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Joint SAPR > Joint SAPR > Flashcards

Joint SAPR Flashcards

1
Q

Which Department of Defense Directive would you find guidance on the Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Program?

A

DODD 6495.01

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2
Q

The PRIMARY purpose of the Sexual Assault Forensic Examination (SAFE) is to:

A

Preserve evidence for law enforcement use

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3
Q

This individual supports the SAPR mission by providing program oversight, oversees case management of their team, briefs leadership and ensures awareness of SAPR.

A

SARC

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4
Q

Which Commander National Guard Bureau Instruction (CNGBI) would give you Guard-specific guidance on the SAPR Program?

A

CNGBI 1300.01

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5
Q

The Victims of Crime Act (VOCA) Fund was created by Congress in 1984 to provide what?

A

A process to recoup money from the accused to pay for damages they caused their victims.

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6
Q

The Crime Victims’ Rights Act includes which of the following?

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. The right to be reasonably protected from the accused.
B. The right to full and timely restitution as provided in law.
C. The right to be treated with fairness and with respect for the victim’s dignity and privacy.

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7
Q

Which of the following is the National Guard Bureau J1-SAPR mission statement?

A

To plan, develop, and execute the National Guard’s Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Office (SAPRO) efforts in support of the 54 States, Territories and DC; increase readiness by fostering an environment of zero tolerance from sexual harassment and sexual assault through comprehensive policy.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements best defines secondary victimization?

A

Victim blaming attitudes, behaviors, and practices which result in additional trauma for the victim.

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9
Q

True or False: A survivor CANNOT have a Sexual Assault Forensic Exam (SAFE) if they shower immediately after their assault due to lack of evidence remaining after a shower.

A

False

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10
Q

What is the most significant difference between “sexual act” and “sexual contact, as defined by UCMJ Article 120?

A

Penetration versus touching

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11
Q

Which of the following are lethality risk factors for domestic abuse?

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Attempted strangulation
B. Access to a gun
C. Sexual violence
D. Threatens to kill partner or children

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12
Q

Special Victims’ Counsel (SVC) are similar to SARCs/SAPR VAs in many ways. However, one key service SVCs provide that SARCs/SAPR VAs do NOT provide is:

A

Advise

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT accurate?

A

Answer - A
A. A safety assessment should only be conducted if needed.
B. Safety Plans are different from the safety assessment.
C. Safety concerns are to be annotated in DSAID.
D. Safety Plans are developed with and provided to the victim.

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14
Q

The main responsibility of SAPR Victim Advocate is to:

A

Deliver advocacy and services directly to sexual assault victims

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15
Q

SAPR Victim Advocates are

A

The only responders whose sole interest is ensuring victims’ needs are met

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way a victim advocate can support a victim before/during/after a law enforcement interview?

A

Respond to questions directed at the survivor during the interview

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17
Q

If you experience the feeling that the majority of your day is spent on tasks you find either mind-numbingly dull or overwhelming, you may be experiencing:

A

Burnout

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18
Q

Name three (3) of the services that a victim advocate provides to a victim

A

Referrals and support, crisis intervention, and empathy

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19
Q

Who chairs the Case Management Group (CMG)?

A

TAG or Wing Commander/Vice Commander

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20
Q

Which of the following would indicate consent?

A

Enthusiastically saying “yes!” when asked if they are comfortable and want to keep going.

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21
Q

When signing the DD Form 2910, Victim Reporting Preference Statement (VRPS), victims are acknowledging they understand that (choose one):

A

They may change a restricted report to an unrestricted report at any time

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a branch of the NGB SAPR Division?

A

Warrior Resilience

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23
Q

True or False: A victim may still file a restricted report, even if they have disclosed the sexual assault to their chain of command, as long as they have NOT disclosed directly to law enforcement and have NOT already filed an unrestricted report.

A

True

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24
Q

Which of the following describes an example of a counterintuitive behavior (CIB), meaning a behavior that may seem inexplicable to the general public?

A

The victim did not scream or resist during the sexual assault

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25
Q

When a victim reports that they are having thoughts of self-harm, what is the most appropriate response?

A

Stay with the victim and escort them to emergency services

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26
Q

True or False: The effects of violence against a person may include causing long-term physical and mental health problems

A

True

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27
Q

Common trauma reactions can include which of the following?

A

E - ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. nightmares, sleeping difficulties
B. feeling hopeless or helpless, reduced use of coping skills
C. physical symptoms like stomach aches or rapid heartbeat
D. Feelings of anxiety, stress, fear, or anger

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28
Q

Trauma informed care means?

A

Treating the whole person by considering past trauma

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29
Q

When a report of sexual assault is made, it is important to understand which of the following regarding jurisdiction:

A

Location of the incident and status of the involved parties

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30
Q

True or False. Special Victims’ Counsel directly represent victims in military court and can file motions and writs on a victim’s behalf.

A

True

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31
Q

Melissa, an O-1, called the SAPR hotline from the local public hospital to request an advocate meet her as she gets a sexual assault forensic exam (SAFE). The state she lives in does not mandate that the hospital notify local law enforcement of the assault. Following the SAFE, Melissa is hesitant to complete any additional paperwork. What type of SAPR report does Melissa have to file?

A

No report

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32
Q

Given the nature of the job it is important for SARCs & SAPR VAs to have someone that they can talk to without there being a conflict of interest or breaching confidentiality. Which of the following is allowed for SARCs & SAPR VAs?

A

Can talk to their state SAPRO, JFHQ SARC, VA/VAC, or Brigade/wing sarc to discuss case related-issues

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33
Q

Case Management does NOT include:

A

Providing counseling services

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34
Q

The _______________________ is the Victim Reporting Preference Statement (VRPS).

A

DD form 2910

35
Q

Who most likely has jurisdiction and stores SAFE kits as evidence if the victim is a Title 32 Service Member?

A

Local Law Enforcement

36
Q

To maintain Defense Sexual Assault Advocate Certification Program (D-SAACP) certification, SARCs and SAPR VAs are required to complete

A

32

37
Q

SARCs & SAPR VAs need to do all of the following EXCEPT

A

Answer - D
A. Act ethically.
B. Empower.
C. Create and maintain healthy boundaries.
D. Give advice.

38
Q

True or False: If a victim of sexual assault contacts SAPR and does not sign the DD Form 2910, the SARC is NOT required to report the incident to law enforcement.

A

True

39
Q

For restricted reports, what information should be provided to the appropriate Commander?

A

Non-identifying information only

40
Q

True or False: Most victims are assaulted by someone they know

A

True

41
Q

Who is responsible for entering reports into DSAID within 48 hours (96 hours in deployed environments)?

A

SARC

42
Q

The _______ is responsible for providing the victim with a monthly case status update no later than 72 hours after the Case Management Group (CMG) meeting.

A

Victim’s Commander

43
Q

True or False: A victim advocate should include detailed notes about the victim’s description of the assault in their report to the SARC.

A

False

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of active listening?

A

Providing quick reassurance and solutions

45
Q

When working with an advocate who is experiencing vicarious trauma, the SARC should encourage the SAPR VA to do which of the following:

A

D - ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Ask for help.
B. Keep perspective.
C. Maintain healthy boundaries.

46
Q

Pete is a National Guard member who identifies as LGBTQIA+ and is a victim of male-on-male sexual assault. He told his family that he was assaulted and his father stated, “well what did you expect to happen given the lifestyle you are living?” What did Pete experience from his father?

A

Secondary victimization

47
Q

Who is the chair of the High risk response team (HRRT)?

A

Victim’s immediate commander

48
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the Office of Complex Investigations (OCI)?

A

OCI investigators come from an organization outside of the requesting state and are not members of the state’s National Guard.

49
Q

Which of the following is NOT a required member of the Case Management Group (CMG)?

A

All full-time SAPR VA’s with the state

50
Q

Which of the following is a possible barrier to reporting sexual assault?

A

D - ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Feeling scared
B. Self-blame
C. Fearing punishment for collateral misconduct (e.g., underage drinking)

51
Q

Michael is an E-3 who filed an unrestricted report. Which of the following is NOT a benefit he is eligible for?

A

Option to change to a restricted report at a later date

52
Q

In order to reach male survivors, SARCs & SAPR VAs should do the following EXCEPT:

A

Only use examples of male perpetrators and female victims in trainings/briefings

53
Q

Which is the BEST example of an effective technique for engaging kinesthetic learners?

A

Ask learners to engage in role plays to practice new skills.

54
Q

Adult learning theory encourage presenters to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Use very detailed, data rich power point presentation

55
Q

Which two types of complaints will an Inspector General ALWAYS handle?

A

Restriction and Reprisal

56
Q

What is one difference between Sexual Harassment and Sexual Assault?

A

Sexual harassment is a broad term, including many types of unwelcome verbal and physical sexual attention. Sexual assault refers to sexual contact or behavior, often physical, that occurs without the consent of the victim

57
Q

Which of the following responders has absolute privilege (with some State law exceptions)?

A

Chaplin

58
Q

This program offers survivors the opportunity to confidentially and anonymously submit information about the alleged offender and the incident to military criminal investigators with the goal of identifying serial offenders.

A

CATCH

59
Q

Cultural humility is a(n) ________ and ________ attitude towards individuals of other cultures that pushes one to challenge their own cultural biases, realize they cannot possibly know everything about other cultures, and approach learning about other cultures as _______________.”

A

Humble, respectful, a lifelong goal and process

60
Q

Which of the following are barriers that may be present for someone who is LGBTQIA+ after a sexual assault?

A

E - ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Not being believed
B. Fear of being “outed”
C. Not receiving proper medical care
D. Experiencing discrimination
E. All of the above

61
Q

In which document does the DoD SARC/Victim Advocate Code of Ethics reside?

A

DD form 2950

62
Q

True or False: It is the SARC or SAPR VA’s responsibility to maintain appropriate limits on the advocate-victim relationship.

A

True

63
Q

Which of the following may lead to a conflict of interest for SARCs and SAPR VAs?

A

D - ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Having a previous personal and/or working relationship with a victim.
B. Having a previous personal and/or working relationship with the alleged offender.
C. Advocate assigned to two different sexual assault cases where the victims are friends.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

64
Q

What is DD form 2965

A

DSAID data form

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason why a continuity binder is useful?

A

Once you’ve assembled your continuity binder, there’s no need to revisit it

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the mission of the Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Advisory Council (SAPRAC)?

A

Provide back-up coverage for SAPR personnel who go on leave

67
Q

What type of prevention takes places BEFORE violence occurs?

A

Primary

68
Q

In selecting a victim advocate, which of the following is considered a “screen-out factor?”

A

Someone still actively recovering rom sexual assault

69
Q

Which is a goal of primary prevention?

A

Implement policies, programs and practices that promote protective factors within organizations.

70
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of steps in the public health process?

A

Define the problem, (2) identify risk and protective factors, (3) develop and test prevention strategies, (4) assure widespread adoption

71
Q

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a SAPR program manager?

A

To create new SAPR policies for your program because the NGB policies don’t really work for your State.

72
Q

The following are best practices for building and maintaining community partnerships EXCEPT:

A

Let partners know that they can call you any time if they need information about clients.

73
Q

True or False. Memorandums of Agreement (MOAs) and Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs) are both types of support agreements.

A

True

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT a State SAPR Officer, Lead SARC, or SARC responsibility?

A

Files military proactive orders on behalf of victims

75
Q

Which of the following is an example of a protective factor for sexual assault prevention?

A

Higher empathy among peers

76
Q

The NGB-J1-S Compliance and Accountability (C&A) Branch conducts in-depth assessments of JFHQ and Air Wing SAPR Programs. What is the purpose of these assessments?

A

To conduct in-person program assessments to identify program deficiencies (assessing/assisting) and to collect best practices to share across the National Guard.

77
Q

True or False. Upon completion of the NGB Site Assessment and Assistance Visit (SAAV), the site has the opportunity to provide feedback and process improvement via survey.

A

True

78
Q

Effective program management includes all the following EXCEPT:

A

Staying focused on the details, not the “big pictures”

79
Q

Which of the following can be a benefit of building effective partnerships?

A

D - ALL OF THE ABOVE
A. Identifying and addressing gaps and potential duplication of services.
B. Enhancing options for culturally responsive services to survivors.
C. Understanding each partner’s confidentiality policies and limitations.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

80
Q

In terms of budget, what does obligation mean?

A

Refers to identifying/putting forward funds that you plan to use for a specific purpose.

81
Q

True or False. Stage 5 of the spend plan is “Reconciliation.” This process includes validation that all money has been executed as planned within the correct ESP code.

A

True

82
Q

The Quarterly Health of the Force Scorecards are considered what level of assessment within the National Guard?

A

Operational level

83
Q

True or False. It is appropriate for the SARC to maintain case notes outside of DSAID.

A

False

84
Q

This branch within NGB-J1-S was designed to standardize and enhance the oversight of SAPR policies, SAPR program elements such as manning, credentialing, budget, training, cases, and CMGs conducted, and to expand the SAPR program knowledge base.

A

Compliance & Accountability

Joint SAPR (1 decks)

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