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Dispatcher Oral Questions > Jepp FAA Question Bank > Flashcards

Jepp FAA Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What is Operational Control?

A

With respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.

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2
Q

What is the standard temperature lapse rate?

A

2 degrees C per 1000ft

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3
Q

Explain the three types of icing?

A

Rime
Mixed
Clear

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4
Q

What does RVSM stand For?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums

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5
Q

What is RNP?

A

Required Navigation Performance

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6
Q

What is MNPS?

A

Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications

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7
Q

What does NATS Stand for?

A

North Atlantic Track System

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8
Q

What does PACOTS Stand for?

A

Pacific Oceanic Track System

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9
Q

All Company communications should be kept on file and recorded for how long? FAR 121.711

A

30 days

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10
Q

What are the four forces of flight?

A

Lift
Weight
Thrust
Drag

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11
Q

Who is responsible for operational control for a domestic Airline? 121.533

A

Dispatcher and PIC

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12
Q

Who is responsible for operational control for a flag airline? 121.533

A

Dispatcher and PIC

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13
Q

Who is responsible for operational control for a supplemental airline? 121.537

A

Director of Operations and PIC

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14
Q

What is the standard minimum visibility required for takeoff for a two engine airplane? 91.175

A

1SM

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15
Q

What is the standard minimum visibility required for takeoff of a three or more engine airplane? 91.175

A

1/2 SM

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16
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate? 121.617

A

When the weather at your departure airport is below the landing minimums listed in the Operations Specifications.

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17
Q

What are the rules for listing a take off alternate for an aircraft with 2 engines? 121.617

A

Takeoff alternate cannot be more than 1hr in still air, one engine INOP, at normal cruise speed

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18
Q

What are the rules for listing a takeoff alternate for an aircraft with 3 engines? 121.617

A

Take off alternate cannot be more than 2hrs in still air, one engine inop, at normal Cruise speed.

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19
Q

What must the weather be at that Alternate airport to file as a T/O alternate? 121.617

A

Weather must meet the alternate minimums listed in the OPS Specs for that airport at the time of arrivial

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19
Q

If listing an alternate for your departure airport what is the weather to legally list it as a take off alternate airport?

A

Weather must be greater than the landing minimums listed in the OPS Specs for that airport at the time of arrival and meet alternate weather minimums.

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20
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Radio Range

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21
Q

Is the dispatcher required by regulation to be familiar with weather along the planned route? 121.465

A

Yes, the dispatcher should monitor the weather for the entire flight

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22
Q

What are the approach minimums for a category I aircraft?

A

200ft ceilings and 1/2 mile

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23
Q

What is Squawk 7500?

A

Air piracy

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24
Q

What is squawk 7600?

A

Lost communications

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25
Q

What is squawk 7700?

A

Emergency or Distressed aircraft

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26
Q

When do you required a destination alternate for a domestic flight? 121.619

A

1-2-3 Rule If one hour before or one hour after the ETA the weather is below 2000ft ceiling or 3SM than an alternate airport must be listed

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27
Q

If the weather at the destination and first alternate are marginal what must you do? 121.619

A

Must list a second alternate airport if the first destination alternate is marginal

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28
Q

To which alternate must you have fuel on board? 121.639

A

Must have enough fuel to the most distant alternate

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29
Q

What are the regulator standards for the weather minimums for filing a destination alternate for a precision approach? 91.169

A

600-2 for a precision approach

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30
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

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31
Q

How often are TAF’s updated?

A

Every 6 Hours

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32
Q

What is a “high minimums” captain? 121.652

A

A PIC who has not served 100hrs in that type of aircraft

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33
Q

What is the minimum fuel required to be onboard a domestic flight? 121.639

A

A. Flight to the airport to which it was dispatched.
B. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate
C. Thereafter, to fly for 45minutes at normal cruising fuel.

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34
Q

Where do you find the general operating rules that apply to all flights?

A

14 CFR Part 91

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35
Q

You have a high mins captain what special rule applies? 121.652

A

Must add 100-1/2 to destination minimums. DO NOT NEED to add 100-1/2 to alternate but can Never be less than 300-1

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36
Q

What kind of information will you find in your company’s Ops Specs?

A

Company Address
Company Officers
Approved Equipment (aircraft)
Approved Routing System
Approved Destination, Alternate, and provisional Airports

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37
Q

Does each airline have its own Ops Specs or do all airlines share one Ops Specs?

A

Each airline has their own ops specs. An operation specification is unique to each airline.

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38
Q

What does MEL stand for and what does it contain?

A

Minimum Equipment List and contains the aircraft systems that may be inoperative and still be legally dispatched.

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39
Q

What does CDL stand for and what does it contain?

A

Configuration Deviation List and contains external items of an aircraft that may be missing or inoperative and still be legally dispatched.

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40
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A

Notice to Airmen which is very time critical information that must be checked before each flight is dispatched.

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41
Q

What does ATIS stand for?

A

Automated Terminal Information Service

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42
Q

What information is provided in an ATIS?

A

Station Weather, Runways in use, NOTAMs, other airport remarks

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43
Q

What does FSS stand for?

A

Flight Service Station

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44
Q

What does AFSS stand for?

A

Automated flight service station

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45
Q

What does ARTCC stand for?

A

Air Route Traffic Control Center

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46
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System

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47
Q

Mode C provides what type of information for Air Traffic Controllers?

A

Altitude information

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48
Q

Define a mid-air collision?

A

An incident within the proximity of two aircraft 500ft or less OR a pilot reports a near mid air collision.

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49
Q

What are the dimensions of Class A Air space?

A

FL180 to FL600

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50
Q

What is the MAX speed below 10,000ft and/or in Class B airspace?

A

250kts

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51
Q

What is a MOA?

A

Military Operating Area

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52
Q

What is a MORA?

A

Minimum Off-Route Altitude

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53
Q

What does ADIZ stand for?

A

Air defense identification zone

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54
Q

What is a TFR?

A

Temporary Flight Restriction

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55
Q

What is an ILS?

A

Instrument Landing System- provides both vertical and horizontal guidance information

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56
Q

What is a VASI?

A

Vertical approach slope indicator

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57
Q

What is a PAPI?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

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58
Q

What is a SID/DP?

A

Standard Instrument departure/Departure Procedure, they provide a smooth transition from the terminal environme to the ENROUTE phase of flight.

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59
Q

What is a LAHSO?

A

Land and hold short operations

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60
Q

What are the four categories of braking action?

A

Good, fair, poor, nil

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61
Q

Describe advection fog?

A

When warm air moves over a cold surface.

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62
Q

Looking at a metal when can you recognize a good chance of fog in the area?

A

when the Temp/Dew-point spread is 3 degrees C or less.

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63
Q

Is a high pressure system or dense or less dense than a low pressure system?

A

More dense

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64
Q

Is a high pressure system more stable or less stable than a low pressure system?

A

More stable

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65
Q

Who writes the operation specifications?

A

Each airline writes their own Operation Specifications

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66
Q

Who approves Operations Specifications?

A

FAA approves them

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67
Q

How many NOTAM classifications are there in the new “Super D” format?

A

there are 12 different classifications in the “Super D” format

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68
Q

Name two ways that NOTAMS are retrieved by dispatchers/

A
  1. Flight Service Station
  2. Company approved Flight Planning system.
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69
Q

What is the AFM?

A

Aircraft Flight Manual

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70
Q

What does PIREP Stand for?

A

Pilot Report

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71
Q

Who writes an AFM?

A

Aircraft manufacture writes the AFM

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72
Q

Who Approves the AFM?

A

They are approved by the governing state

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73
Q

What is 14 CFR PArt 25?

A

Airworthiness standards: Transport Category airplanes (certification)

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74
Q

What types of information are stored in the AFM?

A
  1. Limitations
  2. Performance data
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75
Q

What is the regulation for hazmat and dangerous goods?

A

49 CFR 172 and 175

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76
Q

What is 14 CFR part 121?

A

Part 121- Operating requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations

77
Q

What are the requirements to become an aircraft dispatcher?

A
  1. 23 years of age
  2. Must be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language.
  3. Pass the required knowledge test
  4. Pass the required practical test
  5. Statement of Graduation.
78
Q

What is 14 CFR part 65?

A

Certification: Airmen other than Flight crew members

79
Q

What is contained in 14 CFR Part 65 Subpart C?

A

Subpart C- Aircraft dispatchers

80
Q

What is V1

A

V1 is take off decision speed

81
Q

During manual flight planning do we round up or down for V1 and Why?

A

We round down for V1 to allow for a longer area for a rejected takeoff (RTO)

82
Q

What is BEW? What components make up the BEW?

A

Basic Empty Weight; Aircraft alone with unusable fluids.

83
Q

What is ZFW?

A

Zero Fuel Weight- Consists of everything for flight except fuel.

84
Q

If a pilot declares an emergency how many days do they have to submit a report?

A

Within 10days after returning to home base.

85
Q

If a dispatcher declares an emergency how man days do they have to submit a report?

A

Dispatcher must submit a report within 10 days.

86
Q

In the following METAR, using standard takeoff minimums can a 737-800 legally take off? Do I need an T/O Alternate?

KSTL 121645Z 18017KT 1/4 R18R/5000 VV001 13/9 A2995

A

Yes they are legal to take off due to the RVR 5000 =1SM. However, a T/O alternate is required due to indefinite ceiling of 100 feet.

87
Q

What is 14 CFR 121 Subpart T?

A

Subpart T - Flight Operations

88
Q

What is 14 CFR 121 Subpart U?

A

Subpart U -Dispatching and Flight Release Rules

89
Q

What is 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart P?

A

Subpart P- Aircraft dispatcher qualifications and duty time limitations: Domestic and Flag Operations

90
Q

What does the following mean WS015/14033KT

A

Wind shear at 1500 AGL from 140degrees at 33kts

91
Q

What conditions indicate a good chance of icing on the aircraft?

A

When the temp is 10 degrees Celsius and below with visible moisture

92
Q

What are the responsibilities of an aircraft dispatcher? 121.535

A
  1. Monitoring the progress of each flight
  2. Issuing necessary instructions and information for the safety of the flight
  3. Canceling or re dispatching a flight if in their opinion or the opinion of the pilot in command, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released.
93
Q

Can an aircraft dispatcher work more than 10ths in a 24hr period? 121.465

A

Yes, as long as they have an 8hrs of rest at or before 10hrs of duty.

94
Q

Can you legally dispatch an aircraft with a weight that would remain under the maximum takeoff weight, and land just over the maximum landing weight? 121.195

A

No you may not dispatch an aircraft in which at the time of landing would exceed the maximum landing weight

95
Q

What is the wet runway length requirement for landing at an airport? 121.195

A

If the runway in which you are landing is wet then the length of that runway must be 115% of the required dry runway length.

96
Q

What affect does a positive slope and a high density altitude runway have on aircraft performance?

A

Increased take-off distance
Higher V1 speed,
Decreased performance
Payload reduction

97
Q

During cruise level flight below 10,000 is this considered “sterile cockpit”?

A

No, sterile cockpit includes taxi, take-off, and landing and flight below 10,000ft EXCEPT in cruise level flight.

98
Q

What is the definition of a domestic operation?

A

Domestic operation is an operation conducted between any points within the 48 contiguous State of the United States or the District of Columbia.

99
Q

What is the definition of a Flag operation?

A

Flag operation- any operation conducted outside the contiguous 48 states and Canada.

100
Q

What are five main items required to be on a dispatch release? 121.687

A

DAMIT

D- departure
A- Statement of the type of operation
M- Minimum Fuel Supply
I- Identification number of the aircraft
T- Trip Number

101
Q

How long should dispatch releases be kept on file? 121.695

A

The certificate holder shall keep copies of the records required for at least 3 months.

102
Q

Explain Method 1 for drift down?

A

Aircraft is at single engine service ceiling
Aircraft must:
1. be able to clear all obstacles by 1000’
2. Clear the obstacles 5 miles either side of the intended track
3. Arrive over the airport at 1500’

103
Q

Explain method 2 for drift down?

A

Drift down assuming an engine fails at the most critical point.

Aircraft must clear
1. All obstacles by 2000’
2. Clear 5 miles either side of the intended track.
3. Arrive over the airport at 1500’

104
Q

The pilot in command of an airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination what 3 items? 121.695

A

Flight Plan, Load manifest, Dispatch release

105
Q

What are your 6 takeoff performance considerations?

A

SF- COT B

S- Structural
F- Field length
C- Climb limit
O- Obstacle clearance
T- Tire Speed
B- Brake Energy

106
Q

What effects does ice on a wing have on an aircraft?

A

Increases drag, weight, stalling speed.

Decreases lift.

107
Q

As a dispatcher is it required that you provide the PIC with the most current weather reports? 121.601

A

Yes, before beginning a flight, the aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command with all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight, including adverse weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude wind shear, for each route to be flown and each airport to be used.

108
Q

Explain Exception 3585

A

Operation may be approved for this exemption if approved.

You may dispatch an aircraft if the main body of the TAF is at or above landing minimums The conditional remark (TEMPO, PROB) is no more than 1/2 ton the landing mins.

First Alternate the main body of the TAF is at or above landing minimums. The conditional remarks (TEMP, PROB) is no more than 1/2 of the landing minimums.

Second alternate must need minimums to list as alternate and ALL minimums must be at or above for suitable runway. Fuel is always for the most distant alternate.

109
Q

How do you monitor a flight?

A

Prepreation and great situational awareness using approved flight monitoring systems. ‘
Prepare the flight using your past experience, present conditions, and staying ahead of the aircraft.
Consistently monitoring NOTAMS and the weather ENROUTE, alternates, and destinations, Always have a plan b and sometimes C and keep revising it as the flight continues.

110
Q

The president is flying out on your flight and is running late for an important meeting. As the aircraft just pushed back, you notice the destination now needs an alternate but wil date a delay to refuel. What do you do?

A

TAKE THE DELAY.

Refuel and add the alternate. Make sure the flight is legal and safe. Even if the president is mad, you should not be in trouble for doing anything legal. Better to lose a job, rather than a license. Jobs are easier to gain.

111
Q

Due to thunderstorms, you believe the flight is not unsafe. The pilot is determined to continue for unknown reasons though you discussed it. Can he continue.

A

Legally yes.

If you believe that a Captain is continuing into unsafe conditions after you briefed him, he may use his CAPTAIN AUTHORITY.

Always brief the pilot of what you think are the unsafe conditions. (Especially new dispatchers what you think is unsafe may be normal to him)

ASK! - Other experienced dispatchers, managers, and the pilot if they think it is unsafe.

If still unsafe ASK AND ASSIST- tell the Captain you think it is unsafe and he will be using his CAPTAIN Authoritiy to continue, but assist in what he needs.

112
Q

You receive a call from a gate agent stating that your aircraft has declared an emergency and they will call you back when they land. What do you do?

A

Keep them on the phone if they have contact with the aircraft. Keep an open line of communication. Ask what the emergency is? Tell them to notify the flight dispatch on the line and if they need any assistance, you are here. Start passing your other flights to other dispatchers will you handle the emergency. Handle the emergency and assist the crew. Give input if you have any ideas that may help the flight.

113
Q

What are some stresses that a dispatcher may encounter and how to deal with them?

A

Operational Stress- Pressure for on time arrival/departures. NEVER let someone push you into a bad decision. Ask another dispatcher, manager, and don’t forget the PILOT!! About what they think. If it is unsafe don’t dispatch.

Personal stresses - pressures of life, relationship, money, or death of a family member/friend. If you are not fit to dispatch and circumstances may affect your judgement, let someone know. Everyone gets stressed.

114
Q

Thunderstorms are along your intended route. How might you brief the pilot.

A

Call the pilot. Type “Call for Radar Brief” on the release. Brief him/her along the route with updates.

Brief pilot on Tops, size and distance. Direction and speed.

115
Q

What is required for an operator before conducting ETOPS flights?

A

Operator to have approval by the local authority.
A pre operation demo flight
Aircraft approval
Maintenance approval
Passenger evacuation capability.

116
Q

What is the recommended procedure for volcanic Ash penetrations.

A

Complete avoidance of the ash cloud. Even making a 180 turn if in an inadvertent entry, pilots carry out a non-normal checklist.

117
Q

What is a balanced field

A

When the accelerate stop distance is equal to the accelerate go distance.

118
Q

What aircraft performance is considered when a runway is contaminated?

A

Braking action. (We can find braking actions from NOTAM, ground services, reports from other pilots and tower)

119
Q

What are the three types of hydroplaning

A

Dynamic- Standing water at least one-tenth of an inch.
Viscous- thin film of water and can happen at lower speeds.
Reverted Rubber - prolonged locked wheel as tire skids turning water into steam between tire and surface.

120
Q

A aircraft climbing through FL180 will begin to fly. ______ altitude by putting ______ in the altimeter setting

A

Pressure altitude. 29.92

121
Q

Describe what RNP 5 means

A

Required Navigation performance. 5 states that aircraft must remain 5nm of where it thinks it is within a 95% accuracy rate.

122
Q

A scheduled flight JFK-MUC with radiation fog is forecasted at ETA. What are some considerations for the dispatcher?

A

Delay the aircraft. Add holding fuel if departing as scheduled and fog will expected to be in the area upon arrival.

123
Q

You have a scheduled flight from LHR-GOI with no weather forecast available for GOI. Can you dispatch?

A

No.

There must be approved weather reports or forecast available to indicate weather will be at or above landing mins at the time of arrival.

124
Q

Name the type of fluids used for de- and anti icing for turbine engines?

A

Hot type 1 (de-icing)
Cold type 2 (anti-icing)

125
Q

Name the type of fluids used for de- and anti icing for turbine engines?

A

Hot type 1 (de-icing)
Cold type 2 (anti-icing)

126
Q

What is CPDLC, and where is it used?

A

Controller Pilot data link communications. Used I n Oceanic and very busy airspaces.

127
Q

May an aircraft dispatcher allow a flight to continue to the airport to which it has been dispatched when the weather conditions at the alternate specified in the dispatcher release are forecast to be below the alternate minimums specified in the carrier’s operations specifications at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate?

A

No

Unless. 121.631 The dispatch or flight release may be amended en route to include any alternate airport that is within the fuel range of the aircraft as specified in 121.639 through 121.647.

128
Q

When reviewing a turbine aircraft cruise performance charts, the aircraft manufacturer does not provide any data at very high altitudes and very heavy weights. What is the reason for this “Coffin’s corner”?

A

If the aircraft encountered an increase in G-loading (turbulence) it could possibly stall even though the indicated airspeed appears normal. High altitude stalls in turbine aircraft can be extremely dangerous.

129
Q

What is a provisional airport

A

An airport that is listed in the OPS Specs that is authorized to be used when regular airport is not available for use. (Even if it is below landing minimums)

130
Q

In the real world airlines rarely use standard alternate mins. They us the 1 nav 2 nav rule (derived alt mins) to list an alternate. Explain the 1nav 2 nav rule.

A

When choosing an alternate, look at the navigation approaches available for the suitable runways.

  1. NAV - Add 400 ft to the decision height and 1 sm to the visibility.
  2. NAV - Add 200 ft to decision height and 1/2 sm to visibility to the HIGHEST of the two.

Frequency of NAVAIDs must be different if using two different approach ends on a single runway (RWY 27/9) or it will be considered 1NAV rule

131
Q

After how long at an intermediate stop is a re-dispatch required?

A

A new release is required if the aircraft stays on the ground for 1hr or longer for domestic ops and 6hrs or longer for flag ops.

132
Q

What is the definition of a TEMPO

A

Temporary fluctuations in forecast meteorological conditions which are expected to last less than one hour in each instance and, to cover less than half of the indicated period.

133
Q

A Squall line is over Florida, and a flight is scheduled for ATL-MIA flight. What are your dispatch options?

A

Re-route the flight around the squall line, delay, or cancel the flight.

134
Q

En route, the weather at the destination alternate drops below minimums. In order to plan a different alternate what information do you require from the PIC?

A

Current position, Current weight, fuel remaining, Altitude.

135
Q

What is the landing field length limit for dispatch? 121.195

A

Turbine engine aircraft must plan to land within 60% of the effective runway length from a point 50 ft above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway.

136
Q

May a flight be dispatched to an airport that is below landing minimums at the ETD?

A

Yes, 121.613 only requires the weather at the destination to be at or above the authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival for the destination.

137
Q

In the takeoff calculations, if an engine fails after V1, would this be considered an “accelerate go” or “accelerate stop” decision?

A

Accelerate go. If the engine fails after V1, the T/O should be continued unless the aircraft is not capable of flying.

138
Q

When an aircraft diverts to an alternate airport, is it required to use alternate minimums for the approach?

A

No. Alternate minimums are used for flight planning purposes. When the flight actually diverts to the alternate airport, the OPS SPECS for that airport apply.

139
Q

When referring to the TAF to determine if a destination alternate is required before, does the dispatcher compare the ceiling to the Decision Altitude (DA) or the Decision Height (DH) on the appropriate instrument approach chart?

A

Decision height, DH ceiling is measured in height above a reference point on the airport surface. DA always uses MSL as a reference and this has no correlation to a ceiling and used by pilots.

140
Q

Aircraft is taxiing out and noticing an inoperative fuel pump which manual to refer to?

A

AFM, QRH, and/or abnormal operations.

141
Q

Why is it so critical to prevent build-up on the engine nacelle?

A

If ice builds up on the engine nacelle, it will disrupt airflow into the engine, thus reducing thrust. Also, the ice may break off and get ingested into the engine and damage the compressor blades.

142
Q

Checking your NOTAMS prior to a flight, you notice closed taxiways and extremely high snow banks near your ramp. What should be expected?

A

Check your airport diagram for possible available taxi routes that may: increase taxi time and increase taxi fuel.

143
Q

What does the VMCG stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Vmcg minimum controllability on the ground. The calibrated airspeed during the takeoff run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane using the rudder control alone (without the use of nose wheel steering) and maintain directional control within 35ft of the centerline.

144
Q

What are the three components of a full ILS?

A

Localizer, Glideslope, Approach lights.

145
Q

What are the five parts of the Operations Specifications?

A
  1. General
  2. Enroute Operations
  3. Terminal Operations
  4. Maintenance
  5. Weight and balance
146
Q

Where would you find the ARFF index?

A

The Airport Facilities Directory (AFD)

147
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere which direction does the win circulate around a low?

A

counterclockwise

148
Q

Circling approach minimums are published on most approach charts. What is the usual reason for requiring a circling approach to be accomplished?

A

Circling approaches are usually flown because the tailwind component is too strong to allow a straight-in approach and landing. the approach is flown to the MDA(H) for one runway, and then the circling maneuver is accomplished to land on a runway with a headwind or lower tailwind that is legal in the ops specs.

149
Q

What is the difference between de-icing equipment and Anti-icing equipment

A

De-cing equipment removes ice; Anti-icing equipment prevents ice from forming

150
Q

What subpart of 14 CFR 121 deals with records and reports?

A

Subpart V

151
Q

If an inop item isn’t listed in the MEL, can the aircraft takeoff?

A

No, ifan item is not listed in the MEL/CDL manual then it MUST be fixed prior to being dispatched.

152
Q

What are your 5 sources of electricity for a B737 Aircraft?

A

1 engine driven generator on each engine
APU- Auxiliary Power unit AC power
One or Two batteries providing DC power
GPU- Ground Power Unit

153
Q

What are some hazards to flight that are associated with Thunderstorms?

A

Hail, turbulence, icing, lightning, wind shear, microburst, squall lines, freezing rain, tornadoes

154
Q

What is the difference between a UA and a UUA?

A

UA = routine PIREP
UUA = an urgent PIREP

155
Q

FZRA is reported in a TAF at your final overnight destination. What are some considerations for the dispatcher?

A

Is the aircraft going to be parked in a hangar? If not is one available? is deicing equipment available? Consult someone prior to take off if it is still worth going? Would the company rather pay for hangar rather than deice?

156
Q

If the takeoff runway is contaminated, would your consider using a higher or lower takeoff flap setting and why?

A

Use a higher flap setting because it reduces V1 speed, allowing more runway for stopping if an aborted takeoff is necessary.

157
Q

Pressure altitude when combined with outside air temperature provides a critical piece of information called________ (this ultimately provides required performance data for all aircraft)

A

Density Altitude

158
Q

Pilots call in with a gear malfunction indicating a gear is in transition what do you do?

A

Keep pilot on radio if able and standby when requested. Advise to maintenance and work together for a solution. Contact ATC and declare an emergency landing.

159
Q

As braking action decreases a dispatcher should plan to decrease __________??

A

Weight using contaminated runway analysis to prevent over run of the runway.
Cross wind imitations to prevent sliding off the runway sideways

160
Q

What is one of the primary reasons for an aircraft manufacturer establishing a maximum recommended crosswind landing limitiation?

A

If this limit is exceeded, it is very easy to scrape the wingtip or the engine nacelle on the runway before the landing gear touches the runway. ( 737 usually scrapes the engine nacelle and the 777 or 747 scrape the wingtip because of long wings)

161
Q

What are the 4 landing lmit considerations

A
  1. Structural limit
  2. Field length limit
  3. Approach climb limit
  4. Landing climb limit
162
Q

What is the difference between MEL and MMEL

A

MMEL is written by the manufacturer; MEL by the operator; MEL can be more restrictive than MMEL

163
Q

What FAR subpart contains Flight and duty limitations and rest requirements for flight crew members?

A

14 CFR Part 117

164
Q

What FAR Subpart contains general requirements (definitions) for air carriers and operators for compensation or hire?

A

14 CFR Part 110

165
Q

What instruments are required to operate in RVSM airspace?

A
  1. 2 Independant altimeters
  2. Altitude hold
  3. Autopilot
  4. Altitude alert
166
Q

In a TAF, how long does a “Tempo” condition apply?

A

One hour or less in each instance and for less than half the period

167
Q

What additional factors should be considered when computing fuel? 121.647

A

Factors for computing fuel required.

a. wind and other weather conditions forecast
b. anticipated traffic delays
c. one instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination
d. any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.

168
Q

When might you need more than minimum fuel?

A
  1. delays
  2. Active deicing programs
  3. Thunderstorms
  4. Peak times
  5. Required by MEL
  6. Anytime with good personal judgement
169
Q

What are some ways you may be able to determine delays that may effect your flight?

A

Airport website with published delays, Speak to pilots/dispatchers from your company that landed or took off from locations, flight following system with other airline (watching for holding patterns) , experience (you as a dispatcher will learn characteristics of airports, seasons, or peak times)

170
Q

Why is it recommended to takeoff and land with a headwind vs a tailwind?

A

A headwind on landing reduces the groundspeed at touchdown, thus reducing the stopping distance. A headwind on takeoff allows the aircraft to reach flying speed using less runway. Aircraft fly on AIRSPEED and they stop on Groundspeed.

171
Q

ATC calls dispatch office reporting pilots haven’t checked in on a frequency. What do you do?

A

Attempt to reach the aircraft and relay the requency using:

company Radio
ACARS
SATCOM
ARINC
Relay through other Pilots you can get on company
if nothing works DECLARE an EMERGENCY

172
Q

A new TAF forecast comes out and now it is illegal for dispatch. The plane left the gate. What do you do?

A

Call ATC tower and cancel the take off clearance or attempt to get the flight on company radio.

173
Q

ARP UAL554 3607N 11116W 2239 F390 M58 254/003 TB LGT RM B752 OV TBC

A

What is this report.

ARP- AR Rep usually activated by pilots but produced by aircraft.

United airlines at location 3607n and 11116W
Time 2239Z
Flight Level 390
Temperature Negative 58
Winds 254 at 3kts
light turbulence
remarks Boeing 757-200 over TBC

174
Q

In the northern hemisphere air in a low pressure system flows ________ and ______?

A

counterclockwise and upwards around the center of the low

175
Q

you and the PIC have joint responsibility. What does this mean to you?

A

You and the pilot are BOTH responsible for the preflight planning and dispatch release of a flight. you must both agree that the flight is within regulations, OPS SPECS, and most of all Safe! You together will use Joint responsiblity to plan the flight and you both have operation control.

176
Q

121.533 Responsibility for operational Control: Domestic operations. What does this mean to you?

A

Monitoring the flight- from gate to gate. You must Monitor the progress of your flight. Issuing necessary info for safety of the flight (aircraft imitations, W&N, crew briefings, MEL/CDL, Takeoff/Laning restrictions, NOTAMS, SIGMETS)
Canceling or redispatching a flight if in his/her opinion or opinion of PIC, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released.

(by using joint responsibility and operational control, you may not dispatch or continue a flight anytime you believee safety is jeopardized)

177
Q

What are 3 types of VORs and thier service volumes?

A

AIM 1-1-8 All are in feet AGL

178
Q

Interpret the following: R07L/4000VP6000FT

A

Runway 07 Left; Runway visual range 4000ft variable to greater than 6000ft

179
Q

Using standard takeoff minimums, could a 737 takeoff with this RVR?

R07L/4000VP6000FT

A

No, Standard takeoff minimums for a 2 engine aircraft is 1sm. You need at least 5000RVR (4000 is below 5000)

180
Q

Using standard takeoff minimums, could a 727 take off with this RVR?

R07L/4000VP6000FT

A

Yes, Standard takeoff minimums for a 3 engine aircraft is 1/2 SM

181
Q

Using a standard takeoff minimums, could a 737 takeoff with this METAR?

BJC 090145z 02007KT 1/4SM BKN015 OVC025 01/M01 A3028 RMK R29L/P6000ft

A

Yes if planning runway 29L.

RVR is controlling visibility and showing greater than 6000ft on 20L. For a two engine aircraft we need only 5000ft.

182
Q

Using a standard takeoff minimums, could a 737 takeoff with this METAR?

KBJC 090145Z 02007KT 3SM BKN015 OVC025 01/M01 A3028 RMK R29L/1600FT

A

No, if planning runway 29L; RVR is controlling visibility and showing 1600ft on 29L. For a two engine aircraft we need 5000ft or greater.

183
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, air in a high pressure system flows ________ and ______?

A

Clockwise, downwards towards the center of the high

184
Q

Describe the characteristics of a low pressure system?

A

usually associated with adverse weather, but generally good visibility. Winds can be strong if isobars are close together, decreases performance, convection that can produce thunderstorms.

185
Q

Describe the characteristics of a high pressure system.

A

Usually associated with good flying conditions, but low visibility, prevents convection, increases aircraft performance.

186
Q

How would this pirep effect your flight traveling at or near that same area?

LWD UA / OV LMN280040/TM 2201/FL060/TP PA46/SK TOP060/TB MOD/IC NEG

A

It is good information that turbulent air is in the area. The aircraft type is a PA46, a smaller aircraft and only reporting moderate turbulence. A 737 would experience only light, if any, turbulence passing though the same air.

Brief the pilot on possible turbulent air with smaller aircraft and monitor the area for more PIREPs. Mostly likely would not effect your flight.

187
Q

TVC UUA / OV TVC/TM 2206/FL360/TP A380/TB CONT SVR CHOP

What would this mean for your flight traveling in the same area?

A

EXTREMELY DANGEROUS!!!!

This is an urgent PIREP and the aircraft is an A380 that is experiencing continuous sever chop. A smaller 737 would experience severe to extreme turbulence and most likely experience structural damage.

Do not dispatch through severe.

188
Q

Read and describe why this report may be important?

LNK UUA/OV LNK/TM 2306/ FL003/TP BE9L/ RM LLWS +/- 20kts FINAL APPROACH RWY 35

A

Identifier LNK
Urgent Pilot Report (UUA)
Time 2306Z
Flight Level 3000ft
Type Beech King Air 90
Remarks low level wind shear plus and minus 20kts on final approach to runway 35. If we were to dispatch this aircraft to this area, brief the pilot of low level wind shear and plan accordingly with extra fuel and maybe even an alternate.

189
Q

What are some conditional remarks that may be found in a TAF

A

Tempo – Temporary conditions that changes are expected for less than 1hr total and half the time forecasted.

Prob– Probability. It will be followed by a number. PROB40 means there is a 40% chance of conditions occurring

BECMG-Becoming. In the US, it is used as a conditional remark meaning a gradual change.

190
Q

What is a SPECI?

A

A special METAR due to quick changing weather such as:

Direction 45 or more in less than 15min and wind speed is 10kts or more
Visibility decreases to less than or if already below (increases to equal or exceeds) 3,2,1 mile
RVR changes to above or below 2400 feet (1/2SM)

191
Q

What are some different types of TAFS?

A

Routine TAF. Updated every 6 hours
Corrected TAF- When there is a correction made to a previous TAF due to error
Amended TAF - Amended to forecast more accurate weather forecasts

Dispatcher Oral Questions (3 decks)

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