Joint Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best way to distinguish joint from soft tissue disorders?

A

assess active and passive range of motion:

(1) tendon, ligament, bursa, and muscle disorders => affect active ROM
(2) nerve entrapment => active ROM normal/associated with poorly localized pain/burning/parathesia
(3) join disorders => both active and passive ROM limited

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2
Q

What parameters should be assessed in the diagnostic approach to joint pain?

A

distribution, timing (acute versus chronic), inflammation, extra-articular manifestations

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3
Q

Which joint disorders have a polyarticular (> 4 joints) distribution?

A

=> rheumatoid arthritis - symmetric, small joints (wrists, hands)
=> lupus - symmetric, small joints
=> viral infections (Hep B and C, EBV, HIV, Parvovirus B19) - symmetric, smaller joints (acute pain - lasts less than 6 weeks)

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4
Q

Which joint disorders have a mono/oligoarticular (1-3 joints) distribution?

A

=> osteoarthritis - weight bearing joints (hips, knees, lower spine)
=> septic arthritis - monoarticular
=> crystal arthritis (gout [uric acid]/peudo-gout [claclium]) - monoarticular (most common 1st metatarsophalangeal)
=> ankylosing spondylitis - severe back pain in young patients (bamboo appearance of spine)
=> Lyme arthritis
=> psoriatic arthritis
=> arthritis associated with IBD
=> reactive arthritis associated with immune response to bacterial infections (immune/antibody-antigen complexes against bacteria affect joints - it is not the bacteria itself that affects joints)

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5
Q

What distinguishes joint disorders by timing?

A

(1) monoarticular disorders - osteoarthritis = chronic; gout/septic arthritis = acute; reactive arthritis = subacute
(2) polyarticular - RA and SLE > 6-8 weeks; viral causes <= 6 weeks

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of inflammation in joint disorders?

A

erythema, warmth, swelling, stiffness (“gelling”) during periods of inactivity (better with exercise, a hot shower, and movement)

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7
Q

What is the best question to ask a patient with arthritis to determine whether condition is caused by inflammation?

A

how the patient feels first thing in the morning - improvement with activity is indicative of inflammatory arthritis (osteoarthritis is the only arthritic condition that is not inflammatory)

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8
Q

What are the types and characteristics of inflammatory arthritis?

A

RA, SLE, ankylosing spondylitis, gout, septic => prolonged morning stiffness (> 1 hour), stiffness/pain improves with movement, joint effusion (soft joint swelling/bogginess), redness, warmth, examine joint from sides, ESR/CRP elevated

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9
Q

What are the types and characteristics of non-inflammatory arthritis?

A

osteoarthritis => no/minimal morning stiffness (< 30 minutes), pain worse with activity, bony crepitus, mild tenderness, hard/bony joint enlargement, NO redness/warmth/effusion, ESR/CRP normal

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10
Q

What are common extra-articular symptoms in joint disorders?

A

=> SLE - multiple: skin lesions, renal manifestations MUST be present for diagnosis
=> RA - few: skin lesions are unusual and limited to subcutaneous nodules
=> OA - none
=> psoriatic arthritis - skin (plaques) and nails (pitting)
=> HIV/Hepatitis - asymptomatic or multiple systematic symptoms

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11
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

chronic, progressive, autoimmune inflammatory disorder - autoimmune complexes produce cytokines (TNF and interleukins) that recruit more cells to site => leads to proliferation of synovium, erosion of bone, and joint deformities (at advanced stages)

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12
Q

What is the clinical presentation of RA?

A

symmetric, small joint involvement that spares the distal interphalangeal joints, and lasts >= 6 weeks, morning stiffness (> 1 hour) that improves with activity, joints are swollen/boggy/warm/erythematous, limited active and passive ROM, deformities in advanced disease

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13
Q

What are possible extra-articular manifestations of RA?

A

very rare: nodules on exterior surfaces, anemia of chronic disease, fatigue, osteoporosis, pleural effusion, pericarditis
=> RA is associated with an increased risk of CV death independent of other risk factors (possibly due to inflammatory response)

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14
Q

How is RA diagnosed?

A

clinical diagnosis - polyarticular, > 6 weeks duration, not attributable to viral cause or SLE

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15
Q

Which tests support the clinical diagnosis of RA (should never be used as sole criteria for diagnosis)?

A

=> elevated ESR/CRP
=> + rheumatoid factor (antibodies against one’s own antibodies) - high titers in patients with classic symptoms predicts RA
=> + anti-cyclic citrulinated peptide (peptides are part of normal process of cell death - usually stay within cells but are released from dying cells in RA and produce significant inflammatory response) - indicates both disease presence and severity
=> + abnormalities on x-ray (soft tissue swelling, bone erosions, joint narrowing, small joint effusions, metacarpalphalangeal ulnar deviations, Swan Neck deformities/DIP flexion/PIP hyperextension)

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16
Q

What are the goals of RA treatment?

A

(1) stop progression of disease (not curable)

2) improve symptoms (minimize pain and improve mobility

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17
Q

Which RA treatments are used to improve symptoms?

A

NSAIDs +/- steroids:
=> renal disease absolute contraindication for NSAIDs - reduces GFR (give steroids)
=> cannot give steroids long-term (too many side effects)

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18
Q

Which RA treatments are used to slow disease progression (disease modifyng antirheumatic drugs [DMARDs])?

A

(1) 1st line therapy = methotrexate - dosage is 10X smaller than that given for cancer (does not inhibit DNA synthesis at such small dosage) - contraindicated in pregnancy => need to monitor liver enzymes, CBC, and renal function
(2) TNF inhibitors = adalimubab/Humira and infliximab/Ramicade - more precise mechanism of action (inhibits only one specific protein of inflammation) but much more expensive => must first screen for TB (TNF acts as glue to contain granulomas - giving TNF inhibitors reactivates TB)

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19
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)?

A

autoimmune disease against one’s own DNA with multiple organ involvement (complexes deposit in multiple organs) - follows a relapsing and remitting course (unpredictable flares) => non-erosive arthritis

20
Q

What is the progression in SLE?

A

genetic and environmental triggers cause an abnormal immune response that result in the formation of auto-antibody immune complexes => inflammation and organ damage (renal failure, pulmonary fibrosis, and stroke)

21
Q

What is the clinical presentation of SLE?

A

=> skin manifestations (70%):
- acute malar (butterfly) rash, alopecia, painless oral ulcers
- chronic discoid rash (raised edges/leaves scars)
- subacute photosensitivity rash (sun exposed areas/”sunburn” that lasts months)
=> lupus nephritis (70%)
=> less common: arthritis, cardiac and pulmonary manifestations, CNS abnormalities (headaches, cognitive/behavioral dysfunction, depression, seizures), hematologic manifestations (anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia), constitutional (fatigue, weight loss, fever, myalgia)

22
Q

How is SLE diagnosed?

A

clinical diagnosis

23
Q

Which tests support the diagnosis of SLE?

A

=> + anti-nuclear antibody (antibody against one’s own DNA) - hallmark of SLE (should be initial test)
=> + anti-dsDNA (antibodies against double stranded DNA) - used to confirm the diagnosis if ANA is + (most specific diagnostic test)
=> decreased complement level in SLE flare
=> x-ray negative (non-erosive arthritis)

24
Q

What is lupus nephritis?

A

deposition of immune complexes/proteins in glomerular capillary membrane - need to test for proteins in urine (cannot use urine dip since dip only detects microalbuminuria)

25
Q

How is lupus nephritis diagnosed?

A

initial tests and monitoring:
=> serum for creatinine/GFR
=> urinalysis for protein and RBCs (dysmorphic - change in shape of RBCs)
=> 24 hour urine collection for urine protein (perform if protein or RBCs detected)

definitive diagnosis:
=> renal biopsy - used to determine approach to therapy

26
Q

What is the treatment for SLE?

A

acute exacerbations - corticosteroids
maintenance/prevention:
=> sun screen
=> hydoxycholoroquine (Plaquenil) for skin rashes, arthritis, and prevent flares
=> cytotoxic drugs (cyclophosphamide IV) for severe lupus nephritis

27
Q

What are the side effects of methotrexate?

A

GI upset, liver toxicity, marrow suppression
=> monitor CBC, liver function, renal function
=> screen for viral hepatitis prior
=> contraindicated in pregnancy (folate antagonist)

28
Q

What are the side effects of TNF inhibitors?

A

reactivation of latent TB, fungal and bacterial infections
=> screen for TB, HIV, viral hepatitis prior - repeat TB screening annually
=> low risk in pregnancy - should be continued

29
Q

What are the side effect of hydroxycholoroquine?

A

retinal damage - rare but irreversible => requires fundoscopic exam by specialist prior and annually

30
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

degenerative/non-inflammatory disorder affecting cartilage (wear and tear), progressive (increases with age), affects weight bearing joint (knees, hips, lumbar spine), can affect distal interphalangeal joints

31
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of OA?

A

monoarticular/oligoarticular joint involvement, pain relieved by rest/worse with activity, morning joint stiffness < 30 minutes, hard/bony enlargement, crepitus, limited ROM (active and passive), no systemic symptoms

32
Q

How is OA diagnosed?

A

clinical diagnosis

33
Q

Which tests support a diagnosis of OA?

A

normal ESR/CRP, abnormalities on x-ray (joint space narrowing, osteophytes/bone overgrowth, subchondral bone damage/sclerosis, NO bone erosions)

34
Q

What are the common joint abnormalities in OA?

A

Bouchards nodes (proximal joints) and Heberden’s nodes (distal joints) = B before H (Bouchards nodes are proximal)

35
Q

What is the treatment for OA?

A

=> weight loss
=> regular exercise to improve joint ROM and muscle strength
=> start with acetaminophen - NSAIDs (topical or oral)
=> intra-articular injection (no more than 3-4 per year)
=> surgery only for serious disability
=> nutritional products (OTC glucosamine and chondtrotin sulfate) show NO good evidence of benefit

36
Q

What is gout?

A

NOT a joint disorder - metabolic disorder
=> manifestation of hyperuricemia (increased production or decreased excretion)
=> deposition of monosodium urate crystals in lower joints because needs lower temperature
=> more prominent in patients with chronic renal disease (uric acid cannot be excreted by kidneys)
=> most commonly 1st metatarsophalangeal joint (base of the great toe/podagra)

37
Q

Which substances can precipitate a gout attack?

A

=> beer, red meat, seafood

=> medications - niacin, thiazides, ASA

38
Q

What is the mechanism of formation of uric acid?

A

byproduct of purines (nucleic acids) - any release of DNA causes increase in purines => foods with a lot of cells and cells with high turnover rates (cancer) produce more purines

39
Q

What are the manifestations of gouty arthritis?

A

sudden onset of exquisite joint pain (often wakes from sleep), inflammation (redness, warmth, swelling, tenderness), tophi (aggregation of urate crystals under the skin - occur in recurrent and poorly controlled gout)

40
Q

How is gout diagnosed?

A

=> elevated serum uric acid (can be normal in 25% of patients)
=> x-ray normal during early stages (bone erosions in chronic/recurrent gout)
=> elevated ESR/CRP - non-specific
=> diagnostic = aspiration of synovial fluids (WBCs 5,000-50,000 cells with neutrophils < 75% and needle-shaped crystals on microscopic exam)

41
Q

What are the results of synovial fluid analysis in OA, gout, and septic arthritis?

A

(1) OA: WBCs < 5,000; PMN < 25%, negative for crystals
(2) gout/pseudo-gout: WBCs 5,000-50,000, PMN > 50%, needle-shaped crystals (gout) or rhomboid crystals (pseudo-gout)
(3) septic arthritis: WBCs > 50,000, PMN > 75%, negative for crystals

42
Q

How is the clinical diagnosis of gout made?

A

the presence of more risk factors increases the confidence in the diagnosis (joint aspiration only if needed - requires vigilant follow-up due to possibility of joint erosion):

  • acute onset (maximal symptoms within one day)
  • joint erythema
  • Hx of chronic kidney disease
  • male patient
  • previous attack of arthritis/joint pain
  • 1st metatarsophalangeal joint involved
  • serum uric acid > 6 mg/dl
43
Q

What is the treatment for an acute attack of gout?

A

=> NSAIDs +/- Colchicine (anti-inflammatory - used for acute flares) - reduce doses or avoid in patients with renal disease
=> steroids - if poor response to initial therapy or for patients with renal insufficiency

44
Q

What is preventive therapy for gout attacks?

A

=> reduce intake of alcohol (especially beer) and high purine foods (red meat, organ meat, seafood)
=> urate lowering medications if > 2 attacks per year

45
Q

What are the urate lowering medications used in the treatment of gout?

A

drugs that decrease production of uric acid to prevent flares:
=> allopurinol (1st line) - prevents conversion of purine to uric acid (reduces the amount of uric acid in the blood - purines remain in the blood but are used for DNA synthesis)
=> febuxostat (Uloric) - used in patients who cannot tolerate allopurinol

drugs that increase excretion of uric acid from the kidney:
=> probenecid - less effective and contraindicated in renal insufficiency

46
Q

How is urate lowering therapy implemented?

A

initiated between flares (use during an attack can incrase uric acid levels and worsen attack) - start low and titrate to uric acid level < 6 mg/dl (crystals form at uric acid levels higher than 6 mg/dl)