JN0-343 Online Flashcards
On an edge router, you want to create a default route with a next hop to an external connection. The route should be available only when you are receiving routes from the external provider. Which type of route would you configure on your device to accomplish this objective?
A.
an aggregate route
B.
a generated route
C.
a primary contributing route
D.
a static route
Show Answer
B.
a generated route
Which configuration command would you use to add an IPv6 static route to your Junos device?
A.
set routing-options static route 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
B.
set routing-options static route inet6 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
C.
set routing-options static route ipv6 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
D.
set routing-options rib inet6.0 static route 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
D.
set routing-options rib inet6.0 static route 0::/0 next-hop fec0:0:2003::2
You configured an aggregate route of 192.168.8.0/21 and committed the updated configuration. Using an operational show command, you notice that the newly configured route is not present in the output. What would explain this behavior?
A.
The next hop is not resolvable.
B.
The next hop is not reachable.
C.
There are no active contributing routes.
D.
An aggregate route will not show up in the local table; it will be shared only with BGP neighbors.
C.
There are no active contributing routes.
You want several different subnets within your enterprise network to be reachable from outside the enterprise network. Your edge router must share a single route advertisement about these subnets with external devices. If one of the subnets is unavailable, your edge router should drop any traffic destined to that subnet. Which type of route, configured on the edge device with default behavior, accomplishes these objectives?
A.
an aggregate route
B.
a generated route
C.
a primary contributing route
D.
an OSPF route
A.
an aggregate route
You run the operational-mode command show ospf neighbor and notice that an expected OSPF neighbor on a broadcast link is not detected. Which three issues cause this behavior? (Choose three.)
A.
A problem exists with the physical link or Data Link Layer connectivity.
B.
The router IDs on the two devices do not match.
C.
The IP subnet mask does not match on each end of the link.
D.
The area type does not match on each end of the link.
E.
The AS number on the two devices do not match.
A.
A problem exists with the physical link or Data Link Layer connectivity.
C.
The IP subnet mask does not match on each end of the link.
D.
The area type does not match on each end of the link.
You execute the operational-mode command show ospf neighbor and notice that one neighbor relationship remains in the exStart state. What causes this behavior?
A.
The area IDs do not match on each end of the link.
B.
The authentication parameters do not match on each end of the link.
C.
The dead interval does not match on each end of the link.
D.
The MTU does not match on each end of the link.
D.
The MTU does not match on each end of the link.
You are viewing the Ethernet switching table and notice that a previous entry is no longer listed. What is a valid reason for an entry to be removed from the table?
A.
The learning limit is exceeded.
B.
The filtering threshold is exceeded.
C.
The MAC aging timer expired.
D.
The ARP aging timer expired.
C.
The MAC aging timer expired.
Which mechanism keeps a switch from forwarding Layer 2 traffic from one broadcast domain to another?
A.
filtering
B.
BPDU guard
C.
aging
D.
learning
A.
filtering
An EX Series switch receives an Ethernet frame with a destination MAC address that is not in the bridging table. How does the Junos OS handle the received frame?
A.
The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and drops the frame.
B.
The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and floods discovery BPDUs.
C.
The Junos OS learns the source MAC address forwards the frame towards the root bridge.
D.
The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and floods the frame.
Show Answer
D.
The Junos OS learns the source MAC address and floods the frame.
Which three actions are valid methods to clear all entries from the Ethernet switching table on an EX Series switch? (Choose three.)
A.
Restart theeswd process.
B.
Issue the cleararp operational-mode command.
C.
Reboot the switch.
D.
Issue the clearethernet-switching table operational-mode command.
E.
Restart therpd process.
A.
Restart theeswd process.
C.
Reboot the switch.
D.
Issue the clearethernet-switching table operational-mode command.
You are viewing the output of the operational-mode command show interfaces ge-0/0/4 on an EX Series switch in which no ether-options are configured for the ge-0/0/4 interface. Which two default
settings are listed in the output? (Choose two.)
A.
Speed: Auto
B.
Speed: 1000mpbs
C.
Duplex: Auto
D.
Duplex: Full-Duplex
A.
Speed: Auto
C.
Duplex: Auto
You must route both IPv4 and IPv6 packets in your environment. Which configuration should you add at the [edit protocols] level to allow you to accomplish this objective?
A.
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
}
}
B.
ospf {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
family inet6;
}
}
C.
ospf3 {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
}
}
D.
ospf3 {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
allow ipv4;
}
}
C.
ospf3 {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface all;
}
}C.
show ospf databaseYou see a route in your local routing table that was learned using OSPF. Which command allows you to determine where the route originated?
A.
show ospf route
B.
show route protocol ospf
C.
show ospf database
D.
show ospf log
C.
show ospf database
Which two events trigger an IS-IS LSP to be sent to a neighboring IS? (Choose two)
A.
When a new IS-IS neighbor is detected.
B.
When the cost of a link to an existing IS-IS neighbor has changed.
C.
When a CSNP requests missing information.
D.
When a device does not receive an expected IIH PDU.
A.
When a new IS-IS neighbor is detected.
B.
When the cost of a link to an existing IS-IS neighbor has changed.
What does the attach bit in an IS-IS PDU indicate?
A.
The L1/L2 router is exporting a default route into the area.
B.
The L1/L2 router has reachability information to another IS-IS area.
C.
The L1/L2 router is sending information from Level 2 towards Level 1.
D.
The L1/L2 router is sending information from Level 1 towards Level 2.
B.
The L1/L2 router has reachability information to another IS-IS area.
On a broadcast network, which three statements are true about IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose three.)
A.
Peers send full copies of databases at regular intervals.
B.
IIH PDUs are used as a keepalive mechanism.
C.
Peers can request missing link-state information.
D.
An elected DIS retains its status as long as the device remains up.
E.
Peers acknowledge receipt of link-state updates.
B.
IIH PDUs are used as a keepalive mechanism.
C.
Peers can request missing link-state information.
E.
Peers acknowledge receipt of link-state updates.
Which two prerequisites does IS-IS need to operate? (Choose two.)
A.
IS-IS must be able to communicate between devices using IP.
B.
IS-IS must be able to communicate using CLNS.
C.
IS-IS must have a valid IP address configured on the loopback.
D.
IS-IS must have a valid CLNS address.
B.
IS-IS must be able to communicate using CLNS.
D.
IS-IS must have a valid CLNS address.
You configure a metric of 200 on an IS-IS enabled interface on Router-1. When you examine the routing table entry for that link on another IS-IS device, you see a metric of 67. What would explain this behavior?
A.
Router-1 is sending both standard and wide metrics.
B.
Router-1 is sending only wide metrics.
C.
Router-1 has a metric multiplier set.
D.
Router-1 has a configured reference bandwidth.
A.
Router-1 is sending both standard and wide metrics.
A switch has just come online and currently has no learned unicast entries in its bridge table. Which two statements regarding this switch and its operations are true? (Choose two.)
A.
All frames received through a switch port will be flooded out all other switch ports belonging to the same VLAN.
B.
All broadcast frames received through a switch port will be flooded out all switch ports, regardless of the VLAN.
C.
The switch will dynamically add MAC entries to the bridge table for the destination MAC address listed in received frames.
D.
The switch will dynamically add MAC entries to the bridge table for the source MAC address listed in received frames.
A.
All frames received through a switch port will be flooded out all other switch ports belonging to the same VLAN.
D.
The switch will dynamically add MAC entries to the bridge table for the source MAC address listed in received frames
What is one benefit of a switched LAN?
A.
It enables the LAN to forward non-IP traffic.
B.
It ensures that all hosts can reach each other by flooding all traffic to all ports.
C.
It limits memory use by eliminating the need for a bridging table.
D.
It limits the collision domain.
D.
It limits the collision domain.
A.
collision domains
B.
multicast domains
C.
broadcast domains
D.
virtual domains
C.
broadcast domains
What are two switch port default settings on EX Series switches? (Choose two.)
A.
Set as trunk mode.
B.
Set with VLAN ID 0.
C.
Set with the native VLAN.
D.
Set as access mode.
B.
Set with VLAN ID 0.
D.
Set as access mode.
Which two configurations are valid methods for associating a VLAN with an interface on EX Series switches? (Choose two.)
A.
{master:0}[edit interfaces]
user@ex# show
ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members v100;
}
}
}
}
B.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan v100;
}
}
C.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
vlan-tagging;
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan v100;
}
}
D.
{master:0}[edit vlans]
user@ex# show
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/0/4.0;
}
}
A.
{master:0}[edit interfaces]
user@ex# show
ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members v100;
}
}
}
}
D.
{master:0}[edit vlans]
user@ex# show
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/0/4.0;
}
}
No user-defined configuration exists for the default VLAN. Which configuration is valid on EX Series switches?
A.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v4 v3 ];
}
native-vlan-id default;
}
}
B.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v4 default ];
}
}
}
C.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members [ v4 default ];
}
}
}
D.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode access;
vlan {
members [ v4 Voice ];
}
}
}
A.
{master:0}[edit interfaces ge-0/0/4]
user@ex# show
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v4 v3 ];
}
native-vlan-id default;
}
}By default, which VLAN ID value is associated with the default VLAN on EX Series switches?
A.
0
B.
1
C.
32
D.
255
A.
0
On which interface would an IP address be configured for a routed VLAN interface?
A.
ge-0/0/20.100
B.
vlan.100
C.
rvi.100
D.
l3-interface.100
B.
vlan.100
Which operational-mode command displays the IP address of all routed VLAN interfaces (RVIs)?
A.
show interfaces terse vlan
B.
show interfaces terservi
C.
show interfaces tersege-*
D.
show vlans terse
A.
show interfaces terse vlan
Which three configurations are required for an operational routed VLAN interface (RVI)? (Choose three.)
A.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show ethernet-switching vlan-map
vlan-id 10;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
}
B.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
C.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces vlan.10
family inet {
address 192.168.10.1/24;
}
D.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces rvi.1
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
}
E.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show vlans v10
vlan-id 10;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
} l3-interface vlan.10;
B.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces ge-0/0/1
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
C.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show interfaces vlan.10
family inet {
address 192.168.10.1/24;
}
E.
{master:0}[edit]
user@ex# show vlans v10
vlan-id 10;
interface {
ge-0/0/1.0;
} l3-interface vlan.10;
Which function(s) does STP serve in a Layer 2 network?
A.
It detects and stops broadcast storms.
B.
It distributes VLAN information between switches when a VLAN spans more than one switch.
C.
It detects and eliminates loops.
D.
It manages aggregated Ethernet bundles that span more than one switch.
C.
It detects and eliminates loops.
Which protocol or feature detects and eliminates Layer 2 loops in a network?
A.
RTG
B.
STP
C.
LACP
D.
GVRP
B.
STP
Which two statements are true regarding BPDUs of spanning tree protocols? (Choose two.)
A.
Configuration BPDUs function askeepalives in STP and RSTP.
B.
BPDUs are sent by the designated bridge but not the backup bridge on shared segments.
C.
Configuration BPDUs are sent by both switches on point-to-point connections.
D.
Configuration BPDUs are not sent out interfaces configured as edge ports.
C.
Configuration BPDUs are sent by both switches on point-to-point connections.
D.
Configuration BPDUs are not sent out interfaces configured as edge ports.
You just implemented a Layer 2 network that uses RSTP. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.
All operational switch ports configured for edge mode will immediately transition to the forwarding state.
B.
All operational switch ports configured for full-duplex operation will function in point-to-point mode.
C.
You must manually specify the interfaces you want to operate in point-to-point mode.
D.
Edge ports automatically discard received BPDUs.
A.
All operational switch ports configured for edge mode will immediately transition to the forwarding state.
B.
All operational switch ports configured for full-duplex operation will function in point-to-point mode
You just implemented RSTP in your Layer 2 network. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.
Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in indirect-recovery mode can immediately transition to the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the timer to expire.
B.
Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in shared mode can immediately transition to the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the timer to expire.
C.
Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in point-to-point mode can immediately transition to the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the
timer to expire.
D.
Switch ports operating as edge ports automatically transition to the forwarding state, even directly after a failure and recovery scenario.
C.
Switch ports in the alternate port role operating in point-to-point mode can immediately transition to the root port role and forwarding state when a failure occurs without waiting for the
timer to expire.
D.
Switch ports operating as edge ports automatically transition to the forwarding state, even directly after a failure and recovery scenario.
You just installed Switch-1 and Switch-2 in your network. Both switches are EX Series switches and are connected to each other using a Layer 2 switch port. Switch-1 must run STP, whereas Switch-2 must run RSTP. Given the scenario, which statement is true?
A.
The two switches communicate using RSTP.
B.
The two switches will not communicate using STP or RSTP.
C.
The two switches communicate using STP.
D.
The two switches run in dual-mode and communicate using STP and RSTP.
C.
The two switches communicate using STP.
You recently implemented a Layer 2 network using RSTP. Which three statements are true regarding a topology change reconvergence scenario? (Choose three.)
A.
Switches do not flush MAC addresses learned from edge ports.
B.
When a port transitions to the discarding state on edge ornonedge ports, TCNs are generated and flooded.
C.
When a port transitions to the forwarding state onnonedge ports, the local switch generates and floods TCNs.
D.
Switches do not flush MAC addresses learned through the same port through which TCNs are received.
E.
When a port transitions to the forwarding state on edge ports, the local switch generates and floods TCNs.
You recently implemented a Layer 2 network using RSTP. Which three statements are true regarding a topology change reconvergence scenario? (Choose three.)
A.
Switches do not flush MAC addresses learned from edge ports.
C.
When a port transitions to the forwarding state onnonedge ports, the local switch generates and floods TCNs.
D.
Switches do not flush MAC addresses learned through the same port through which TCNs are received.
What is one benefit of the root protection feature?
A.
It guards against loops caused by unidirectional link failures.
B.
It ensures downstream switches never become the root bridge.
C.
It disables the port when it detects that a loop has formed over an edge port.
D.
It guards against loops caused by a changed root bridge ID.
B.
It ensures downstream switches never become the root bridge.
Why would you configure root protection?
A.
You want to protect the root bridge from receiving BPDUs on unauthorized interfaces.
B.
You want to protect your network from unwanted topology changes from a rogue switch attempting to become the root bridge.
C.
You want to avoid a broadcast storm that originates on the root bridge.
D.
You want to prevent unwanted user authentication to the root bridge by defining an acceptable source-address list for authorized access.
B.
You want to protect your network from unwanted topology changes from a rogue switch attempting to become the root bridge.
You want to secure an interface on a switch so that a rogue switch running STP can not be plugged into this interface. What accomplishes this objective?
A.
BPDU protection
B.
edge protection
C.
rogue protection
D.
root protection
A.
BPDU protection
You want your switch to disable an edge port when it receives spanning tree communications on that port. Which feature accomplishes this objective?
A.
RSTP edge port
B.
BPDU protection
C.
root protection
D.
switch protection
B.
BPDU protection
What is one benefit of the root protection feature?
A.
It guards against loops caused by unidirectional link failures.
B.
It ensures downstream switches never become the root bridge.
C.
It disables the port when it detects that a loop has formed over an edge port.
D.
It guards against loops caused by a changed root bridge ID.
B.
It ensures downstream switches never become the root bridge.
You have altered the factory-default storm control configuration so that interfaces on which the storm control level is exceeded are temporarily shut down for five minutes. Which two methods can you use to monitor that the auto recovery feature is working? (Choose two.)
A.
Issue the monitor traffic violations command.
B.
Issue the monitor start messages command.
C.
Issue the show storm-control violations command.
D.
Issue the showethernet-switching interfaces command.
B.
Issue the monitor start messages command.
D.
Issue the showethernet-switching interfaces command.
Which two statements accurately describe the factory-default storm control configuration? (Choose two.)
A.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic.
B.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for multicast traffic.
C.
Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent.
D.
Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 20 percent.
A.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic.
C.
Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent.
Which three statements accurately describe the factory-default storm control configuration? (Choose three.)
A.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic.
B.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for unknown unicast traffic.
C.
Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent.
D.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for multicast traffic.
E.
Storm control shuts down the interface on which the storm control level is exceeded.
A.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic.
B.
Storm control monitors traffic levels for unknown unicast traffic.
C.
Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent.
You want to alter the factory-default storm control configuration so that interfaces on which the storm control level is exceeded are temporarily shut down for five minutes. Which configuration excerpt accomplishes this objective?
A.
{master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
storm-control {
action-shutdown;
interface all;
error-disable {
disable-timeout 5;
}
}
B.
{master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
port-error-disable {
disable-timeout 300;
}
storm-control {
action-shutdown;
interface all;
}
C.
{master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
storm-control {
shutdown-action;
interface all;
error-disable {
disable-interval 5;
}
}
D.
{master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
port-error-disable {
disable-interval 300;
}
storm-control {
shutdown-action;
interface all;
}
B.
{master:0}[edit ethernet-switching-options]
user@Switch-1# show
port-error-disable {
disable-timeout 300;
}
storm-control {
action-shutdown;
interface all;
}What is the proper ingress processing sequence for firewall filters on an EX Series switch?
A.
router filter, port filter, VLAN filter
B.
port filter, VLAN filter, router filter
C.
router filter, VLAN filter, port filter
D.
VLAN filter, port filter, router filter
B.
port filter, VLAN filter, router filter
Which three types of firewall filters are supported on EX Series switches? (Choose three.)
A.
router filters
B.
switch filters
C.
source filters
D.
VLAN filters
E.
port filters
A.
router filters
D.
VLAN filters
E.
port filters
You want to configure per-flow equal-cost multipath (ECMP) load balancing for only the OSPF routes on Router-1. Which configuration example accomplishes this?
A.
protocols {
ospf {
export EMCP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
B.
routing-options {
export ECMP;
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
C.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
D.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance ECMP;
}
}
}
}
C.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}You want to configure per-flow load balancing for all routes on Router-1. Which configuration example accomplishes this?
A.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
B.
routing-options {
export ECMP;
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
C.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
D.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
from protocol ospf;
then {
load-balance ECMP;
}
}
}
A.
routing-options {
forwarding-table {
export ECMP;
}
}
policy-options {
policy-statement ECMP {
term first {
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}Router-A has an OSPF route to destination 172.18.3.0/24 with four equal-cost paths .How will Router-A forward traffic destined to 172.18.3.5 based on Junos OS’s default behavior?
A.
Traffic will be load-balanced on all four available paths.
B.
Traffic will be forwarded over the one path installed in the forwarding table.
C.
Traffic forwarding will be rotated across each of the four paths for 1 minute on each path.
D.
Traffic forwarding behavior depends on the hardware platform.
B.
Traffic will be forwarded over the one path installed in the forwarding table.
B.
Traffic will be forwarded over the one path installed in the forwarding table.
A.
incoming interface
B.
source MAC address
C.
protocol
D.
source IP address
