air management. B) Constantly monitor communications for critical information. C) Go in together, stay together, come out together. D) Situational awareness is everyone’s responsibility.

C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.

``` 16 - 9. Which strategy is the most appropriate when a structure is fully involved in fire and the fire is threatening adjacent exposures? A) Combination B) Offensive C) Transitional D) Defensive ```

D) Defensive

``` 16 - 10. According to the Rules of Engagement, who is responsible for observing and reporting unsafe conditions? A) Everyone at the incident B) Operations Chief C) Safety Officer D) Company Officers/team leaders ```

A) Everyone at the incident

17 - 1. What is the key to using an authoritative style of leadership effectively? A) Projecting an overwhelming “command presence” that brooks no opposition B) Giving orders only after beginning the activity being ordered C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident D) Consistent application of the “red-hot stove rule”

C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident

``` 17 - 2. What is a primary product of a strong emphasis on SOPs? A) Reduced reflex time B) Strong leadership C) Reduced supervisory load D) Operational efficiency ```

D) Operational efficiency

17 - 3. What allows Fire Officers to be able to predict where the fire is burning and where it will spread? A) The hot lap B) Forcible entry C) Knowledge of fire behavior D) Familiarity with the specific structure

C) Knowledge of fire behavior

``` 17 - 4. What does churning smoke indicate? A) High organic fuel content B) Ventilation-controlled fire C) High heat-release rate D) Fuel-controlled fire ```

C) High heat-release rate

``` 17 - 5. Fire development in modern structures is -limited. A) fuel B) temperature C) time D) ventilation ```

D) ventilation

``` 17 - 6. What is the end result of a good size-up? A) Good tactical execution B) An effective incident action plan C) Unity of command D) An incident command staff ```

B) An effective incident action plan

``` 17 - 7. Which strategy would an Incident Commander select when he or she believes the benefits of controlling and extinguishing the fire outweigh the risks to fire fighters? A) Transitional B) Combination C) Offensive D) Defensive ```

C) Offensive

17 - 8. Compared to legacy dwellings, modern structures . A) have greater compartmentalization B) have a lower heat-release rate C) have a shorter time to flashover D) are less sensitive to changes in flow path

C) have a shorter time to flashover

``` 17 - 9. What are the two major components of the incident action plan? A) Risk and analysis B) Tactics and strategies C) Staffing and fire conditions D) Resources and fire flow requirements ```

B) Tactics and strategies

``` 17 - 10. Which incident priority takes precedence over the others? A) Property conservation B) Incident stabilization C) Life safety D) Fire attack ```

C) Life safety

17 - 11. On what basis does the Incident Commander assign resources when tasks outnumber available resources A) Risk–benefit analysis B) Tactical priorities and available resources C) Tasks and conditions D) Strategies and tactics

B) Tactical priorities and available resources

``` 17 - 12. Which resource can a Fire Officer consult to determine evacuation distances? A) Fire Protection Handbook B) NFPA Handbook C) NIOSH Handbook D) Emergency Response Guidebook ```

D) Emergency Response Guidebook

``` 17 - 13. In which type of building do the majority of civilian deaths occur? A) Shopping malls B) High-rise apartments C) Multiple-family dwellings D) Single-family dwellings ```

D) Single-family dwellings

17 - 14. How do cathedral ceilings affect firefighting operations? A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension. B) They are more prone to self-ventilation. C) They increase heat build-up. D) They are more prone to collapse.

A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.

18 - 1. When is the fire cause investigation conducted? A) After the fire has been brought under control, but is not yet extinguished B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner C) Within the several hours immediately after the property is turned back over to the owner D) After issuance of a warrant

B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner

2. Who is responsible for conducting the fire cause investigation? A) Chief fire official B) Incident Commander C) Property owner (by hiring a private agency) D) Officer from the first-arriving engine company

B) Incident Commander

3. A fire’s point of origin is usually determined by . A) interviewing owners, witnesses, and bystanders B) interpreting fire pattern evidence C) using the Iowa volume formula D) chemical sampling and analysis

B) interpreting fire pattern evidence

``` 4. A U- or V-shaped fire pattern is also known as . A) pattern inversion B) movement pattern C) wall jet D) day-sleeper’s fire ```

B) movement pattern

5. What is the relationship between char and a fire’s point of origin? A) The cracklier the char, the closer that surface was to facing 90 degrees from the direction of the point of origin. B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin. C) Sooty char means it was far from the point or origin. D) There is no relationship between the two.

B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.

6. After all investigative possibilities have been exhausted, if two or more potential causes remain, the cause of the fire should be reported as _________. A) the most likely of the potential causes B) under investigation C) undetermined D) unreportable

C) undetermined

7. What is the usual location of the ignition source relative to the point of origin? A) Anywhere in the fire-burned area B) At the opposite end of the flow path C) In direct contact with the point of origin D) At or near the point of origin

D) At or near the point of origin

8. What does “transmission” mean in the context of a competent ignition source? A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation B) Sufficient heat energy being transmitted from the point of origin to the first exposure C) Actions made in preparation for the creation of the ignition source D) The act of changing a human intention into a physical fact of action

A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation

9. What is the fire investigator’s primary responsibility when conducting a fire investigation? A) Develop a properly documented case. B) Determine the point of origin. C) Determine the identity of the arsonist. D) Complete the NFIRS documentation.

A) Develop a properly documented case.

``` 10. Who is responsible for preventing the contamination of evidence? A) Fire investigator B) Law enforcement C) Fire crews on the scene D) Homeowners ```

C) Fire crews on the scene

IFSTA 6Th edition 1. Chapter 9, states the priorities of a primary search are; A) Most severely threatened, least severely threatened, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures. B) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, other of hazard zones, and exposures C) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures. D) None of the above

C) Most severely threatened, largest number of victims, remainder of hazard zone, and exposures.

2. Chapter 5 lists and explains the following backdraft indicators; A) Building, Smoke, Exposures, Flames, and Surfaces. B) Smoke, Air Flow, Weather, Exposures, and Volume. C) Fuel Load, Air Flow, Heat, Structure, and Volume. D) Building, Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, and Flame.

D) Building, Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, and Flame.

3. Chapter 4, Building Construction - When considering the potential for structural collapse factors such as renovations, additions, alterations, age of the structure, weather and loads are all factors. Other factors include; A) Construction type, initial fire conditions, stage of fire, open trusses, and amount of water used. B) If the building is being renovated or demolished, if there are breached walls, and the contents. C) Initial fire tactics and type of extinguishment used. D) Construction type, length of time fire burns, stage of the fire, contents, and amount of water used to extinguish the fire.

D) Construction type, length of time fire burns, stage of the fire, contents, and amount of water used to extinguish the fire.

4. Chapter 1, Orientation and Fire Service History, states that responsibilities of a District/BattalionChiefs: A) Supervise a fire company in the station and at fires and other emergencies. They may also supervise a group of fire companies within their response area. B) Supervise a group of fire companies and stations. They may also manage units responsible for logistics, fire prevention, training planning or other functions. C) Supervise a group of fire companies, logistics units, or other functions. D) None of the above.

B) Supervise a group of fire companies and stations. They may also manage units responsible for logistics, fire prevention, training planning or other functions.

IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, staffing assignments must be based on each individual’s ability to: A) Work overtime or work different jobs B) Perform any jobs that are short-staffed C) Cross-train within all departments in the organization D) Perform the job so that resources are utilized in an effective manner

D) Perform the job so that resources are utilized in an effective manner

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, staffing/duty assignments can be affected by: A) Policies implemented in nearby jurisdictions B) Policies in the labour/management agreement C) The need to keep a prominent presence in the community D) The need to compete with other organizations for personnel

B) Policies in the labour/management agreement

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a benefit of rotating personnel between different stations? A) Eliminates interdepartmental rivalries B) Eliminates or minimizes employee burnout C) Allows the organization to hire fewer personnel D) Requires the organization to purchase less equipment

B) Eliminates or minimizes employee burnout

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the organization’s expectations regarding controlled substances and alcohol should be: A) Highlighted in the job position postings B) Defined in the employee benefits package C) Assumed because of the nature of the job D) Provided in writing to the employee during new employee orientation

D) Provided in writing to the employee during new employee orientation

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what term refers to process of determining the duties of a specific position and the qualifications needed to fill the position? A) Job analysis B) Needs analysis C) Benefits analysis D) Resource analysis

A) Job analysis

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is enhanced when members feel that they are creating opportunities for themselves by participating in the organization? A) Diversity B) Turnover C) Retention D) Competition

C) Retention

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is an example of a question that would be used during a behavioural interview? A) Why do you want to be a volunteer firefighter? B) What are typical duties that a firefighter performs? C) Describe a stressful situation and how you handled it. D) Do you have an emergency medical technician certificate?

C) Describe a stressful situation and how you handled it.

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, promotional examinations should be carefully constructed to eliminate bias in order to: A) Facilitate a faster process B) Reduce the potential of legal issues C) Decrease the potential applicant pool D) Reduce the amount of time needed to take the test

B) Reduce the potential of legal issues

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a purpose of an occupational safety and health committee? A) Develop the health and safety program B) Implement the health and safety program C) Study and review safety and health matters D) Discipline employees for violating health and safety rules

C) Study and review safety and health matters

``` According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a core requirement of a health and safety program? A) Incentive plans B) Infection control procedures C) Individual needs assessments D) Contract physical fitness trainers ```

B) Infection control procedures

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the accepted approach for a hearing conservation plan is to protect members from exposure to noises equal to or exceeding _________ over an eight-hour Time Weighted Average. A) 60 dB B) 85 dB C) 95 dB D) 120 dB

B) 85 dB

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a public fire and life safety education program should include a purpose and scope statement and that should be: A) Included in comprehensive-risk approach documentation B) Made available in teletypewriter telecommunication format C) Translated into every language spoken within the service’s region D) Included in an organization’s mission statement and strategic plan

D) Included in an organization’s mission statement and strategic plan

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the scope of an organization’s fire and life safety education programs should: A) Reflect the service area’s needs B) Mirror what was done in previous years C) Require minimum personnel to implement D) Be similar to surrounding jurisdiction’s programs

A) Reflect the service area’s needs

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a benefit to having members deliver public education programs within local response districts? A) Reduces the chances for language barriers B) Reduces the assumptions of risk by the organization C) Opportunity to recruit individuals to apply to the organization D) Opportunity to interact directly with people from local neighbourhoods

D) Opportunity to interact directly with people from local neighbourhoods

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when implementing a fire and life safety program it is important to maintain close relationships with community groups: A) To identify opportunities for public education B) So that funding for programs can be justified C) So that data for analysis can be easily collected D) To identify individuals who have broken fire and life safety codes

A) To identify opportunities for public education

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when dealing with residents who are angry or upset, chief officers should: A) Remain calm and in control B) Walk away from the individual C) Escort the individual out of the building D) Raise their voices and take a defensive posture

A) Remain calm and in control

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should be done when a complaint from the public is voiced during an emergency operation? A) The complaint should be ignored B) The complaint should be immediately addressed C) The resolution should wait until the incident is terminated D) Law enforcement should be brought in to deal with the complaint

C) The resolution should wait until the incident is terminated

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, all customer concerns or complaints should be resolved: A) Under the watch of law enforcement B) Under the supervision of legal counsel C) As thoroughly and as slowly as possible D) As reasonably and as quickly as possible

D) As reasonably and as quickly as possible

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, for the community risk reduction element of emergency response to be effective, it must be coupled with: A) Community fact-finding activities B) An informal organizational structure C) Other community risk reduction elements D) Economic disincentives for the organization

C) Other community risk reduction elements

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, inspections and code enforcement programs were created because of fires that resulted in: A) Negative publicity B) The need for mutual aid C) High life or property loss D) Increased insurance rates

C) High life or property loss

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when an organization has a mutual aid agreement, response: A) Is automatically dispatched to nearby incidents B) Is always legally required, regardless of circumstances C) May be generally delayed in order to determine whether it is truly needed D) May be optional if it will reduce the ability of an organization to protect their own community

D) May be optional if it will reduce the ability of an organization to protect their own community

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, during an automatic response, resources from participating jurisdictions are dispatched to: A) An agreed-upon staging area near the incident scene B) An undisclosed staging location within the jurisdiction C) A common area used for all automatic responses in the area D) An area half way between the incident scene and their assigned location

A) An agreed-upon staging area near the incident scene

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, joint training for major incidents involving multiple organizations or agencies is based on: A) Automatic aid agreements B) Change management concepts C) Incident Management Team concepts D) Occupational Health and Safety standards

C) Incident Management Team concepts

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is a step taken by the Incident Commander at an incident? A) Interview possible witnesses B) Identify the incident priorities C) Determine whether laws were broken D) Determine the budget constraints of the incident

B) Identify the incident priorities

``` According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which situation would require a written incident action plan? A) Haz Mat incident B) Small ground cover fire C) Single home residential fire D) Medical call for a heart attack ```

A) Haz Mat incident

``` According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the tactical worksheet is the basis for the development of a(an): A) Legal mandate B) Incident action plan C) Fire inspection program D) Fire and life safety program ```

B) Incident action plan

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, actions taken outside the incident action plan’s scope are referred to as freelancing and: A) May place responders in jeopardy B) Must be approved by two other responders C) Are sometimes necessary in incident response D) Can be taken only by senior, experienced responders

A) May place responders in jeopardy

``` According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the operational strengths and weaknesses of an incident response are determined by the: A) Reimbursement logs B) Post-incident analysis C) Number of casualties D) Reaction of the public ```

B) Post-incident analysis

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is one function of the post-incident analysis critique? A) Provide the public with justification for the organization’s actions B) Allow company and chief officers to display their leadership roles C) Review the quality of customer service provided during the incident D) Determine which participating personnel should be punished for negative actions

C) Review the quality of customer service provided during the incident

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, developing plans and strategies using an all-hazard approach ensures that: A) Capabilities exist to handle any emergency B) Each individual responder is cross-trained to handle any response C) The public is aware of the capabilities and limitations of responders D) Mutual aid partners will be involved in every emergency incident in the jurisdiction

A) Capabilities exist to handle any emergency

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, one reason that an all-hazards approach to emergency management is important is that: A) An all-inclusive list of disasters can never be completely complied B) An all-inclusive list of disasters needs to cover every possible situation C) Public and private emergency management entities treat disasters differently D) Reimbursement for disaster response depends in part on the all-hazards preplanning

A) An all-inclusive list of disasters can never be completely complied

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, emergency management activities are broken into four phases that: A) Are distinct and do not overlap with one another B) Often overlap and run concurrently with one another C) Have to be completed within an allotted amount of time D) Can be divided into eight operational response elements

B) Often overlap and run concurrently with one another

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what emergency management phase is a continuous process involving efforts to identify threats and consequences before an emergency? A) Recovery B) Response C) Mitigation D) Preparedness

D) Preparedness

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why is it critical that resources are deployed within a structured response model? A) To ensure that there are duplicates of all resources deployed B) To help the public know who to trust in an emergency situation C) To make quantifying response reimbursement easier for mutual aid organizations D) To avoid the convergence of unrequested resources to a large-scale emergency scene

D) To avoid the convergence of unrequested resources to a large-scale emergency scene

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, emergency services organizations should create relationships with outside agencies before an incident occurs to ensure that: A) Liability is addressed and specific personnel are available B) Capabilities are understood and proper request channels are followed C) Resources and roles are duplicated during an actual emergency response D) Non-disclosure agreements are signed and background checks performed

B) Capabilities are understood and proper request channels are followed

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, one of the primary determining factors in a successful response and recovery to a disaster or large-scale incident is: A) An excessive budget B) Pre-incident planning C) Redundant resources D) Establishing multiple command structures

B) Pre-incident planning

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what facilities must an emergency operations centre provide to on-scene personnel regardless of the length of the incident? A) Rest and relief areas B) Family readiness centres C) Public media staging areas D) At least five operational zones

A) Rest and relief areas

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should be a chief officer’s final goal in workplace diversity/inclusion programs? A) Eliminate any workplace conflicts so that all employees are satisfied B) Create a workplace demographic that mirrors national demographics C) Create a work environment that appreciates and respects diversity of all organizational members D) Reduce the likelihood of the organization becoming involved in civil litigation regarding employment

C) Create a work environment that appreciates and respects diversity of all organizational members

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, an inclusive and diverse workforce improves organizational functioning by increasing the: A) Tax dollars from minority communities B) Overall staffing levels of the organization C) Perspectives available for problem solving D) Number of individuals from the prominent dominant demographic group

C) Perspectives available for problem solving

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, succession planning should be developed in conjunction with: A) Pre-incident plans and operational budgets B) Annual evaluation and departmental reorganization plans C) Professional development and continuing education plans D) Community development and fire and life safety education plans

C) Professional development and continuing education plans

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, succession planning maintains employee morale and retention because employees: A) Can see a clearly defined career path B) Do not have to plan their career path C) Can be assured of further promotions D) Are aware of the career paths of co-workers

A) Can see a clearly defined career path

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when determining organizational needs, the goal should be for all responders to be trained: A) To the minimum standards B) Well above local AHJ (agency having jurisdiction) standards C) Well above the minimum standards D) To at least 90% of the minimum standards

C) Well above the minimum standards

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, if a lack of education is noticed among personnel who are likely candidates for advancement, the organization should: A) Identify and coach individuals to establish educational goals B) Remove the individuals from being a candidate for advancement C) Place those candidates at the bottom of the list for advancement D) Promote those candidates with the understanding that they will receive further education

A) Identify and coach individuals to establish educational goals

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, training delivered in an electronic format enables personnel to: A) Complete training with a minimum of effort B) Earn overtime pay while completing training C) Complete training during downtime at the station D) Utilize techniques learned during an on-going incident

C) Complete training during downtime at the station

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, an organization’s behavioural health program should include a stress crisis intervention team to provide the necessary support for the affected member after incidents involving: A) Mass casualties B) Long work shifts C) Community outreach D) Unified command structures

A) Mass casualties

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, member assistance programs are developed to provide tools to cope with: A) Issues that directly deal with the organization and its members B) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members and their families C) Job searches and interviews when members voluntarily leave the organization D) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members employed more than one year

B) The stress of working in a high-risk profession to members and their families

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, peer-support programs have become a fire and emergency services best practice in response to: A) Decreasing responder retention rates B) The increasing rate of responder suicide C) The risk of responder on-scene fatalities D) Responders failing to meet national training standards

B) The increasing rate of responder suicide

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what should a chief officer do when a member shows signs of stress or other emotional problems? A) Place the member on unpaid leave B) Recommend use of the member assistance program C) Report the member’s issues to others in the organization D) Wait and see if the member can resolve issues on their own

B) Recommend use of the member assistance program

``` According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which term refers to ‘any arrangement of materials that presents the potential for harm’? A) Risk B) Hazard C) Danger D) Liability ```

B) Hazard

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which term refers to ‘a measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects that result from an exposure to a hazard’? A) Risk B) Hazard C) Danger D) Liability

A) Risk

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when identifying risks, the chief officer should compile a list of the organization’s emergency and nonemergency operations and duties that includes the: A) Best possible conditions or events B) Worst possible conditions or potential events C) Conditions or events that have previously occurred D) Conditions or events that garner provincial or national attention

B) Worst possible conditions or potential events

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what aspect of risk evaluation can be measured by lost time away from work and the cost of damage? A) Liability B) Severity C) Frequency D) Cost/benefit

B) Severity

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when prioritizing risks, which risks would be high priority items deserving immediate action? A) Risks with low probability of occurrence and serious consequences B) Risks with high probability of occurrence and serious consequences C) Risks with low probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences D) Risks with high probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences

C) Risks with low probability of occurrence and non-serious consequences

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when prioritizing risks, which risks can be placed near the bottom of the action-required list? A) Serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence B) Serious incidents with high likelihood of occurrence C) Non-serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence D) Non-serious incidents with high likelihood of occurrence

C) Non-serious incidents with low likelihood of occurrence

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which risk control technique does not eliminate risk, but reduces the likelihood of occurrence and the severity? A) Risk transfer B) Risk avoidance C) Control measures D) Intermittent measures

C) Control measures

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the intent of a risk management plan is to develop a: A) Strategy for reducing inherent risks associated with operations B) Strategy for reducing community dissatisfaction with operations C) Method to eliminate the majority of risks associated with operations D) Method to eliminate the majority of hazards associated with operations

A) Strategy for reducing inherent risks associated with operations

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, in which phase of risk management plan implementation are the actual results of a risk management plan compared to its desired results? A) Revision B) Creation C) Evaluation D) Monitoring

D) Monitoring

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what would indicate that the risk management plan is effective? A) No change or increase in the number of injuries B) Reduction in medical leave taken or lost-time injuries C) Decrease in costs of other activities in the department D) Increase in the use of family and medical leave by employees

B) Reduction in medical leave taken or lost-time injuries

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, how can chief officers and public information officers create and maintain a positive image for the organization? A) Use social media to share positive safety messages B) Encourage members of the news media to tour every incident scene C) Ask operations personnel to conduct media briefings instead of chief officers or the PIO D) Donate money to political candidates who are most likely to support the organization’s mission

D) Donate money to political candidates who are most likely to support the organization’s mission

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, which is protocol for media operating at an emergency incident? A) Restrict photographers from taking potentially negative photos B) Provide all media personnel with personal protective equipment C) Stage or pose for media photographers to get good pictures of an incident D) Allow properly credentialed media personnel to witness and document an incident

D) Allow properly credentialed media personnel to witness and document an incident

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, police and fire officials can deny media personnel entrance to a crime scene or incident scene: A) To avoid any potential negative publicity B) Whenever they feel the incident is too gruesome C) To protect evidence that is being collected and processed D) Whenever they do not want to deal with media personnel

C) To protect evidence that is being collected and processed

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what type of information at an incident scene cannot be released to the media or the public? A) Patient’s gender or age B) Number of victims involved C) Patient’s medical conditions D) Names of the businesses involved

C) Patient’s medical conditions

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, how can social media be beneficial with regard to enhancing the organization’s public image? A) It provides an additional method for organization members to interact with the public B) Organization members can link their personal social media accounts so the public can befriend them C) Organization leaders can interact with political candidates and community leaders in a public, transparent manner D) It provides a place for members of the public to access fire department resources, such as copies of the organization’s SOPs

A) It provides an additional method for organization members to interact with the public

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, ‘Unified Command’ (UC) allows agencies to be a part of the UC without losing or giving up agency authority, responsibility, or accountability while: A) Establishing common incident objectives and strategies B) Maintaining individual agency incident objectives and strategies C) Assisting with the incident objectives and strategies of multiple agencies within the UC D) Establishing both individual agency and Unified Command incident objectives and strategies

A) Establishing common incident objectives and strategies

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, fire and emergency services organizations should establish relationships with provincial and local agencies and areas of apparent conflict should be: A) Avoided during interagency planning B) Resolved during interagency planning C) Addressed once they become an issue D) Resolved independently by the fire chief or agency lead

A) Avoided during interagency planning

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, in which type of incident would interagency contact between local and federal agencies occur? A) Terrorism event B) Localized wildfire C) Medical transport call D) Apartment complex fire

A) Terrorism event

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, if a governing body poses a question that a fire department liaison cannot answer, the liaison should: A) Admit the answer is not currently known B) Attempt to answer the question as best they can C) Deflect the question and answer another question D) Ask to rephrase the question into one they can answer

A) Admit the answer is not currently known

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, fire and emergency services community involvement means: A) Donating warm or unused equipment to community charities and organizations B) Being involved in the community as it directly relates to the organization’s mission statement C) Asking members to spend personal time, not organization time, being involved in the community D) Potentially being involved in the community in ways not directly related to the organization’s mission statement

D) Potentially being involved in the community in ways not directly related to the organization’s mission statement

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers should learn about the characteristics of the community they serve so they can develop culturally sensitive services and processes necessary to: A) Avoid potential litigation with community members B) Win local, provincial, and national awards for the organization C) Support delivery of effective fire prevention and emergency services D) Encourage community members to lobby politically for the organization

C) Support delivery of effective fire prevention and emergency services

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a long-term plan would include set goals in a specific area such as: A) Developing an inspection schedule for equipment and cross-training personnel in inspection duties B) Shifting hazardous responsibilities and pre-incident planning for high-value properties C) Purchasing real estate for future facilities, fulfilling staffing requirements, and response time benchmarks D) Creating a fixed schedule for electrical system inspections and assigning new personnel to the inspection department

C) Purchasing real estate for future facilities, fulfilling staffing requirements, and response time benchmarks

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers should have a plan prepared in case government mandates or adoption of NFPA standards require: A) A change in the labour / management agreement B) Personnel to retire due to change in maximum age limits C) A change in benefits that the organization offers to new hires D) The organization to hire or reassign personnel in order to meet minimum staffing levels

D) The organization to hire or reassign personnel in order to meet minimum staffing levels

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what process do fire officers use to make decisions on the fire ground about saving lives and property? A) Gap analysis B) Risk analysis C) Trends analysis D) Hazards analysis

B) Risk analysis

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why should training activities be publicized within an organization? A) To meet local and provincial legal requirements B) To recruit new members to the organization C) So that instructors can pick what courses they want to teach D) So that all personnel are aware of opportunities and training goals

) So that all personnel are aware of opportunities and training goals

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, why is input from incident commanders and supervisors important in program and course-level evaluations? A) They often determine the budgets of the programs B) They work with individuals who complete the programs C) They want to ensure their opinions are taken into account D) They are more political and can lobby for additional funding

B) They work with individuals who complete the programs

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, a hazard is a condition, substance, or device that: A) Can directly cause injury or loss B) Is indirectly related to injury or loss C) Increases the likelihood for failure or loss D) Always exists but is not necessarily dangerous

A) Can directly cause injury or loss

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, building codes, fire codes, and zoning restrictions can reduce the consequences of _______ hazards. A) Natural B) Secondary C) Behavioural D) Intentional

A) Natural

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the first step in determining occupancy related hazards is to: A) Survey residents in the community B) Survey the types of buildings in the community C) Analyze national trends in occupancy-related hazards D) Understand building codes, fire codes, and locally adopted amendments

C) Analyze national trends in occupancy-related hazards

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, when preparing an all-hazards plan for a disaster or hostile event” A) The plan should be approved by individuals in the fusion centre B) Potential hazards should be listed in order of perceived public importance C) Potential hazards should be identified by physical and geographic characteristics D) The plan should be approved by individuals in the emergency operations centre

C) Potential hazards should be identified by physical and geographic characteristics

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, NFPA 3000 provides guidance and planning resources for: A) Terrorism pre-incident planning B) Technological disaster planning C) Incidents involving suspected arson D) Major incidents involving active shooter situations

D) Major incidents involving active shooter situations

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, chief officers can refer to NFPA 3000 for: A) Requirements and planning resources for training facilities B) Operation and recovery procedures for natural and technological disasters C) Guidelines specific to a chief officer’s political and community involvement D) Preparedness, response, and recovery procedures that focus on contractual and mutual aid agreements for active shooter/hostile event response

D) Preparedness, response, and recovery procedures that focus on contractual and mutual aid agreements for active shooter/hostile event response

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is the primary focus of an emergency operations centre (EOC)? A) Rehabilitation services for log-term incidents B) Decontamination and staging for long-term incidents C) Multiagency coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities D) Intra-jurisdictional coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities

C) Multiagency coordination of information and resources to support incident management activities

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, what is one function of an emergency operations centre (EOC)? A) The EOC retains command of the incident so that no single agency is overtaxed B) A centralized communications system allows senior management to command widespread operations C) The EOC provides physical and personnel resources to major incidents, such as a strike team or task force D) A centralized rehabilitation area allows all responders to receive the same level of care and monitoring during the incident

B) A centralized communications system allows senior management to command widespread operations

According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, who determines when an incident can be declared terminated? A) First responding agency B) Agency having ultimate authority C) Any agency involved in the incident D) Agency with the most personnel at the incident

B) Agency having ultimate authority

``` According to IFSTA Chief Officer 4th Edition, the first objective for restoration of services after a disaster is the restoration of: A) Public utilities B) Transportation services C) Normal business activities D) Fire and emergency services ```

D) Fire and emergency services

``` Blue Card page 55 According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Organization B) Situation Evaluation C) Emergency Response D) Revise, Evaluation & Revision ```

C) Emergency Response

``` According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Accountability B) Emergency Response C) Deployment D) None of the Above ```

C) Deployment

``` According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Accountability B) Emergency Response C) Tactical Priorities D) None of the Above ```

D) None of the Above

``` According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Organization B) Accountability C) Tactical Priorities D) Both B and C are correct ```

A) Organization

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command? A) Tactical Priorities B) Assumption, Confirmation and Positioning C) Organization D) Both B and C are correct

D) Both B and C are correct

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are central command’s tactical priorities? A) Conserve property and the environment during and after operations B) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives C) Protect, remove, and provide care for endangered customers D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of central command’s tactical priorities? A) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident C) Stabilize the incident or problem D) Provide for responder safety and survival

B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident

According to the Blue Card program, the command procedure mobilzes and integrates efforts for on-scene firefighters with a central command presence. Which of the following statements is incorrect about centralized command? A) The command procedure provides a coordinated effort of all resources at the scene to gain control of the situation B) The command procedure ensures that strong, direct and visible command is established as early as possible C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP) D) The command procedure fixes responsibility on an individual to become the Incident Commander through a standard identification system

C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP)

According to the Blue Card program, effective Incident Organization (Function 6), fulfills all of the following except, A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing B) The Incident Commander controls where the firefighters are and what they are doing C) The Incident Commander has control over the position and function of all resources D) The Incident Commander builds an effective organization to decentralize the incident scene

A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing

According to the Blue Card program, in most situations the first arriving company officer will work in operate in which organizational levels? A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Task D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor? A) Life Hazard – determine what are the number and location of occupants, identify resources to conduct search and identify EMS needs B) Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources C) Occupancy – determine the specific occupancy and type. What is the value associated with the occupancy and what is its status; open, closed, vacant, occupied D) Arrangement – what is the distance of external exposures and the fire effect on those exposures, are there barriers or obstructions to operations

B) Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor? A) Special Circumstances – consider time of day, weekday or weekend. What are weather issues, if any. Identify if this a response for social or civil unrest B) Building – factors include the size, area and height of the building, construction type, age and compartment separation C) Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency D) Fire – factors include the size, extent and location, what stage is the fire in, what type of fire load is present

C) Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor? A) Action – what effect the current action is having, is an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP in place), is layering in place to support a 3-deep deployment model B) Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making C) Resources – factors include staffing and equipment on scene, or available in staging, condition of responders, hydrants and water supply, and built-in protection systems D) Occupancy – determine the specific occupancy and type. What is the value associated with the occupancy and what is its status; open, closed, vacant, occupied

B) Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making

According to the Blue Card program, the Incident Commander must always match Standard Conditions to Standard Actions for a ___________ ____________. A) Superior Result B) Standard Conclusion C) Standard Effect D) Standard Outcome

D) Standard Outcome

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. There are factors that are fixed (meaning you have no control over them) and others that are variable (which you can control). What are the three fixed factors? A) Life Safety, Action, Arrangement B) Building, Occupancy, Arrangement C) Fire, Life Safety, Resources D) Building, Occupancy, Fire

B) Building, Occupancy, Arrangement

According to the Blue Card program, your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report? A) Clear Alarm – Announce your arrival on scene B) Building Area Description C) Problem Description D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report? A) Initial IAP – Action plan being taken B) Declaration of the Strategy C) Assumption & Naming of Command D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report? A) Resource Determination B) Building Area Description C) Assumption & Naming of Command D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is correct? A) When a 200' (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 75% of the fire area/occupancy – it is MEDIUM C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is incorrect? A) When a 200’ (60m) line can access less than 25 percent (or less) of the fire area/occupancy – it is VERY LARGE B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE C) When a 200' (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL D) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE

B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE

According to the Blue Card program, floor assembly failure times for a FINISHED basement averaged more than the ____ minutes from ignition, while floor assembly failure time for an UNFINISHED basement averaged less than ___ minutes from ignition. (UL and NIST Study) A) 15 and 7 B) 20 and 10 C) 20 and 7 D) 15 and 10

C) 20 and 7

According to the Blue Card program, prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following: A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues B) Number of storeys from the Charlie side C) Basement type and conditions (if known) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following except: A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues B) Any other significant critical factors C) Hydrant location D) Incident problem(s) and location (if different from Initial Radio Report)

C) Hydrant location

According to the Blue Card program, assigning units to Operating Positions/Functions in the Hazard Zone using the “Assignment Model”. This means the Incident Commander should assign fireground jobs by providing ________, __________, and __________ to the crew company officer. A) Task, Location, Objective B) Task, Assignment, Objective C) Task, Location, Duration D) Assignment, Location, Objective

A) Task, Location, Objective

According to the Blue Card program, the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command. A) Size-up and verify that all operating positions match the current incident conditions B) Transmit that you have arrived on scene C) Contact IC#1 and verify the position and function of all hazard zone resources and get a CAN report D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command. A) Contact and confirm the command transfer with dispatch B) Announce that they will ‘Take it from here’ C) Announce the current strategy, make resource determination D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Conditions? A) Where you are B) Smoke conditions C) Fuel loads D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Condition? A) Interior visibility B) Search progress C) Fire conditions D) What is burning

B) Search progress

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Actions? A) Search progress B) Fire-control progress C) All-clear D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be an Action? A) Loss stopped B) Interior layout C) Can’t find the fire D) Checking for extension

B) Interior layout

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Needs? A) Tools of equipment B) Reinforcement C) Support work (ventilation, forcible entry) D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Need? A) Heat conditions B) Relief/Rehabilitation C) Air cylinder exchange D) Urgent help

A) Heat conditions

According to the Blue Card program, which is the correct way to label this example below? A) North (i), South (iii), East (iv), West (ii) B) North (iii), South (i), East (ii), West (iv) C) Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv) D) Counter-clockwise: Alpha (i) , Bravo (iv), Charlie (iii), Delta (ii)

C) Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv)

According to the Blue Card program, you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be: A) Alpha-Bravo corner B) Charlie-Delta corner C) Alpha-Delta corner D) Bravo-Charlie corner

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

B) Charlie-Delta corner

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

C) Alpha-Delta corner

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, products of combustion travel upward toward the top of a building. If fire does not generate enough heat to cause the smoke to rise to the top of the building, the temperature of the smoke will eventually equal that of the surrounding air. When this equalization of temperature occurs, the smoke loses its buoyancy, ceases to rise, and forms layers of smoke within the building. This is known as: A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

B) Stratification

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the natural vertical movement of heat and smoke (convection) in tall structures is known as _______________. This occurs because of differences in the density of the air inside and outside of these buildings (due to temperature differences inside and outside the structure). The greater the difference between the inside and outside temperature and the greater the building height, the greater the effect will be. A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

A) Stack effect

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, when heat, smoke, and other products of combustion rise until they encounter a horizontal obstruction, they will spread laterally until they encounter a vertical obstruction, then bank downward. This is known as __________________. A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the construction of high-rise apartment buildings helps protect adjoining apartments and common halls, but provides an extremely hot environment for firefighters. Fires in tightly sealed high-rise compartments may become ventilation controlled and flash over when a window fails or when firefighters open a door to make entry to a fire room. This is known as ______________. A) Stack effect B) Stratification C) Heat intensity and compartmentation D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

C) Heat intensity and compartmentation

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, there are several other variables that involve wind, which of the following is not a relevant variable? A) Height and shape of the structure B) Barometric pressure C) Wind speed D) Wind direction

B) Barometric pressure

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters must remember that steel structural members elongate when heated. A 50-foot (15 m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches (____ mm) when heated to a room temperature of about 1,000°F (538° C). A) 2 inches, 50 mm B) 4 inches, 100 mm C) 6 inches, 150 mm D) 10 inches, 255 mm

B) 4 inches, 100 mm

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following about wind driven fires is incorrect? A) Wind velocity may be negligible at ground level but reach significant force at upper levels, so firefighters cannot base tactical decisions on fire conditions that may occur many stories below the emergency floor B) This effect is triggered when a door is left ajar and a window suddenly breaks under intense heat and a blast of wind C) The instant combination of fire and wind can blast fireballs across rooms and down corridors without warning, In these situations, tremendous volumes of fire and high heat conditions can quickly consume compartmented occupancies and advance into public hallways D) If windows in the fire area are intact, firefighters on attack lines do not need to maintain coordination with those tasked with ventilation from the floor above the fire or adjacent compartmented areas

D) If windows in the fire area are intact, firefighters on attack lines do not need to maintain coordination with those tasked with ventilation from the floor above the fire or adjacent compartmented areas

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in a report published in 2009 by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), a number of full-scale experiments were conducted in a seven- story building in New York City. Which of the following were identified? A) Wind conditions need to be considered in size-up; wind speeds of 10 to 20 mph are high enough to create wind-driven effects in buildings with an uncontrolled flow path B) Controlling doors is a basic yet effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building. Care should be taken when opening stairwell doors leading to the fire floor. If after opening the door a few inches there are rapid changes in the volume or velocity of the smoke in the hallway, the door should quickly be closed C) Positive-pressure ventilation fans always improved stairwell conditions, but were not able to reverse the direction of wind-driven fires. Positive-pressure ventilation was successful when used in conjunction with controlling doors, window control devices, and nozzles operated from the floor below the fire D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in a report published in 2009 by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), a number of full-scale experiments were conducted in a seven- story building in New York City. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) In other tests, water was applied externally from either below or outside the fire room window. In all cases, application of water suppressed enough fire in the room to reduce corridor and stairwell temperatures by at least 50 percent B) Controlling doors is not effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building C) Wind conditions need to be considered in size-up; wind speeds of 10 to 20 mph are high enough to create wind-driven effects in buildings with an uncontrolled flow path D) Positive-pressure ventilation fans always improved stairwell conditions, but were not able to reverse the direction of wind-driven fires. Positive-pressure ventilation was successful when used in conjunction with controlling doors, window control devices, and nozzles operated from the floor below the fire

B) Controlling doors is not effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, standpipe systems are divided into three classes based on NFPA 14, Standard for the Installation of Standpipes and Hose Systems. Which of the three classes are designed only for fire department personnel or other trained personnel? A) Class I B) Class II C) Class III D) All of the above

A) Class I

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, a full evacuation of a high-rise structure may be deemed necessary, but it will be a labour-intensive and lengthy effort. Which of the following is not a best practice when fully evacuating a high rise? A) Designate fire attack stairwells and evacuation stairwells B) Establish a Rapid Ascent Team C) Use the emergency voice communication system to direct residents out D) Create refuge stops on specific floors to allow evacuees to rest

D) Create refuge stops on specific floors to allow evacuees to rest

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, there are many problems to contend with during the evacuation of a high-rise building. Which of the following cause significant problems with evacuation? A) Locking exit doors B) Counterflow C) Stairway exit capacity D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in other special high-rise occupancies, a person’s ability to evacuate may be hindered by age or medical condition. In hospital and nursing facilities, ___________________ procedures are generally used for patients who are nonambulatory. A) Limited/Partial evacuation B) Shelter in place C) Full evacuation D) None of the above

B) Shelter in place

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, a strategic priority during high-rise operations will be gaining access to and monitoring building systems. Which of the following is a building system firefighters should control? A) HVAC systems B) Communications systems C) Elevators D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the primary responsibility of the first-arriving company is to locate and identify the emergency and determine its scope. The first arriving fire unit must address the following except: A) Make a rapid initial size-up of readily visible conditions B) Utilize the Voice Communication System to update residents C) Confirm verbal occupant reports and information from the Fire Alarm Control Panel (FACP) D) Assume command and request any immediately needed resources

B) Utilize the Voice Communication System to update residents

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, for effective command, control, and relief of operating forces, it is essential that an IC be stationed at ground level. Some departments prefer a position on the exterior 200 feet (60 m) from the building. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the IC? A) Establish command organizations B) Develop preliminary strategy C) Use the Voice Communication System to update residents D) Determine the level of resources needed to implement strategy

C) Use the Voice Communication System to update residents

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters have been injured or even killed as a result of misuse of elevators during a fire. Which of the following is not a safety consideration for using elevators at a high-rise call? A) Only consider using elevators if the fire is above the 3rd floor B) Do not use an elevator to travel to the fire floor. Stay at least two floors below the fire floor or according to department policy C) Never use an elevator that has been exposed to water. Do not squeegee water into the elevator shaft D) Do not overload cars; allow no more than six firefighters per car

A) Only consider using elevators if the fire is above the 3rd floor

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters have been injured or even killed as a result of misuse of elevators during a fire. Which of the following is not a safety consideration for using elevators at a high-rise call? A) Never take an elevator below ground level B) Maintain the ability to communicate by radio or other means at all times C) Use elevators for occupant evacuation as soon as possible, even if fire is not under control D) Be certain that the IC knows which unit’s are entering an elevator and the car in which they enter

C) Use elevators for occupant evacuation as soon as possible, even if fire is not under control

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following about wind-driven fires in high-rises is correct? A) The overwhelming majority of civilian fatalities in high-rise residential occupancies occur when fire spreads beyond the room of origin B) Wind-driven fire conditions are unique to the top floors of high-rise buildings C) Where the door to the fire room is open and a stairwell door is also open, a flow path may be created that pulls intense heat and fire into the corridor D) Wind-driven fires can hasten fire spread, quickly changing a room and contents fire into a ‘blowtorch’ of fire extending from the room of origin into a common corridor or stairwell with an open door

B) Wind-driven fire conditions are unique to the top floors of high-rise buildings

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following is correct about breaking glass at a high-rise fire? A) Breaking glass in high rise buildings can be a danger to firefighters inside the structure as well as firefighters and bystanders at ground level B) Glass falling from a high-rise may land approximately 200 feet (66m) from the base of the building C) After the window is broken, the area in front of the window (not the opening itself) should be blocked with a desk or chair to prevent firefighters from approaching the dangerous opening D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the situational report given periodically as needed throughout the incident to update Incident Command is known as a __________ report. A) C.A.N. – Conditions, Actions, and Needs B) Status update C) Priority radio traffic D) P.A.N. – Position, Activities, and Needs

A) C.A.N. – Conditions, Actions, and Needs

``` According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, use of plain English in radio communications transmissions. No 10-codes or agency specific codes are used when using this language: A) Formal communication B) Clear text C) Informal communication D) Downward communication ```

B) Clear text

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, smoke leaving the structure has four key attributes, they are: A) Amount, Rate, Direction, and Colour B) Volume, Velocity, Density and Colour C) Volume, Velocity, Direction, and Colour D) Amount, Rate, Direction, and Intensity

B) Volume, Velocity, Density and Colour

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, _______ _________ defines materials that aren’t necessarily burning, but are chemically degraded by heat. A) Incomplete combustion B) Off-gassing C) Off-aggregating D) Pyrolytic decomposition

D) Pyrolytic decomposition

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: yellowish-gray smoke emitting from cracks and seams with bowing blackstained windows along with sucking and puffing from the cracks and seams would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

C) Backdraft

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: increase in smoke speed, ghosting, laminar flow of smoke that is becoming turbulent and smoke flowing from hallways and stairways faster than a firefighter can move would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Flame-over C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

B) Flame-over

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: smoke that is being trapped in a separate space above the fire, signs of growing fire and signs of smoke starting to pressurize would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Flame-over C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

D) Smoke explosion

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: dense smoke that appears to have totally filled a building (floor to ceiling), smoke that rapidly speeds up when an exterior door is opened, and exhaust flow paths that intermittently puff or try to suck air would indicate: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

B) Explosive growth phase

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile warning event signs that include: turbulent smoke flow that has filled a compartment, vent-point ignition and a rapid change in smoke volume and velocity (getting worse in seconds) would indicate a: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Smoke explosion

A) Flashover

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ____________ occurs when smoke reaches sustaining temperatures that are above the fire point of prevalent gases. The gases can suddenly ignite when touched by an additional spark or flame. Fire spread changes from flame contact across content surfaces to fire spread through the smoke. This hostile event is known as a: A) Flashover B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

C) Flame-over

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ___________ occurs when oxygen is introduced into a closed, pressurized space where fire products are above their ignition temperature. This hostile event is known as a: A) Flashover B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

B) Backdraft

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ____________ occurs when a spark or flame is introduced into trapped smoke that is below its ignition temperature but above its flashpoint. This hostile event is known as a: A) Explosive growth phase B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

D) Smoke explosion

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, _____________ occurs when air is introduced to a ventilation-limited fire. It can include smoke flame-over in flow paths and flashover of individual rooms that are heat saturated. This hostile event is known as: A) Explosive growth phase B) Backdraft C) Flame-over D) Smoke explosion

A) Explosive growth phase

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, occurs when radiant heat reflected within a room or space. All surfaces reach their ignition temperature at virtually the same time due to rapid heat buildup in the space. This hostile event is known as: A) Flashover B) Explosive growth phase C) Backdraft D) Flame-over

A) Flashover

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect? A) The thicker the smoke, the more explosive it is B) Faster smoke is further from the seat of the fire C) Fire that emits very little visible smoke is hot, well ventilated and clean-burning D) Black smoke indicates hot smoke, regardless of material involved

B) Faster smoke is further from the seat of the fire

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect? A) Thick black smoke in a compartment reduces the chance of life sustainability B) Smoke can either be turbulent or laminar C) Smoke cannot be used to help find the location of the fire in a building D) Smoke follows the path of least resistance

C) Smoke cannot be used to help find the location of the fire in a building

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, you are on-scene and notice brown smoke emanating from the structure. What does this indicate to you? A) Early heating or ‘filtered’ smoke B) Warning sign of impending collapse in lightweight wood buildings C) Warning sign of impending Backdraft D) A proper air mixture has been achieved for a smoke explosion

B) Warning sign of impending collapse in lightweight wood buildings

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, low-volume white smoke from more than one location of a large building would indicate: A) Sulfur compounds, a warning sign of impending backdraft B) Working fire deep within C) Warning sign of impending flashover D) Flame-pushed smoke, fire nearby that is well ventilated

B) Working fire deep within

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, thin, black, fast smoke would indicate: A) Warning sign of impending flashover B) Heat-pushed smoke that has traveled a distance or has had the carbon/hydrocarbon filtered C) Flame-pushed smoke; fire nearby that is well ventilated D) Unfinished wood reaching late heating

C) Flame-pushed smoke; fire nearby that is well ventilated

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, you are on-scene and notice brown smoke emanating from the structure. What does this indicate to you? A) A proper air mixture has been achieved for a smoke explosion B) Early heating or ‘filtered’ smoke C) Warning sign of impending backdraft D) Usually a sign that a contents fire is transitioning into a structure fire

D) Usually a sign that a contents fire is transitioning into a structure fire

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, dirty white smoke with velocity would indicate: A) Warning sign of impending flashover B) Heat-pushed smoke that has traveled a distance or has had the carbon/hydrocarbon filtered C) Flame-pushed smoke; fire nearby that is well ventilated D) Unfinished wood reaching late heating

B) Heat-pushed smoke that has traveled a distance or has had the carbon/hydrocarbon filtered

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect? A) Smoke that is getting faster (and turbulent), thicker, and darker is a sign that things are getting worse B) No firefighters should be in black fire; they should immediately cool and withdraw C) Colour can be filtered by distance or resistance, so rely on velocity for the true heat story D) Turbulent smoke that fills a compartment is a warning sign of a smoke explosion

D) Turbulent smoke that fills a compartment is a warning sign of a smoke explosion

``` According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type I building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame ```

C) Fire Resistive

``` According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type III building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame ```

A) Ordinary

``` According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type II building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame ```

B) Noncombustible

``` According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, Type V building types are known as: A) Ordinary B) Noncombustible C) Fire Resistive D) Wood frame ```

D) Wood frame

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, determining whether a fire is a ‘contents’ or ‘structure’ fire is imperative. Which of the following fires would not be considered a content fire that could become ‘structural’? A) A content fire in unfinished basement B) Fire in concealed spaces C) A mattress fire in a bedroom D) Attic fire

C) A mattress fire in a bedroom

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, what truism is incorrect when determining evaluating time before a structure will collapse? A) Age deterioration or the lack of care and maintenance will not influence collapse B) The lighter the structural elements, or heavier the imposed load, the faster the structure comes down C) Brown or dark smoke coming from lightweight engineered wood products means that time is up D) Wet (cooled) steel buys time

A) Age deterioration or the lack of care and maintenance will not influence collapse

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following is not a sign or indicator of potential collapse? A) Bulges and bowing of walls, sagging floors and roofs B) Significant kitchen fire with no extension C) Large volumes of fire impinging on structural components D) Deterioration and cracks of mortar joints and masonry

B) Significant kitchen fire with no extension

According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, when establishing a collapse zone, the rule is to create a zone that is ____ to _____ times the height of the structure. A) 1 to 2 times the height of the structure B) 1.5 to 2 times the height of the structure C) 1.5 to 3 times the height of the structure D) 2 to 3 times the height of the structure

C) 1.5 to 3 times the height of the structure

top of page 86 Training Bulletins, Memos & Index Files (74 Questions) According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C): A) 2 inches (50.8 mm) B) 4 inches (102 mm) C) 8 inches (203.2 mm) D) 11 inches (279.4 mm)

B) 4 inches (102 mm)

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, the temperature at which a steel member will depend on many variables. Which of the following is NOT one of those variables: A) Size B) Load C) Composition D) Age

D) Age

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse: A. Immediately evacuate personnel within the building B. Set up a collapse zone around the building perimeter C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone D. Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the collapse zone

C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, under the heading Best Practices, notes are to be completed as events occur, or at the first available opportunity. What is the time frame that notes should be completed within? A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 2 days D) 1 week

B) 24 hours

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT an advantage of good note taking? A) Thorough notes make your evidence more credible B) Cover against civil liability C) Shows a commitment to quality work D) Less likely to be subjected to prolonged cross examination

C) Shows a commitment to quality work

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of poor note taking? A) May require you to rewrite your notes B) Without notes our memories tend fail. It can be embarrassing when court trials are not called until months and years after the even C) May have to concede under cross examination that recollection may not be as accurate D) A lack of notes is usually an indicator for the defense to conduct a tenacious cross examination

A) May require you to rewrite your notes

top of page 88 According to Memo 2017 – AP – 110, all personnel will rotate the use of their Bunker Gear: A) On a monthly cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM B) On a biannual cycle in conjunction with deep clean and inspection by an outside contractor and logged into FDM C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM D) On a “as needed” cycle and logged into FDM

C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM

According to Memo 2020 – AP – 647 - Daily Absence Report, the daily entries for absences entered into FDM: A) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered into the system by 1000 hours B) By the station Officers and must be entered into the system by 1100 hours C) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered into the system by 1100 hours D) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered prior to the end of the shift

C) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered into the system by 1100 hours

``` According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, what is the passcode for all the tablets: A) 123654 B) Passcode C) H@mi1t0n D) Summer2012 ```

A) 123654

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, Who will be held accountable for the tablets while in service in the stations? A) 6.1 Senior Chiefs and Safety Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer. C) 6.1 Training Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer. D) 6.1 All firefighters will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

According to Training Bulletin #271 – “Cold Environments – Working in the Cold”, which temperature range is considered a Moderate risk in wind chill conditions (Table 2)? A) 0 to – 9 degrees Celsius B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius C) – 28 to – 39 degrees Celsius D) – 40 to – 47 degrees Celsius

B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius

According to Memo 2018-AP-157, Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (WSIB)Injury/Exposure Reporting Checklist, it is imperative that all personnel make themselves familiar with the procedures, the completion the Parklane Report is the responsibility of: A) The highest-ranking officer on scene B) The individual leading the Training session C) The Workplace Supervisor D) The Station Captain

C) The Workplace Supervisor

According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include: A) Always keep the hose directly behind the monitor for approximately 10 feet B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor C) Always tie off the monitor D) Keep personnel out of the potential path of a moving/sliding monitor

B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor

Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction: A) The core of this building contains the necessary pipes and ducts for all building services B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire. C) Water, electrical wires, cables, fuel lines etc. along with air supply and exhaust/return ducts are all located within the core D) All means of vertical travel are located within the core as well

B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.

According to Memorandum 2021-AP-523 – Deployment of Rescue 42 Vehicle Stabilization kits: A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization B) Z-mag stabilization equipment will remain on apparatus along with Rescue 42 equipment C) If both Z-Mags and Rescue 42 equipment are available, Z-Mags will be the preferred stabilization device D) If first arriving apparatus on-scene only have Z-Mags, crews shall delay extrication efforts to wait for Rescue 42 stabilization equipment to arrive

A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization

According to HFDNET - High Rise Construction, the description of “Stratification of Smoke” in high-rise buildings does not include: A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential B) The creation of layers of smoke and fire gases on floors below the top floor of sealed multi-story buildings is a relatively new phenomenon. C) Since no normal leakage occurs, all of the smoke and fire gases produced will accumulate at various levels until the building is ventilated. D) The products of combustion rise through any vertical opening until their temperature is reduced to the temperature of the surrounding air. When this occurs, smoke and fire gases form layers or clouds within the building

A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential

According to Memo 2019-AP-608 - High Flow Rate Nozzle Deployment, the correct nozzle pressure and flow for HFD Akron Assault 38mm and 65mm nozzles is: A) 350 KPa delivering 550 Lpm and 1050 Lpm respectively B) 350 KPa delivering 570 Lpm and 970 Lpm respectively C) 700 KPa delivering 500 Lpm and 1475 Lpm respectively D) 570 KPa delivering 350 Lpm and 700 Lpm respectively

B) 350 KPa delivering 570 Lpm and 970 Lpm respectively

``` According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone? A) 200ft x 200ft B) 500ft x 500ft C) 150ft x 150ft D) 1000ft x 1000ft ```

C) 150ft x 150ft

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, when on uneven ground, which side should you approach the helicopter from? A) Uphill side B) Downhill Side C) Side doesn’t matter as long as you cover your head D) None of the above

B) Downhill Side

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, which of the following is a false statement? A) Any hose line that has been laid out shall be charged prior to air ambulance arrival B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter C) Ensure that all vehicles remain 150 feet away from the landing zone D) Ensure that all personnel remain 200 feet clear of the on-ground helicopter

B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter

According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Visual Inspection of All Components, including the Facepiece, Regulator, Cylinder and Valve Assembly will be conducted _________. A) Daily B) Monthly C) Weekly D) Bi-Weekly

C) Weekly

According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Functional Test will be performed_________. A) Monthly B) Weekly C) Daily D) Only after use

A) Monthly

``` According to TB 262 Cylinder Tagging. Each cylinder has a colored zip tie secured around the neck of the cylinder. The colors represent_____________. A) Station Identification B) District Identification C) Apparatus Identification D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule ```

D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

``` According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a compliment of ______ temporary facepieces. A) 10 B) 12 C) 5 D) 8 ```

C) 5

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. If a facepiece is issued to replace a faulty or damaged one, what must be done with the issued replacement when the original personal issued is repaired and returned. A) The issued replacement is sent to stores B) The issued replacement is kept in station as a spare C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74 D) None of the above

C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74

According to TB 265 MSA G1 Facepiece and Regulator Cleaning and Disinfecting, what is the minimum recommended contact time for the Facepiece and Regulator using Confidence Plus 2. A) 20 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 60 seconds D) 45 seconds

B) 30 seconds

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO)? A) Turn the switches ON (Phase I and Phase II) B) Never leave the elevator car without the key (HOLD) C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator. D) If all goes wrong turn the Phase II switch OFF.

C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario? A) CSA (Canadian Standards Association) B) MOL (Ministry of Labor) C) TC (Transport Canada) D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, under what condition can an Aerial Ladder be lowered to rest upon a structure? A) High Winds B) Rescue Situation C) Under no circumstances D) Full Extension

C) Under no circumstances

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what appliance should be installed at the mouth of the Fire Location’s laneway, through which water will be supplied to the 100mm hose, feeding the attack or relay pump? A) Clappered Siamese Manifold B) 100 mm Adapter C) 150 mm Hard Suction D) Drafting Elbow

A) Clappered Siamese Manifold

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, how many portable water tanks will be set up in front of the Drafting Pump? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

C) 3

``` According to, Training Bulletin 14, PPV, where should the positive pressure fan be placed? A) 4’ to 6’ inside of the doorway B) In the doorway C) 10’ to 15’ outside of the doorway D) 4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway ```

D) 4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway

According to Training Bulletin 14, PPV, and the use of Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors it states? A) Not use Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors B) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans C) Open garage doors fully D) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 1 fan

B) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire? A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “fuel controlled” fire? A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

``` According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do NOT influence the smoke? A) Building size & compartments B) Weather C) Firefighting actions D) Time of day ```

D) Time of day

``` According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, the article states that SFD (Single Family Dwelling) fires accounted for ________ % of residential fires in 1994? A) 60 % B) 70 % C) 73 % D) 69 % ```

B) 70 %

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, which of the following is NOT considered a factor which can contribute to an attic fire? A) Defective wiring B) Defective chimneys C) Interior fire exposure D) Platform construction

D) Platform construction

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, window size, shape and location suggest room use. A small, narrow window between two larger windows usually indicates a __________ room? A) Bedroom B) Living room C) Bathroom D) Kitchen

C) Bathroom

Top of page 74 According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, for effective command, control, and relief of operating forces, it is essential that an IC be stationed at ground level. Some departments prefer a position on the exterior 200 feet (60 m) from the building. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the IC? A) Establish command organizations B) Develop preliminary strategy C) Use the Voice Communication System to update residents D) Determine the level of resources needed to implement strategy

C) Use the Voice Communication System to update residents

page 97 Hamilton Emergency Services – Fire Division – July 14 - 2011 – All Personnel Memo: 2011-AP221: Trade/Exchanges/Union Subs/ Overtime on the 24 hour Shift Schedule, states that “any twenty-four hour (24) period on duty must immediately be followed by a minimum of ____________________.” A) Twenty (20) hours off duty. B) Twenty-Four (24) hours off duty. C) Twelve (12) hours off duty. D) None of the above.

A) Twenty (20) hours off duty.

Hamilton Emergency Services – Fire Division – May 24, 2012 – All Personnel Memo: 2012-AP149, Training Bulletin #177 – Safety Bulletin Photovoltaic Systems concludes “the single most critical message of emergency response personnel ”: A) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems all their components as de-energized if disconnected from the site panel. B) Is to always consider the weight of the photovoltaic systems on construction components. C) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems and all their components as electrically energized when exposed to sunlight. D) Is always to have accurate knowledge of the type of photovoltaic system that has been on fire or impinged by fire

C) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems and all their components as electrically energized when exposed to sunlight.

Hamilton Fire Department – March 14, 2016, All Personnel Memorandum 2016-AP-094-01 REVISED Mobile Command Unit, states that the Command Unit may requested by ___________________. A) The Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief, or Assistant Deputy Chief. B) Incident Command, the Fire Chief, or the EOC (Emergency Operations Centre). C) Incident Command, a Platoon Chief, District Chief, or the Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief or Assistant Deputy Chief. D) A Platoon Chief, the Fire Chief, or Deputy Fire Chief.

C) Incident Command, a Platoon Chief, District Chief, or the Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief or Assistant Deputy Chief.

Training Bulletin 184 - Where are secondary means of Egress Flags to be attached when put onto ground ladders used for secondary means of Egress? A) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 5th or 6th rung B) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 1st rung C) Onto the tied off halyard D) On the tip of the ladder

A) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 5th or 6th rung

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Notebooks, which of the following acts or codes provides citizens with a right of access to records within the custody or control of all municipal public sector organizations, including Fire Departments: A) Fire Protection and Prevention Act B) Ontario Fire Code C) Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act D) Municipal Conflict of Interest Act

C) Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Notebooks, when an individual has filled a notebook, they shall contact their Senior Officer who will come and collect the full notebook and issue the replacement. Where is the completed notebook then sent to for it to be retained? A) Training Division B) Communications C) City Hall D) Fire Prevention Bureau

D) Fire Prevention Bureau

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Power Saws, when shall power saws be inspected by career suppression personnel? A) Monthly B) At the beginning of each shift and after each use C) Bi-weekly D) Every Sunday

B) At the beginning of each shift and after each use

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Power Saws, in emergency situations, all personnel within 10 m of an operating power saw shall follow the requirements listed below, EXCEPT: A) Be wearing eye protection including; i. Fire helmet face shield in the down position ii. Protective goggles B) Protect an area of at least a 10m radius from the work area C) Ensure unprotected personnel and bystanders keep a safe distance D) Distract the operator

D) Distract the operator

According to, P&P 0401.00, Apparatus Operations, when is it permissible to “short-jack” an Aerial Ladder? A) When an outrigger won’t go out, becomes stuck at a call B) In a rescue situation C) When in a narrow laneway or road D) Never, “short-jacking” is not to occur

D) Never, “short-jacking” is not to occur

According to, P&P 0406.00, Apparatus Operations, wheel blocks shall be in place when? A) Only when working at structure fires B) Whenever vehicles are parked or left unattended in a station or otherwise C) Only at the MATC D) Only when parked on steep grades

B) Whenever vehicles are parked or left unattended in a station or otherwise

``` According to, P&P 0612.01, Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal, who is responsible for requesting that the OFM respond? A) Fire Chief B) Incident Commander C) Captain D) Any Firefighter ```

B) Incident Commander

According to, P&P 0612.01, Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal, who is responsible for actually contacting the OFM, for them to respond? A) Communication Officer B) Captain C) District Chief D) Platoon Chief

A) Communication Officer

According to Policy #0214.00, what are the high and low temperature limitations that govern general outdoor training conditions for Hamilton Fire Department? A) Temperature and/or humidity are over 32 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are below -8 degrees Celsius B) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -12 degrees Celsius C) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -6 degrees Celsius D) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Fahrenheit or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -6 degrees Fahrenheit.

C) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -6 degrees Celsius

According to Policy #0214.00, what is the low temperature limitation that govern outdoor training conditions for Ice Rescue in the Hamilton Fire Department? A) Temperature and/or wind chill are below –12 degrees Celsius B) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –6 degrees Celsius C) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –12 degrees Fahrenheit D) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –12 degrees Celsius

D) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –12 degrees Celsius

According to, P&P 0648.00, Civil Unrest, Disturbances, Picket Lines and Public Demonstrations, which Rank and above may request Police for “IMMEDIATE” attendance to any incident for which police are required? A) Platoon Chief B) District Chief C) Captain D) Captain or other Personnel

D) Captain or other Personnel

``` According to, P&P 0633.00, Violent Situations, what is the “10 Code” to be used for “IMMEDIATE” Police assistance where the safety of personnel may be jeopardized if verbal discretion is not used? A) 10- 33 B) 10- 43 C) 10- 78 D) 10-88 ```

C) 10- 78

According the Operational Guideline regarding Safety Officer System on HFDnet, the incident safety function, every time the Hamilton Fire Department responds to an incident, begins with the first arriving unit, typically the company officer/IC as part pf the initial size up and continues until the incident is terminated. Guideline 5.05 states that the initial incident commander/incident safety officer (ie. initial company officer) shall consider the following tasks EXCEPT: A) Follow Hamilton Fire Department Policies that pertain to the incident B) Make use of the Incident Management System C) Choose not to take command D) Determine a strategy (Offensive or Defensive)

C) Choose not to take command

According the Operational Guideline regarding Safety Officer System on HFDnet, Guideline 4.0 states that the following responsibilities fall under the Authority of the Incident Safety Officer EXCEPT: A) At an emergency incident, the Incident Safety Officer shall be responsible for the overall management of the incident and for the safety of all members involved at the scene B) At an emergency incident where the activities are judged by the incident safety officer as posing an imminent threat to fire fighter safety, the incident safety officer shall have the authority to stop, alter, or suspend those activities C) The incident safety officer shall immediately inform the incident commander of any actions taken to correct imminent hazards at an emergency scene D) At an emergency incident where an incident safety officer identifies unsafe conditions, operations, or hazards that do not present an imminent threat to firefighters, the incident safety officer shall take appropriate action through the incident commander to mitigate or eliminate the unsafe condition, operation, or hazard

A) At an emergency incident, the Incident Safety Officer shall be responsible for the overall management of the incident and for the safety of all members involved at the scene

According to Policy 0507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities, Guideline 2.02 on HFDnet, the RIT Team shall announce benchmarks as they are achieved and call for assistance should they be unable to achieve the task. Which of the following is NOT one of those benchmarks: A) Low on air B) Deployed C) Firefighter Located D) Firefighter Outside

A) Low on air

According to Policy 0507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities, Guideline 6.01 on HFDnet, RIT personnel should perform the following tasks, EXCEPT: A) Assess the emergency scene perimeter 360 degrees of building noting apparatus placement, points of entry, alternate exit doors and windows B) Provide additional means of egress (laddering building) for personnel conducting operations who are operating above the ground floor C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible D) Illuminate entrances and exits using lights

C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible

HFD P & P 0301.00 – Incident Reporting, provides guidelines for the completion of incident reports. Which of the following guidelines is not included in P & P 0301.00: A) Upon return to the station, all Career and Volunteer Operations Officers, who responded on an apparatus or who were in charge of a crew on the fire ground shall complete the appropriate sections of the incident report within two (2) hours of their apparatus returning to the station. B) all officers are to complete their applicable incident report sections as directed in the HFD Fire Incident Reporting Manual C) Unless otherwise directed, all pending reports are to be completed by the Career Officers before they go off-duty. Should a call come in close to shift change, it is expected that the officer will complete the report and submit the associated overtime D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.

D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.

According to P & P 0618.00 – High-Rise Operations, describes rules for breaking of glass windows or doors on the exterior of high-rise buildings. Which of the following is correct: A) Do not break glass in high rise unless you have looked out the window or door to ensure no one will be struck by falling glass within a 30meter safety zone. B) Do not break glass in high rise until a charged hose line is in place to begin hydraulic ventilation. C) Do not break glass in high rise until your company officer has given a size-up report to Incident Command detailing smoke conditions. D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).

D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).

According to P & P 0618.00 - High-rise Operations identifies “Immediate Priorities” for first arriving units. Which of the following is not one of those priorities: A) Recalling and assuming control of the elevators. B) Assessing stairs, designating fire fighting/evacuation stairs. C) Establishing a Command and a Lobby Sector. Assessing lobby conditions, verifying actual fire and fire location(s). D) Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.

D) Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.

According to P & P 0214.00 (revised January 4, 2022), which of the following criteria is not a cause to cancel Inspections and or outdoor training: A) Temperature is equal to or over 30° Celsius B) Humidity is equal to or over 30° Celsius C) Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius D) Wind Chill is equal to or under -6° Celsius

C) Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius

According to P & P 0608.01 - Cellulose Insulation, which of the following actions is not required during overhaul after a fire involving cellulose insulation: A) In buildings where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall be maintained for a minimum of two hours, followed by evaluation by the Platoon Chief or a District Chief B) Overhaul shall be continued until there is no evidence of charring or smoke staining on the material being removed or the surrounding building material C) Removal of and or thorough soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic D) Establish fire origin and extent of spread. Complete initial extinguishment. Overhaul sequence

C) Removal of and or thorough soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, at an alarm, if a firefighter accidentally enters the water (falling overboard or off a dock, etc.), the Incident Commander shall immediately upgrade the alarm ____ level(s) (1.05). A) Four (4) B) Two (2) C) Three (3) D) One (1)

D) One (1)

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, If Hamilton Beach Rescue is requested by Incident Command for any Open Water rescue call, The Hamilton Beach Rescue Unit operational channel will be patched into our operational TAC for the alarm and the Incident Commander will have the ability to directly communicate with personnel from Hamilton Beach Rescue. Which of the Primary contacts along with their radio aliases at Hamilton Beach Rescue are NOT used (1.04)? A) Chief - Alpha 1 B) Deputy Chief - Alpha 2 C) Unit Administrator - Alpha 3 D) Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4

D) Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, which of the following requires the response of the nearest apparatus and a Marine Unit (1.09, 1.10, 1.11)? A) A person in distress in a swimming pool B) A medical call on any docked boat C) Any fire on any docked boat D) A call indicating open water is within close proximity

D) A call indicating open water is within close proximity

According to P &P 0650.00 – Motor vehicle Collisions – Extrications, which of the following is the correct order of operations for the first arriving company/crew: A) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, stabilize the vehicle with Rescue 42 struts to prevent further movement of the vehicle, remove all tempered glass, access and stabilize the patient(s). B) De-energize the vehicle/disconnect battery, stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s). C) Provide scene stabilization, contain fluids/place absorbent material on spills and leaks, remove all tempered glass, access and stabilize the patient(s). D) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).

D) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).

According to 0602.01 - Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams, which of the following are NOT acceptable operations to accomplish for a 3-person crew (without the arrival of additional crews on site) (1.04)? A) Limited exterior firefighting including the raising of a ladder beyond the first floor of the structure B) Forcible entry operations C) Ventilation operations requiring access to the roof of the involved structure D) At MVC’s – scene, vehicle and patient stabilization.

C) Ventilation operations requiring access to the roof of the involved structure

According to 0602.01 – Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams, which of the following are NOT tasks to be carried out by a first arriving crew with a minimum of 3 at a small building fire (without additional crews on-site) (1.02)? A) The first arriving pump apparatus sets up at the scene to "best advantage" for fire attack ensuring that the front of the building is left clear for Ladder/Aerial apparatus. B) The second due in pump apparatus may be advised to secure the nearest water supply and lay-in. Stage additional apparatus to ensure these vehicles are located near the scene for quick access to equipment. C) If one of the responding units is a Ladder/Aerial, the IC must consider all factors before committing the Ladder/Aerial apparatus. D) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire.

D) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire.

According to 0602.01 – Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams, which of the following situations are acceptable activities for a single apparatus response (with no additional crews on site) (1.02)? A) A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus. B) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire C) Advanced auto extrication maneuvers such as removal and relocation of doors, roofs, steering columns, use of air lifting bags, etc. D) Establishment of a water supply from a static source within reasonable time limits

A) A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus.

According to Policy 0807, Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management, section 9.01 states which of the following? A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported B) Deceased are to be left in the ambulance unit all victims have been transported C) Deceased are to be left in hot zone until decontaminated D) Deceased are to be removed first

A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported

According to Policy 0807, Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management, section 9.03, what agency is responsible for the tracking, transportation and storage of bodies and belongings? A) EMS B) Coroner’s Office and Police C) Hamilton Fire Department D) Red Cross

B) Coroner’s Office and Police

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, these activities are allowed to be accessed on the training tablets (5.2) A) Facebook, Instagram and other social media B) Firehouse and Firehall C) IFSTA Resource One D) Amazon, eBay and Skip the Dishes

C) IFSTA Resource One

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, who retains ownership of all files and communications made on the training tablets? (3.1) A) The owner of the email address being used B) The City of Hamilton C) The Office of the Fire Chief D) None of the above

B) The City of Hamilton

According to Policy 0610, Fire Watch, section 1.03 states that HFD personnel assigned fire watch responsibility shall do the following with the exception of: A) Wear all personal protective equipment. B) Complete a walking inspection of all areas of the premises at a minimum of thirty (30) minute intervals. C) Be in possession of a portable radio capable of communicating with HFD Communications. D) Give reports at regular intervals to inform that the fire is not active

D) Give reports at regular intervals to inform that the fire is not active

According to Policy 0610, Fire Watch, section 1.05 states that the “termination of a HFD fire watch shall be at the discretion of: A) The Company Officer from the crew left to conduct the fire watch B) The Safety Officer, from the respective incident following an inspection C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident D) The Platoon Chief

C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident

According to Policy 0610, Fire Watch, section 2.01 outlines the Apparatus that may be used for fire watch. Which of the following is not one of the recognized apparatus? A) Pumps/Engines (minimum four-person crew) B) Ladders (minimum four-person crew) C) Tanker-Pumper (minimum four-person crew) D) Supply Truck (minimum four-person crew)

D) Supply Truck (minimum four-person crew)

According to Policy 0614, Assistance to Victims of Fires, whose responsibility is it to notify Communications in the event of fires or other emergencies which result in personal hardship (lack of accommodation, food, clothing, etc.)? A) Safety Officer B) Platoon Chief C) Incident Commander D) First arriving Officer

C) Incident Commander

According to Policy 0614, Assistance to Victims of Fires, after Communications notifies the Red Cross, whose responsibility is it to notify other social service agencies. A) Incident Commander B) Public Health C) Communications D) Red Cross

D) Red Cross

According to Policy 0702, Infection Control, section 6.0, what is the procedure if you feel you have come in contact with a Communicable Disease? A) Immediately notify their Company Officer who shall in turn, notify the District Senior Officer B) Contact Communications and ask for the Designated Medical Officer to respond C) Contact the Safety Officer D) Report to hospital as soon as the situation is mitigated

A) Immediately notify their Company Officer who shall in turn, notify the District Senior Officer

According to 0903.00 Smoke Alarm Enforcement Policy (SAEP) a follow up on SANN’s issued will be conducted as soon as practical after____ hrs. have expired since its issuance by Operations. A) 36 B) 24 C) 48 D) 72

B) 24

According to Operational Guideline 0632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents the Immediate Danger to Life and Health (IDLH) of CO is ______ ppm. A) 100 ppm B) 500 ppm C) 800 ppm D) 1200 ppm

D) 1200 ppm

According to Operational Guideline 0632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents- 3.0 Mandatory Use of SCBA shall be employed with facepiece donned and air activated when CO readings are in excess of ______ ppm. A) 25 ppm B) 9 ppm C) 100 ppm D) 50 ppm

A) 25 ppm

According to Policy 0640.00, Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires, the atmospheric levels in order to operate without SCBA in an environment where smoke was present under section 4.0 Action Levels except for are? A) 0 ppm for HCN (Hydrogen Cyanide) B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide) C) 0 ppm for CO (Carbon Monoxide D) Not less than 20.8% Oxygen

B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)

According to Policy 0640.00, Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires, all incidents involving any known, suspected or potential products of combustion shall require personnel to confirm the following except within each area as defined in 3.03? A) Safe atmosphere levels of HCN B) Safe atmosphere levels of O² C) Safe atmosphere levels of H2S D) Safe atmosphere levels of CO

C) Safe atmosphere levels of H2S

According to Policy 0645.00 Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University, all laboratories, which contain radioactive material, are posted with warning signs stating? A) "Caution -- Radioactive Material." B) “Danger - - Radioactive material” C) “Caution - - Radiation” D) “Danger – Radiation”

A) "Caution -- Radioactive Material."

According to Policy 0645.00 Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University, there are ________ on campus where entry must NOT be made until Radiation Safety personnel have monitored the areas? A) 6 number of areas. B) 3 number of areas C) 7 number of areas D) 4 number of areas

D) 4 number of areas

According to Policy 0809.00 Responses Involving Railways, the safety of the crew aboard a derailed train carrying Hazardous Materials shall be the primary responsibility of? A) On scene firefighting personnel B) Hamilton Police Services C) 1st arriving HMRT D) Hamilton EMS

A) On scene firefighting personnel

According to Policy 0809.00 Responses Involving Railways, what is the minimum number of personnel required to keep a watch during incidents that may require Firefighters working in the danger zone near railway tracks? A) 4 personnel B) 2 personnel C) 1 person D) 3 personnel

B) 2 personnel

According to Policy 0812.00 Chemical Suicides, what additional agencies must be notified in advance in order to avoid contamination of personnel or equipment? A) Coroner / morgue B) HPS (Hamilton Police Services) C) HPW (Hamilton Public Works) D) EMS and Hospital

D) EMS and Hospital

The Workplace Safety and Insurance Board (WSIB) Claims – Reporting an Injury, information sheet for, HFD Career Staff, explains the process and checklist for submitting such claims. Part of the checklist states; A) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 48 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records. B) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records. C) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the N Drive in Department Common under WSIB. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records. D) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided L288 Health and Safety representative for their records.

B) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

Under the Incident Management System first arriving Company Officers at an incident whom are performing at the task level are advised to transfer command __________ to the next incoming Company Officer? A) Only upon arrival of the senior officer B) Upon arrival of last apparatus C) Immediately D) Eventually

C) Immediately

What 10 Code transmission is to be used to request a police response when FIRE personnel are involved in an incident and exposed to an imminent threat of bodily harm? A) 10-33 B) 10-45 C) 10-78 D) 10-99

C) 10-78

Hamilton Fire Department Operational Policy 0118.00 Training Sessions, Courses & Conferences, it states, the “the District Senior Officers are responsible to see that each Career Fire-fighter on their shift and within their respective district is given a minimum of per calendar year. A) 150 to 200 hours of drill B) 160 hours of drill C) 100 hours theory and 80 hours practical D) 120 hours theory and 60 hours practical

D) 120 hours theory and 60 hours practical

Policy and Procedures – 0301.00 Incident Reporting - The Officer’s Supplemental and the (Master) Incident Report should be supplemented by additional details provided from the Officer’s __________ from the scene? A) Observations B) Notes C) Assigned Tasks D) Actions

B) Notes

Policy and Procedures 0301.00 Incident Reporting - At the conclusion of any noteworthy incident (i.e. rescue, public service, controversy, etc.), the Incident Commander should e-mail the __________ details of the incident. This should include the date, time, incident number and a brief description if such a description is not contained in the narrative of the Master Incident Record in Fire RMS. A) Deputy Chief Operations B) Public Information Officer C) District Chief D) Platoon Chief

D) Platoon Chief

Policy and Procedures 0303.00 Form 327 – This is a __________ document that is intended to formally advise the responsible party of a change in the status of the item(s) indicated so they can take the necessary actions to remedy the situation or allow for the change (i.e. fire watches) The owner or the owner's representative is responsible to restore the system to full service. By signing the form, the owner or the owner's representative releases and indemnifies the City of Hamilton and the HFD of any claims, costs, etc. A) Internal Document B) Legal Document C) Informal Document D) Fire Prevention Document

B) Legal Document

Policy & Procedure 0415.00 Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property – Equipment that is not found should be replaced using a __________: A) Lost/Damage Reports. B) Memo C) 327 Form D) Supply request

A) Lost/Damage Reports.

``` Policy & Procedure 0120.00 Court/Inquest Appearances – HFD personnel subpoenaed to serve as a witness, shall notify__________. A) No One B) Appropriate Captain C) Platoon Chief/Division Chief D) Appropriate Deputy Chief ```

C) Platoon Chief/Division Chief

Policy & Procedure 0423.00 Equipment-General – It is whose responsibility to ensure that all equipment, on their apparatus, has been accounted for before returning from an alarm? A) Driver B) Company Officer C) All members of the Crew D) Incident Command

B) Company Officer

top of page 118 In Hamilton Fire Department, Operational Policy 0113.00, Administration & Personnel/Uniforms,it states that; A) Uniforms may be worn off-duty for community events. B) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty. C) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty except for HFD authorizedactivities without the permission of the Fire Chief. D) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty except for HFD authorizedactivities without the permission of the respective Divisional Chief or Platoon Chief.

C) Uniforms or components of the uniform issue shall not be worn off-duty except for HFD authorizedactivities without the permission of the Fire Chief.

Hamilton Fire Department Operational Policy 0113.00, Administration & Personnel/Uniforms - states that between the hours of , Monday to Sunday; Senior Officers and personnelacting in the role of Senior Officer shall wear their Class A – Working (Class A-W) uniforms. A) 07:00 – 17:00hrs B) 07:00 – 19:00hrs C) 08:00 – 16:00hrs D) 08:00 – 18:00hrs

B) 07:00 – 19:00hrs

``` Policy and Procedures – 0301.00 Incident Reporting – All reports shall be completed in ____________________ measurements? A) Imperial B) English C) Metric D) Metric and Imperial ```

C) Metric

``` Policy and Procedures, 0301.00 Incident Reporting – Company Officers observing serious Fire Code violations (immediately dangerous to life and health) in a property attended by the HFD, that Officer shall notify the for that District who shall take appropriate action. All actions shall be reported in the Fire RMS using the Incident Action Request box and the narrative fields of the Incident Master Record or Apparatus Response Reports (Officers Supplemental) A) Fire Prevention Officer B) Senior Officer C) Fire Inspector D) Platoon Chief ```

B) Senior Officer

Policy and Procedures 0301.00 Incident Reporting – District Senior Officers reviewing the FireRMS Reports, the main objectives of the review process are to ? A) Ensure the reports being submitted are accurate B) Ensure sufficient detail to reflect what took place C) Raise the standard of report writing D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Policy and Procedures 0301.00 Incident Reporting - District Senior Officers shall follow up withrespective Company Officers to ensure Satisfactory reporting. Any identified deficiencies will be_____________________ ? A) Corrected B) Debated C) Discussed D) Reviewed

A) Corrected

Policy and Procedures 0306.00 Notebooks - When an individual has filled a notebook, they shallcontact their /Area Commander who will come and collect the full notebook and issue the individual a replacement. The /Area Commander will then ensure that the completed notebook is sent to the Fire Prevention Bureau at 55 King William Street where it willbe retained with 1.06 (above). A) Platoon Chief B) Senior Officer C) Chief Fire Prevention Officer D) Assistant Deputy Chief Operations

B) Senior Officer

Policy & Procedure 0608.00 Overhaul Operations – After a fire has been extinguished and salvage and overhaul operations completed, the debris carried out from the house or buildingshould be placed? A) At the front of the building B) At the rear of the building C) At the side of the building D) Does not matter

B) At the rear of the building

Policy & Procedure 0649.00 Barrel Fires During Protests and Labour Action – Questions regarding warming barrel fires by HFD personnel or members of the public should be directed to? A) The Fire Prevention Bureau. B) The Fire Chief C) The Public Information Officer D) The Platoon Chief

A) The Fire Prevention Bureau.

Policy & Procedure 0624.00 Technical Standards & Safety Authority – If, in the opinion of the Incident Commander, the use or handling of Hydrocarbon Fuels (gasoline, fuel oil, natural gas, propane, etc..) is directly involved with the suspected cause of the incident, who is the I.C. to notify? A) Communications to contact TSSA B) Communications to contact Senior Officer, if not on scene. C) Communications to contact Deputy Chief D) All of the above

A) Communications to contact TSSA

Policy & Procedure 0606.00 When the Communication Center initiates the evacuation tones, which one of the following sequence of tones shall be heard over the fire ground frequency ? A) 5 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 5 seconds of tones B) 10 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 10 seconds of tones C) 15 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 15 seconds of tones D) 5 seconds of tones, 15 second delay, 5 seconds of tones

C) 15 seconds of tones, 5 seconds delay, 15 seconds of tones

Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0501.00, Incident Management/Incident Management System, under Establishment of Command, it states that “the unit assuming Command shall transmit a brief radio report including: A) Identification of Unit on scene, brief description of the incident, conditions, personnel concerns, and assume command. B) Identification of Unit on scene, confirm address of the incident, brief description of the incident, obvious conditions, any obvious safety concerns, and assume command. C) Identification of Units on scene, confirm the address of the incident, personnel compliment, and pass command if required. D) Identification of the incident address, confirm safety concerns, assume command, and assign other responding apparatus.

B) Identification of Unit on scene, confirm address of the incident, brief description of the incident, obvious conditions, any obvious safety concerns, and assume command.

In Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0502.00, Incident Management/Incident Roles and Responsibilities, states the role of ‘Captain’ is: A) To continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an extension of the incident Commander’s eyes. B) To act as an assistant to the Incident Commander, that gathers and records information. C) To act as the Incident Commander as required or operate at the assigned level under the direction of an Incident Commander. D) To ensure the efficient and reliable performance of all personnel on scene of an incident

C) To act as the Incident Commander as required or operate at the assigned level under the direction of an Incident Commander.

Hamilton Fire Department Operational Guideline 0621.00, Emergency Scene Operations/Fire Alarm Systems, under Private Residences (Smoke Alarm Systems) If a Smoke Alarm is sounding and no one answers the door, what actions shall the Incident Commander ensure are taken? A) The exterior is checked, windows and doors are secure, advise dispatch, and leave Form 328. B) Advise Dispatch and request police respond. C) Ensure all windows and doors leading to the interior have been checked for visual smoke or fire. D) Ensure the perimeter has been checked for smoke/fire, check windows/doors have been checked for visual smoke/fire, if nothing found leave a 327 on the front door, if conditions warrant forcible entry police will be requested.

D) Ensure the perimeter has been checked for smoke/fire, check windows/doors have been checked for visual smoke/fire, if nothing found leave a 327 on the front door, if conditions warrant forcible entry police will be requested.

The Hamilton Fire Department Incident Management System Identifies the Tactical Benchmarks in the correct order as? A) Primary Search, Under Control, Secondary Search, Loss Stopped B) Primary Search, Secondary Search, Under Control, Loss Stopped C) Under Control, Primary Search, Loss Stopped, Secondary Search D) Primary Search, Secondary Search, Loss Stopped, Under Control

A) Primary Search, Under Control, Secondary Search, Loss Stopped

In Book 2, Chapter 2, Building Construction, page 12 “Flame Spread Rating” it states that; “Interior finish relates to fire in four ways”: . A) It affects the rate of fire buildup to a Backdraft conditions B) It affects the rate of fire buildup to a flashover conditions C) It affects the rate of fire development to a flashover condition, it contributes to fire extension by flame spread over its surface, it adds to the intensity of a fire by contributing additional fuel, and it produces smoke and toxic gases that can contribute to life hazard and property damage. D) It affects the rate of fire buildup to a flashover condition, it contributes to fire and flame spread over its surface, it adds to the intensity of a fire, and contributes to life hazards.

C) It affects the rate of fire development to a flashover condition, it contributes to fire extension by flame spread over its surface, it adds to the intensity of a fire by contributing additional fuel, and it produces smoke and toxic gases that can contribute to life hazard and property damage.

Book 2, Chapter 2, Building Construction, page 37 “Wood Construction” states that, “The vertical combustible spaces between studs in balloon frame construction provide a _______________________________.” A) Space for ventilation of hot gases to travel to other area of the structure. B) Channel for the rapid communication of fire from floor to floor. C) Channel for the deployment of extinguishment from one area of the structure to another. D) None of the above.

B) Channel for the rapid communication of fire from floor to floor.

Book 2, Chapter 2, Building Construction, page 41 “Concrete” states “the problems of the fire department with concrete construction can be divided into three distinct subjects’ A) Collapse during firefighting operations, fire during construction, and fire when not occupied. B) Collapse during construction with no fire, fire when under construction, fire in completed occupied buildings. C) Pre-tensioning and post-tensioning increasing the danger of additional stresses, reinforcing rods increasing injury hazards, and precast concrete having hollow spaces that provide channels for fire spread. D) Concrete is non-combustible but can be destroyed by fire, fire can compromise its strength if under excessive load, and it can protect the tensile strength of steel for a limited duration.

B) Collapse during construction with no fire, fire when under construction, fire in completed occupied buildings.

In Book 2, Chapter 3, High Rise Construction, “the vertical travel of smoke and fire gases is aidedby various openings, such as stairways, duct work and shaft ways that pierce floors.” It may alsooccur; A) Through laundry chutes, escalator shafts, suspended ceilings, and attics. B) Through laundry and trash chutes, elevator shafts, dumbwaiter shafts, and mail chutes. C) Through elevator shafts, attic openings, sewer lines, and confined spaces D) Through trash chutes, adjacent attics, dumbwaiter shafts, and confined spaces.

B) Through laundry and trash chutes, elevator shafts, dumbwaiter shafts, and mail chutes.

``` According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is the difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit. It is the force that causes the flow of electricity, and it is measured in volts. Can be compared to water pressure. A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding ```

A) Voltage

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ___________ is similar to the effect of friction on the flow of water inn a pipe. (Water flows more freely in a large pipe than a small one.) Different materials have different resistance to theflow of electricity. Very high resistance materials are called insulators, while the low resistance materials are called conductors. Resistance is measured in ohms. A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding

C) Resistance

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is a flow of electrical charge. It can be compared to the rate of flow of water in apipe. Current is typically measures in amperes (or amps). A) Voltage B) Current C) Resistance D) Grounding

B) Current

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, electrical hazards are created when electrical equipment or wires have become faulty. Which of the following examples are correct that can lead to electrical hazards? A) Worn out or deteriorated B) Improperly installed C) Adverse weather/natural events exposure D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, because electricity takes all paths to ground, electrical systems use multiple safety systems to deal with system faults. Conductive _____ rods are one component used to ensure thatany stray electricity is returned to earth. A) Voltage B) Potential C) Insulating D) Grounding

D) Grounding

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, related electricity on the ground to a rippling water in a pool is attempting to explain the effect known as “ ______ gradient”. It is also referred to as “ground gradient” A) Current B) Voltage C) Potential D) Resistance

C) Potential

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the potential gradient, or voltage difference, creates two problems known as “ ____________ potential” and “__________ potential” A) Resistive & Touch B) Step & Touch C) Step & Voltage D) Fault & Touch

B) Step & Touch

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the further apart that “X” and “Y” are, the greater the electrical contact hazard. This effect isreferred to as “ potential” A) Ground B) Step C) Fault D) Gradient

B) Step

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, in a manner similar to step potential, electricity would flow through your body if you were to place your hand on an energized source, while your feet were at some distance apart from the source. The electricity would flow through the hand, arm, chest, abdomen, leg and foot to the ground. The difference in voltage (potential difference) in this case is referred to as “ ______ potential” A) Ground B) Step C) Fault D) Touch

D) Touch

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, a victim exposed to a large electric arc can be injured by the intense heat, molten metal splatter or by ultraviolet rays. The effect of electricity on the body and the severity of the shock depends on the: A) Condition of the skin B) Pressure of the body against the source C) Moisture level of the surface of the skin D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ladders and stretchers, due to their length, can present significant “___________and ____________ potential” hazards and must be kept away from downed power lines A) Step and ground B) Step and touch C) Ground and touch D) Fault and touch

B) Step and touch

``` According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following would be considered areas that may contain open energized equipment: A) Electrical Vaults B) Substations C) Generating Stations D) All of the above ```

D) All of the above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, hich of the following is correct, a single wooden pole transmission line will range in voltage from: A) 500,000 V B) 230,000 V C) 115,000 – 230,000 V D) 69,000 – 115,000 V

C) 115,000 – 230,000 V

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, an easy to remember rule for working around live high voltage transmission lines is to keep at least ___ metres (___ft.) away. A) 3 metres, 10 ft. B) 5 metres, 16 ft. C) 6 metres, 20 ft. D) 10 metres, 33 ft.

C) 6 metres, 20 ft.

``` According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, bystanders should be back at least ____ metres (____ ft.) A) 3 metres (10 ft.) B) 5 metres (16 ft.) C) 10 metres (33 ft.) D) 15 metres (50 ft.) ```

C) 10 metres (33 ft.)

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, a fallen wire lies on top of, or under a vehicle with one or more people inside, the driver is unable to move the vehicle or the vehicle will not move, which of the following instructions is correct? A) Instruct the driver to “Stay in the vehicle….” Until the electrical utility personnel arrive B) Continually monitor the safe zone, secure the area and keep people away C) A vehicle’s tires may smoke or explode from heating up, but do not advise leaving the vehicle except in the event of fire D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, victim(s) are unconscious and there are fallen wires under or on the vehicle or hanging very close to the vehicle, which of the following instructions is correct? A) Determine and continually monitor the safe zone, secure the area and keep people away B) Monitor closely for any change in the situation (fire starts etc.) Instruct any victim who might regain consciousness to “Stay in the vehicle…” until the power line is de-energized (made safe) C) DO NOT take action which would endanger your own life or the lives of others D) All of the Above

D) All of the Above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, keep bystanders and non-emergency persons at least ____ metres (_____ ft.) from a vehicle tire pyrolysis incident. A) 15 metres (50 ft.) B) 50 metres (165 ft.) C) 100 metres (330 ft.) D) 200 metres (660 ft.)

C) 100 metres (330 ft.)

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, what action for fighting a fire on power line equipment is incorrect: A) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres (33 ft.) back. Attempt to determine the voltage involved. If you aren’t certain, assume the highest voltage B) DO NOT apply a straight water stream directly on the fire. Electricity can travel through the stream and back to the nozzle C) Use foam on live electrical equipment. Foam is not a good electrical conductor D) Set the nozzle to produce fog (minimum 30 degree pattern) and ensure the designed pressure stays at or above 700 Kpa or 100 psi) at the nozzle

C) Use foam on live electrical equipment. Foam is not a good electrical conductor

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is incorrect for responses involving trees or other objects in contact with a power line: A) Assess the situation from the distances shown in the Ground Step Potential Hazard B) Do not wait for the local electrical utility personnel to isolate and de-energize the power line C) Determine what objects (tree, branch, ladder, pole etc.) are contacting, or are close to power lines D) If Objects are in contact with power lines, determine the safe zone and secure the area

B) Do not wait for the local electrical utility personnel to isolate and de-energize the power line

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, a Padmount transformer or switching kiosk is damaged in a vehicle accident. Which of the following should you not do? A) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres (33 ft.) back B) Determine the safe zone, secure the area, inform other emergency responders and keep people away C) Tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle. We are contacting the electrical utility” D) Walk normal, keep feet apart when approaching the vehicle

D) Walk normal, keep feet apart when approaching the vehicle

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, hazards in substation component buildings include all except: A) Batteries containing sulphuric acid B) Energized relays C) Anhydrous Ammonia D) Oil-filled transformers and circuit breakers

C) Anhydrous Ammonia

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you have responded to a call with an injured person who has entered a substation. What action would you not do? A) Calmly, tell the person to move to the fence if they are able B) Cut the fence to gain patient access C) Call the local electrical authority for assistance and follow their instructions including waiting for their arrival D) When the electrical utility personnel arrive, initiate rescue under their direction

B) Cut the fence to gain patient access

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you have responded to a fire in a substation or switchyard. Which of the following is incorrect? A) Notify dispatch to call the electrical utility immediately, and inform other emergency responders of the identified dangers B) Upon arrival, park vehicles and apparatus well away from the substation C) Do not wait for electrical utility personnel to arrive. Enter the substation to extinguish the fire D) Prepare equipment and protect exposures (surrounding property) applying water using fog spray (700 Kpa, [100 psi at the nozzle], 30 degree)

C) Do not wait for electrical utility personnel to arrive. Enter the substation to extinguish the fire

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the minimum recommended distance for Fire Fighting inside Electrical Substations Switchyards is ____ m, ____ ft. A) 3 metres, 10 ft. B) 5 metres, 16 ft. C) 10 metres, 33 ft. D) 15 metres, 50 ft.

C) 10 metres, 33 ft.

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you are responding to a fire at a substation or switchyard and you suspect PCBs in the fire, which of the following actions should you not do? A) Consult the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) B) Use dry chemical, CO2 or foam if possible C) Provide ‘stay-in-place’ direction for people located in path of the smoke plume D) Provide for liquid runoff containment

C) Provide ‘stay-in-place’ direction for people located in path of the smoke plume

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, when rescuers or fire fighters are working from an aerial device, it is essential to maintain the limits of approach of ____ metres, (___ ft.) from the power line A) 2 metres, 7 ft. B) 3 metres, 10 ft. C) 5 metres, 16 ft. D) 10 metres, 33 ft.

B) 3 metres, 10 ft.

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is true about pulling the meter? A) It may violently arc or explode B) It does not guarantee that the power supply has been interrupted C) Power theft situations typically by-pass the meter D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following Hazards in electrical vaults is in correct: A) Large volumes of thick toxic black smoke B) Fire C) No risk of Explosion D) Flying debris

D) Flying debris

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, identifying Photovoltaic systems on the roof-tops of houses or commercial/industrial buildings could present a challenge to fire fighters as they may not be seen from street side and are usually difficult to see at night. Which of the following clues that may attract fire fighter’s attention are correct? A) Locating inverter boxes outside B) Additional meters C) Conduit installed on the exterior of the building D) All of the above

D) All of the above

top of page 135 According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following electrical contact / shock hazards is not correct in illegal ‘Grow Ops’? A) Even if the meter was removed, the tapped connections are done on the utility feed which is live at all times until the utility company disconnects the feed from the street B) Equipment will be bonded or grounded properly, limiting short circuits and hazards C) Deliberately set booby traps of various types attached to doors, handles and windows D) Metals in close proximity becoming energized causing serious injury or electrocution

B) Equipment will be bonded or grounded properly, limiting short circuits and hazards

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is not a fire hazard in illegal ‘Grow Ops’? A) High heat producing equipment placed on or near building combustibles B) Improper use of Lithium-ion batteries C) Overloaded circuits with inadequate or bypassed overload protection D) Use of undersized extension cords

B) Improper use of Lithium-ion batteries

According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is not an entanglement hazards in illegal ‘Grow Ops’? A) Use of undersized extension cords B) Improperly installed low-hanging flexible ducting C) Improperly strung unprotected wiring D) Batteries or capacitors randomly positioned and wired together

A) Use of undersized extension cords

``` The Product ID number for Acetylene, Dissolved is: A) 1398 B) 2306 C) 1345 D) 1001 ```

D) 1001

``` The Product ID number for Butane is: A) 2311 B) 2547 C) 1011 D) 1032 ```

C) 1011

``` The Product ID number for LPG is: A) 1078 B) 1075 C) 1401 D) 1010 ```

B) 1075

``` The Guide Number for Dangerous Goods in Apparatus is: A) 153 B) 129 C) 140 D) 171 ```

D) 171

``` The Guide Number for Xanthates is: A) 151 B) 165 C) 135 D) 127 ```

C) 135

``` What product has an ID Number of 1011? A) Butylene B) Sulfur Hexafluoride C) Barium D) Butane ```

D) Butane

``` What product has an ID Number of 1307? A) Xylyl Bromide, Liquid B) Xanthates C) Xylenes D) Xylenols, Liquid ```

C) Xylenes

``` What product has an ID Number of 3121? A) Oxidizing Solid, Self-Heating B) Oxidizing Solid, Water-Reactive, n.o.s. C) Oxidizing Solid, Toxic, n.o.s. D) Oxidizing Solid, Flammable, n.o.s. ```

B) Oxidizing Solid, Water-Reactive, n.o.s.

``` The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 171 B) 163 C) 134 D) 114 ```

C) 134

``` The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 139 B) 112 C) 120 D) 113 ```

B) 112

``` The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 158 B) 153 C) 147 D) 125 ```

D) 125

``` The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 118 B) 127 C) 128 D) 138 ```

B) 127

``` The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 122 B) 143 C) 153 D) 139 ```

A) 122

``` The Guide Number for this placard is: A) 171 B) 147 C) 153 D) 123 ```

C) 153

A truck is on fire with the placard above. It appears to be a cargo fire. Traffic will be stopped, and the area cleared for at least ________ metres in all directions and let burn. A) 800 B) 1200 C) 1600 D) 3200

C) 1600

A patient has been in contact with a product displaying the above placard. What first aid measure should not be taken? A) Give artificial respiration if victim is not breathing B) In case of contact with liquified gas, thaw frosted parts with lukewarm water C) Keep victim calm and warm D) In case of burns, immediately cool affected skin for as long as possible with cold water

B) In case of contact with liquified gas, thaw frosted parts with lukewarm water

Which of the following health hazard(s) are correct for this product? A) May produce corrosive solutions with contact with water B) Toxic/flammable fumes may accumulate in confined spaces (basement, tanks, tank cars etc.) C) Ingestion or contact (skin, eyes) with substance may cause severe injury or burns D) Both A & B are correct

A) May produce corrosive solutions with contact with water

Immediate precautionary measures of a small spill or leak with this placard shall be at least _____ metres for liquids at least ____ metres for solids. A) 25 metres, 15 metres B) 50 metres, 25 metres C) 75 metres, 50 metres D) 100 metres, 50 metres

B) 50 metres, 25 metres

pg 142 Which of the following health hazard(s) are correct for this product? A) May produce corrosive solutions with contact with water B) Inhalation or contact with vapors, substance or decomposition may cause severe injury or death C) Ingestion or contact (skin, eyes) with substance may cause severe injury or burns D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

pg 142 ``` The rail car above is a: A) Non-Pressure Tank Car B) Pressure Tank Car C) Hopper Car D) Box Car ```

B) Pressure Tank Car

pg 143 ``` The rail car above is a: A) Non-Pressure Tank Car B) Pressure Tank Car C) Hopper Car D) Box Car ```

A) Non-Pressure Tank Car

pg 143 ``` The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Traile ```

B) Flammable Liquid Trailer

pg 144 ``` The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer ```

A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer

pg 144 ``` The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer ```

C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer

pg 145 ``` The trailer above is a: A) Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer B) Flammable Liquid Trailer C) Corrosive Liquid Trailer D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer ```

D) Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer

According to the ERG 2020 User’s Guide, recommended safety distances for ‘initial isolation’ and ‘protective action distances’ for a small spill is based on a release of _____ litres (_____ US gallons) or less. A) 208 L, 55 US Gallons B) 227 L, 60 US Gallons C) 283 L, 75 US Gallons D) None of the Above

A) 208 L, 55 US Gallons

``` If 8000L propane tank is on fire, what is the minimum evacuation distance in meters? A) 525 m B) 925 m C) 661 m D) 2169 m ```

C) 661 m

According to the 2020 ERG Book, Table 2 “Water Reactive Materials Which Produce Toxic Gases” from a Spill of (Vinyltrichlorosilane ID 1305) (Guide 155P) when Mixed with Water, Produces what type of Toxic-By-Inhalation (TIH) Gas? A) HCN (Hydrogen cyanide) B) HCL (Hydrogen chloride) C) HBr (Hydrogen bromide) D) HF (Hydrogen fluoride)

B) HCL (Hydrogen chloride)

According to the 2020 ERG Book, Table 2 “Water Reactive Materials Which Produce Toxic Gases” from a Spill of (Aluminum Phosphide ID 1397 (Guide 139) when Mixed with Water, Produces what type of Toxic-By-Inhalation (TIH) Gas? A) HCN (Hydrogen cyanide) B) COCL2 (Phosgene) C) PH3 (Phosphine) D) HF (Hydrogen fluoride)

C) PH3 (Phosphine)

pg 146 According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards? A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, Carcinogen, aspiration hazard B) Hazardous to aquatic environment C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic) D) Acute toxicity (harmful), skin sensitizer, respiratory tract irritant

C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic)

pg 147 According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards? A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, Carcinogen, aspiration hazard B) Hazardous to aquatic environment C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic) D) Acute toxicity (harmful), skin sensitizer, respiratory tract irritant

D) Acute toxicity (harmful), skin sensitizer, respiratory tract irritant

pg 147 According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards? A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, carcinogen, aspiration hazard B) Hazardous to aquatic environment C) Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic) D) Acute toxicity (harmful), skin sensitizer, respiratory tract irritant

A) Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, carcinogen, aspiration hazard

pg 147 According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Physical Hazards? A) Explosive, self-reactive, organic peroxide B) Flammable, pryrophoric, self-reactive C) Oxidizer D) Gas under pressure

C) Oxidizer

Pg 148 According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Physical Hazards? A) Explosive, self-reactive, organic peroxide B) Flammable, pryrophoric, self-reactive C) Oxidizer D) Gas under pressure

A) Explosive, self-reactive, organic peroxide

B) Flammable, pryrophoric, self-reactive

According to the FPPA, which of the following is not found in the definition of ‘fire protection services’? A) Fire suppression, fire prevention and fire safety education B) Rescue and emergency services C) Remediation of hazardous materials whether they be biological, chemical, radiological, and/or physical and that have the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment D) Mitigation and prevention of the risk created by the presence of unsafe levels of carbon monoxide and safety education related to the presence of those levels

C) Remediation of hazardous materials whether they be biological, chemical, radiological, and/or physical and that have the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment

According to the FPPA, Part 2, (1) and (2), which of the following is not a municipal responsibility or a method of provided services? A) In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a fire prevention bureau for code enforcement B) Every municipality shall establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention C) In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a community fire safety officer or a community fire safety team D) Every municipality shall provide such other fire protection services as it determines may be necessary in accordance with its needs and circumstances

A) In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a fire prevention bureau for code enforcement

According to the FPPA, a fire chief is the person who is ultimately responsible to the ________ of a municipality that appointed him or her for the delivery of fire protection services. A) Mayor B) City Manager C) Residents D) Council

D) Council

According to the FPPA, 7.1 (1), which of the following is not a by-law that a council of a municipality may pass? A) A by-law regulating the setting of open air fires, including establishing the times during which open air fires may be set B) A by-law regulating vulnerable occupancies C) A by-law designating private roads as fire routes along which no parking of vehicles shall be permitted and providing for the removal and impounding of any vehicle parked or left along any of the fire routes at the expense of the owner of the vehicle D) A by-law regulating fire prevention, including the prevention of the spreading of fires

B) A by-law regulating vulnerable occupancies

According to the FPPA Part III, 9 (1), which of the following is not a power of the Fire Marshal? A) To issue long service awards to persons involved in the provision of fire protection services B) To monitor, review and advise municipalities respecting the provision of fire protection services and to make recommendations to municipal councils for improving the efficiency and effectiveness of those services C) To establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency D) To issue directives to assistants to the Fire Marshal respecting matters relating to this Act and the regulations

C) To establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency

According to the FPPA Part III, 9 (1), which of the following is not a power of the Fire Marshal? A) To issue guidelines to municipalities respecting fire protection services and related matters B) To exercise all the powers assigned to him or her under this Act within the territorial limits of the municipality and within any other area in which the municipality has agreed to provide fire protection services, subject to any conditions specified in the agreement C) To advise and assist ministries and agencies of government respecting fire protection services and related matters D) To co-operate with any body or person interested in developing and promoting the principles and practices of fire protection services

B) To exercise all the powers assigned to him or her under this Act within the territorial limits of the municipality and within any other area in which the municipality has agreed to provide fire protection services, subject to any conditions specified in the agreement

According to the FPPA, Part III, 9 (2), which of the following is not a duty of the Fire Marshal? A) To advise municipalities in the interpretation and enforcement of this Act and the regulations B) To establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention C) To develop training programs and evaluation systems for persons involved in the provision of fire protection services and to provide programs to improve practices relating to fire protection services D) To develop and maintain statistical records and conduct studies in respect of fire protection services

B) To establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention

According to the FPPA Part III, 11, (1) which of the following persons are assistants to the Fire Marshal and shall follow the Fire Marshal’s directives in carry out the Act? A) The clerk of every municipality that does not have a fire department B) Any member of a fire prevention bureau established by a municipality C) The fire chief of every fire department D) All of the above

D) All of the above

According to the FPPA, Part V, 13 (1) A firefighter or such other person as may be authorized by the fire chief, the Fire Marshal or an assistant to the Fire Marshal may, without a warrant, enter lands or premises that are: A) Adjacent to the lands or premises on which a fire or emergency has occurred or is occurring, for the purposes of fighting the fire or of providing rescue or emergency services B) Adjacent to the lands or premises on which there is a serious threat to the health and safety of any person or the quality of the natural environment, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat C) None of the above, firefighters must always have a warrant to enter lands or premises D) Both A & B are correct

D) Both A & B are correct

According to the FPPA, Part 5, Powers of entry, upon entering on land or premises, the Fire Marshal or a fire chief may do the following except: A) Require that any machinery, equipment or device be operated, used or set in motion under specified conditions B) Establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency C) Close, and prevent entry to, the land or premises for the length of time necessary to complete the examination of the land or premises D) Remove from the land or premises, retain and examine any article or material, and take such samples or photographs, make videotapes and other images electronic or otherwise that in his or her opinion may be of assistance in determining the cause of the fire under investigation

B) Establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency

According to the FPPA Part V, Section 15 (1) Immediate threat to life, if the Fire Marshal, an assistant to the Fire Marshal or a fire chief has reasonable grounds to believe that a risk of fire poses an immediate threat to life, he or she may, without a warrant, enter on any land or premises and, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat, may do the following except: A) Post a fire watch B) Remove persons on the land or premises C) Make major repairs to existing fire safety systems D) Remove combustible or explosive material or anything that may constitute a fire menace

C) Make major repairs to existing fire safety systems

According to the FPPA Part V, Section 15 (1) Immediate threat to life, if the Fire Marshal, an assistant to the Fire Marshal or a fire chief has reasonable grounds to believe that a risk of fire poses an immediate threat to life, he or she may, without a warrant, enter on any land or premises and, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat, may do the following: A) Install temporary safeguards, including fire extinguishers and smoke alarms B) Make minor repairs to existing fire safety systems C) Do any other thing that the Fire Marshal, an assistant to the Fire Marshal or a fire chief has reasonable grounds to believe is urgently required to remove or reduce the threat to life D) All of the above

D) All of the above

``` According to the Fire Code, unless otherwise specified, the __________ is responsible for carrying out the provisions of this Code. A) Tenant B) Resident C) Owner D) None of the above ```

C) Owner

According to the Fire Code, which of the following is not correct about a Care Occupancy? A) A Care Occupancy is the same as a retirement home under the Retirement Homes Act, 2010 B) Special care is provided by a facility, directly through its staff or indirectly through another provider, to residents because of cognitive or physical limitations C) Special care is provided by a facility, directly through its staff or indirectly through another provider, to residents who, as a result of those limitations, would be incapable of evacuating the occupancy, if necessary, without the assistance of another person D) Both B & C are correct

D) Both B & C are correct

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Jones & Bartlett: Fire Officer Flashcards

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