january Flashcards

1
Q

All FDNY facilities shall have an Emergency Action Plan to safely and systematically evacuate such facilities if an emergency situation was to occur. The Officer on duty within each facility shall review the plan with personnel how often?

Select one:

a. Annually
b. Semi-Annually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

A

(SB 61 7.1.4) During the first week of January, April, July and October

The correct answer is: Quarterly

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2
Q

Captain Lofty was discussing characteristics of cast-iron used in Loft buildings at drill. He would be correct to state that at 1100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast iron loses?

Select one:

a. 42% of its original strength and the loss is cumulative and never regained
b. 42% of its original strength, but when cooled, the loss is regained
c. 58% of its original strength, but when cooled, the loss is regained
d. 58% of its original strength and the loss is cumulative and never regained

A

(FFP Loft — 5.1.10 F)

The correct answer is: 58% of its original strength and the loss is cumulative and never regained

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3
Q

All members must be aware that the Inspector General requires direct notification regarding any situation where an FDNY employee?

Select one:

a. Claims an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty
b. Is arrested
c. Has an on-duty incident involving possession of illegal drugs
d. Misappropriates Department time

A

(AUC 268 — 2.1.7, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 4.1.5)

The correct answer is: Claims an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty

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4
Q

ou are Captain Fauci from E99, operating in the A-Wing of an H-type building where there is heavy fire in the cockloft. The IC orders you to use the cockloft nozzle in an attempt to control extension of the fire. In this situation, you would be incorrect to believe that the cockloft nozzle?

Select one:

a. Should be supplied by a 1 ¾” hose line
b. Has a configuration of the ½” Outer Stream Tips that eliminates back pressure
c. Delivers about 180 gallons of water per minute.
d. Requires the same pressure as a standard 1 ¾” line

A

(TB Tools 7 — DS 18 - 1.3, 1.4, 2.1, 3.4)

The correct answer is: Delivers about 180 gallons of water per minute.

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5
Q
  1. A leak or break in ________ may be stopped or greatly diminished by taping, or stuffing putty, rags into the break?

Select one:

a. Medium or high pressure gas piping
b. Plastic piping
c. Low or medium pressure gas piping
d. Low pressure gas piping

A

ct anNextswer is: Low pressure gas piping

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6
Q
  1. Segment one responses include all of the following call types except?

Select one:

a. Difficulty breathing
b. Choking
c. Cardiac arrest
d. Respiratory arrest

A

The correct answer is: Difficulty breathing

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7
Q
  1. All one of the following must be performed weekly except?

Select one:

a. Electric Fuel Pump Primer
b. Tower Ladder Boom Inspection
c. Transmission fluid level
d. Power Steering fluid level

A

)

The correct answer is: Tower Ladder Boom Inspection

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8
Q
  1. If members see a marked FDNY apparatus without a security decal, they would be most correct to?

Select one:

a. Immediately notify Fleet maintenance
b. Contact the borough dispatcher with a mixer-off message
c. Immediately notify NYPD
d. Approach the vehicle to gather more information

A

The correct answer is: Contact the borough dispatcher with a mixer-off message

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9
Q
  1. The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter will alarm at what % O2?

Select one:

a. 19.5 % and 24.0 %
b. 19.5 % and 23.5 %
c. 19.0 % and 22.5 %
d. 19.0 % and 23.5 %

Feedback

(Nat Gas Add 2—2.5)

A

The correct answer is: 19.5 % and 23.5 %

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10
Q
  1. If the high oxygen sensor alarms, members would be incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. The chance of materials igniting will increase
b. Haz Mat should be requested to respond
c. Flash points of combustibles will decrease
d. “+ + +” under the O2 icon indicates an atmosphere above 25 % oxygen

A

The correct answer is: “+ + +” under the O2 icon indicates an atmosphere above 25 % oxygen

(Nat Gas Add 2-5.3) (Above 30 % oxygen)

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11
Q
  1. DNR Orders authorize health care providers to NOT perform CPR to patients in?

Select one:

a. Cardiac arrest only.
b. Cardiac or respiratory arrest

A

b

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following are recognized in the pre-hospital environment? 1. Health Care Proxy, 2. Living Will or 3. Power of Attorney

Select one:

a. Only #1
b. Only #2
c. Only #3
d. None of them

A

(CFR 2—Add 1—3.6, 3.7, 3.8, 4.10, 4.11, 4.12)

The correct answer is: None of them

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13
Q
  1. When packaging evidence in situations of possible arson, it would be correct to think that?

Select one:

a. A plastic bag can be used in an emergency if it is new and at least medium gauge
b. A glass jar can be used, but it must be brand new and have a tight fitting lid
c. A one gallon metal can, preferably a new can, is best
d. Avoid the use of plastic containers

A

(TB Arson—5.3) (Must be a NEW can, Can be a CLEAN glass jar, Must be heavy gauge and used in pairs)

The correct answer is: Avoid the use of plastic containers

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14
Q
  1. A ladder company is called to the scene to assist with the removal of a disabled passenger from a wheelchair lift. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. The keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift must be in the on position
b. The keyed switch at the bus driver’s seat supplies power to the wheelchair lift
c. The key for the keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift must be removed
d. The officer shall insure the wheelchair lift is secured, chocked and stabilized

A

(TB Emer 3—22.2) (OFF position)

The correct answer is: The keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift must be in the on position

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15
Q
  1. The 2 ½ gallon water extinguisher is a pressure vessel and shall be hydrostatically tested at ______ year intervals or at any time an extinguisher shows evidence of corrosion or mechanical damage.

Select one:

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 4

A

The correct answer is: 5

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16
Q

The unit designation shall be marked within how many inches of each butt on a portable ladder?

Select one:

a. 10 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 12 inches
d. 18 inches

A

18

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17
Q
  1. Members shall not be within ______ feet from a transmitting Post Radio.

Select one:

a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3

A

2

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18
Q
  1. Which statement below was stated correctly when discussing open web steel joists?

Select one:

a. They are used to span lengths up to 100 feet.
b. Found in modern taxpayers, open web steel joists have excellent fire resistance ratings.
c. They are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

A

They have NO fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling and roof finishes. They are used to span lengths up to 60 feet. (Taxpayers 3.3.3)

The correct answer is: They are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

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19
Q

While operating at an All-Hands fire, the officer of the 1st ladder company finds a clutter condition throughout the apartment. Primary searches will be possible but delayed and secondary searches will be delayed due to the clutter. The officer would be most correct to inform the IC that the apartment has a _______ clutter condition.

Select one:

a. Medium
b. Light
c. Heavy
d. Collyer’s Mansion

A

(SB 92 Chart P.4) The term “Collyers Mansion” shall no longer be used

The correct answer is: Medium

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20
Q
  1. Each engine company shall carry a “standpipe kit” with the following minimum basic complement of tools: Choose the incorrect tool(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.
b. Door chocks. Special adapters as required.
c. Hand control wheel(s) for outlet valve. 2-1/2” x 2-1/2” in-line pressure gauge.
d. Pipe wrench (minimum 18” in length). Spanner wrenches.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.4) 2 ½” controlling nozzle with 1 ⅛” main stream tip and 1 ½” x 2 ½” increaser. No ½” outer stream tip. Note: Hand control wheels are optional and not supplied by the Department.

The correct answer is: 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

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21
Q
  1. A singe CPC Entry Team will be able to handle removing how many victims from the Hot Zone to a safe area?

Select one:

a. One victim only
b. Up to four victims
c. Up to three victims
d. One or two victims

A

(Haz-Mat 5 9.1)

The correct answer is: One or two victims

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22
Q
  1. Removal of non-ambulatory victims will be labor-intensive and will require increased personnel and logistical support at an Under River Rail operation. From the list below please choose the primary method for moving non-ambulatory patients?

Select one:

a. Rail carts
b. Victim Removal Relay Teams
c. Rescue trains
d. SKED stretchers

A

Under River Rail Ops, section 7.3)

The correct answer is: Rail carts

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23
Q

Lt. Gold has just been informed that his unit’s Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector is malfunctioning and is need of replacement. Lt. Gold would be correct to take which one of the following choices?

Select one:

a. Call Haz-Mat Operations and request a replacement.
b. Exchange the meter with the Battalion spare meter.
c. Send the meter through the department bag to the Mask Service Unit
d. Send the meter through the department bag to Haz-Mat Operations

A

(EP – Natural Gas Add. 5 5) Haz-Mat Operations shall arrange for the pick-up of the out-of-service meter and the issuing of a replacement. Meters shall not be sent through the bag.

The correct answer is: Call Haz-Mat Operations and request a replacement.

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24
Q
  1. A ladder company arrives 1st at a fire on the top floor of a six story OLT building. The Roof FF would be correct to take all but which one of the following tools to the roof?

Select one:

a. 6’ Halligan hook
b. Life Saving Rope
c. Halligan
d. Saw

A

(Ladders 3 3.2.6)

The correct answer is: Saw

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25
Q

You are Lt Collyer from Ladder 28 operating as the first due ladder officer for a fire on the 6th floor in a multiple dwelling. You find a clutter condition impacting operations upon forcing entry to the fire apartment. In this situation, you should know that which report below if given to the IC would indicate to her that there is a medium clutter condition?

Select one:

a. “The primary and secondary searches are possible, but will be delayed”
b. “The entrance door is completely blocked; we may need to make entry by breaching an adjoining wall”
c. “We can see a 10-45, but victim removal will be extremely challenging due to debris”
d. “Maneuvering handlines may be impossible; we need to hit it from the outside”

A

(SB 92—Page 3)

The correct answer is: “The primary and secondary searches are possible, but will be delayed”

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26
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect item about standpipe occupant hose from the list below?

Select one:

a. Engine companies shall utilize only Department issued hose for standpipe firefighting.
b. Engine companies shall not attempt to use the “occupant use” hose sometimes provided with these systems, unless the hose is 2-1/2” in diameter.
c. If a reducer is encountered, it must be removed to permit attachment of our 2-1/2” hose to the standpipe outlet.
d. The stretching of occupant use hose by ladder and rescue companies operating remotely from an engine company while performing searches may be justified in an attempt to save lives.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.2.2) Engine companies shall not attempt to use the “occupant use” hose sometimes provided with these systems, even in those instances when the hose is 2-1/2” in diameter.

The correct answer is: Engine companies shall not attempt to use the “occupant use” hose sometimes provided with these systems, unless the hose is 2-1/2” in diameter.

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27
Q

. The Post Radio shall be charged for at least _____ hours weekly and after each use.

Select one:

a. 10
b. 8
c. 4
d. 2

A

8

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28
Q

The operation, shutdown or change of any building system shall not be done by the Systems Control Unit without the permission of the IC or which choice below?

Select one:

a. The Fire Sector Supervisor
b. The Operations Section Chief
c. The Logistics Section Chief
d. The Safety Officer

A

s: The Operations Section Chief

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29
Q

The Buckeye Pipeline basic components are (2), 12” steel pipes which carry which two of the following products?

Select one or more:

a. Kerosene based aviation fuel
b. Natural gas
c. Diesel
d. Gasoline

A

(AUC 149 1.1)

The correct answers are: Gasoline, Kerosene based aviation fuel

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30
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect standpipe procedure from the list below?

Select one:

a. Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second due engine companies should consider operating together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose-line.
b. The in-line pressure gauge should always be used to ensure correct nozzle pressure and a good fire stream.
c. Scissor stairs create additional complexities and will usually require the stretching of four or more lengths of hose. This information should be included in CIDS.
d. If a second line is required on the fire floor, it may have to be stretched from a hose outlet two (2) floors below the fire or from another standpipe riser. Both of these situations often require at least four lengths of hose.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.4) Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second due engine companies will always operate together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose-line.

The correct answer is: Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second due engine companies should consider operating together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose-line

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31
Q
  1. When a unit’s Carbon Monoxide meter is defective (low battery, malfunction, etc.) whom should the officer on duty notify to arrange for an exchange?

Select one:

a. Tech Services
b. Their Division
c. Haz-Mat Ops meter room
d. Their Battalion

A

(Haz-Mat 4 Add 1 3.4) Units will exchange with their Battalion. Battalions will notify Haz-Mat OPS meter room to receive a replacement. Lost CO meters shall be reported via a Lost Property Report (FS-112).

The correct answer is: Their Battalion

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32
Q

Engine 153 and Ladder 77 have just extinguished a car fire. The car has been stripped of all doors and wheels and has out of state license plates. The officers would be correct to transmit which one of the following codes?

Select one:

a. 10-24
b. 10-23
c. –com- (Communications Chap. 8) (10-24 for any car with plates or value greater than salvage)

A

The correct answer is: 10-24

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33
Q

An Engine Officer responds to 4 incidents on a day tour during which he transmitted the following radio code signals. In which radio code transmission was he correct?

Select one:

a. 10-35 Code 2 for an unnecessary alarm activation due to servicing of the alarm system
b. 10-34 Code 2 for a sprinkler system emergency due to a surge in pressure
c. 10-25 Code 2 for smoke issuing under pressure from a transformer in the street
d. 10-29 Code 2 for an elevator emergency where a civilian was removed from the elevator car

A

(Comm Chap 8 — Pages 8, 9, 10, 11)

The correct answer is: 10-34 Code 2 for a sprinkler system emergency due to a surge in pressure

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34
Q

For a fire in a Brownstone building, in most cases, a portable ladder should be brought to the rear using which method?

Select one:

a. Through the parlor floor of an adjoining building.
b. Through the 1st floor of the fire building.
c. Through the 1st floor of an adjoining building
d. Through the parlor floor of the fire building.

A

(Ladders 1, 10.2) In most cases, it will be faster than using the fire building

The correct answer is: Through the parlor floor of an adjoining building.

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35
Q
  1. The Taxpayer bulletin lists three times when a 2nd alarm should be transmitted at these fires. Which one of the following is not listed?

Select one:

a. Fire extends to the cockloft
b. Fire extends to an adjoining occupancy
c. An advanced fire in the cellar
d. An advanced fire in a store with two handlines operating.

A

Special call an extra engine and ladder (Taxpayers 5.7.4)

The correct answer is: An advanced fire in a store with two handlines operating.

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36
Q
  1. Engine companies are classified by their pumping capabilities, equipment and training as follows: Choose the most correct answer(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. All correct.
b. Conventional Engines: Two-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines.
c. High-Pressure Engines: Three-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines retro-fitted with a special high-pressure discharge elbow, and have been issued specialized high- pressure equipment to pump at discharge pressures over 250 psi and up to 600 psi.
d. 3rd Stage Engines: An engine with a 3rd Stage. This 3rd Stage can supply a maximum of 700 gpm up to 500 psi.

A

(Engines chap 9, Add 1, sec 1.1) High-Pressure Engines – Two stage , 3rd Stage Engines: An engine with a 3rd Stage. This 3rd Stage can supply a maximum of 500 gpm up to 700 psi. Code = 357 Magnum

The correct answer is: Conventional Engines: Two-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines.

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37
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect choice regarding the KO Curtain.

Select one:

a. Each Battalion has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill.
b. Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes.
c. Repeated use of the KO Curtain for drill can cause unnecessary damage to the KO Curtain.
d. If a company’s KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the Company Commander will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Operations.

A

(TB Tools 2 6.5, 6.6) - Each DIVISION has been issued Training KO Curtains

The correct answer is: Each Battalion has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill.

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38
Q
  1. The Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) was designed by the New York City Transit Authority’s Office of System Safety. EEDs are provided for FDNY use and are located throughout the Transit Authority’s subway system. The EED is a yellow, 7-foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides. Please choose the incorrect location for the EED from the list below?

Select one:

a. At underground and grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
b. Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth.
c. At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.
d. An EED is located at the top of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

A

(AUC 207 add # 11, section 3) An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

The correct answer is: An EED is located at the top of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

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39
Q
  1. Evacuating passengers via emergency exit stairs may be a viable choice in some Under River Rail operations, please choose the incorrect item to consider prior to using these stairs?

Select one:

a. Stairway configuration
b. Depth of the stairway shaft
c. Smoke condition
d. 3rd Rail power

A

The correct answer is: 3rd Rail power

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40
Q
  1. A Tunnel is a general term which describes a below-grade passageway. There are numerous underground tunnels between transit stations throughout the NYCT system. The Transit Authority also refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels. Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. Please choose an incorrect description of Under River Tube construction?

Select one:

a. Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is large enough to contain 2 tracks.
b. Most tubes were bored into solid bedrock but a few tubes run through composites of clay, sand, and silt.
c. Tubes are cylindrical in shape and are constructed of brick, concrete or tubular cast iron. Some cast iron tubes are lined with concrete. Tube walls are between 2 and 2-1/2 feet thick.

A

r River Rail Ops, section 2.2.1) Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is only large enough to contain 1 track.

The correct answer is: Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is large enough to contain 2 tracks.

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41
Q

First alarm units arrive at an emergency in a building where a high-pressure steam riser in the wall of the building has failed and created serious steam conditions. In this situation, members would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve
b. Steam temperatures in a supplied building can be as high as 900 degrees Fahrenheit
c. Members should shut all of the steam valves inside of the steam control room
d. Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

A

The correct answer is: Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

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42
Q
  1. When making assignments at an Under River Rail operation, the Incident Commander (IC) must attempt to keep sufficient SOC units available for specialized tasks, particularly if the use of Rebreather Masks is under consideration. For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to _______ feet from the point of entry, consider using SOC units with their supplied air cart and hose.

Select one:

a. 750
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500

A

300

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43
Q
  1. Each engine company shall carry a “standpipe kit” with the following minimum basic complement of tools: Choose the incorrect tool(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. Pipe wrench (minimum 18” in length). Spanner wrenches.
b. Door chocks. Special adapters as required.
c. Hand control wheel(s) for outlet valve. 2-1/2” x 2-1/2” in-line pressure gauge.
d. 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.4) 2 ½” controlling nozzle with 1 ⅛” main stream tip and 1 ½” x 2 ½” increaser. No ½” outer stream tip. Note: Hand control wheels are optional and not supplied by the Department.

The correct answer is: 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

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44
Q
  1. Iron Window Shutters - generally installed on the rear and side walls of lofts. They were mandated by law on loft buildings with plain glass windows situated less than 30 feet horizontally from another building or less than _______ feet vertically from the roof of an adjoining building.

Select one:

a. 75
b. 100
c. 50
d. 150

A

50

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45
Q
  1. The fuel tank on FDNY portable power saws is sufficient for _____-______ minutes of continuous operation.

Select one:

a. 20 - 30
b. 30 - 45
c. 10 - 15
d. 15 - 20

A

you know it

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46
Q
  1. The 200 foot tether rope is carried by?

Select one:

a. Only Water Safety Units
b. Only Water Rescue Units
c. Both Water Safety and Water Rescue Units

A

your a beast

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47
Q
  1. As the initial IC on the scene of a water rescue incident, a Company Officer would be incorrect to think that?

Select one:

a. All members entering the water must have a Cold Water Suit or a Personal Flotation Device and shall be tethered
b. If there is a confirmed victim, the borough dispatcher must be notified
c. If there are multiple victims, additional Water Rescue Unit(s) shall be requested
d. Prior to entering the water, the rescuer and officer should gauge the direction and speed of the current and enter downstream

A

d

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48
Q
  1. Regarding the position of the Company Officer at Water Rescue Emergencies it would be correct to state that the Company Officer?

Select one:

a. May, in rare instances, be the Primary Rescuer, if they are the best swimmer
b. Should never be the Primary Rescuer, if they are the only capable swimmer
c. May, in rare instances, be the Primary Rescuer, if there are multiple victims
d. May, in rare instances, be the Primary Rescuer, if they are the only capable swimmer

A

The correct answer is: May, in rare instances, be the Primary Rescuer, if they are the only capable swimmer

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49
Q
  1. The FDNY 1620 key is removable on the Elevator Car Switch of a Firemen Service Elevator?

Select one:

a. Only in the NORMAL position
b. In the NORMAL, HOLD or FIREMEN SERVICE positions
c. In both the NORMAL or FIREMEN SERVICE positions
d. In both the NORMAL OR HOLD position

A

The correct answer is: In both the NORMAL OR HOLD position

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50
Q

Question 40

Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text

  1. The FDNY Medical Officer must be notified by a Company Officer for?

Select one:

a. All injuries and all exposures
b. All injuries, except minor injuries and all exposures
c. All injuries, except minor injuries and all exposures, except non biological exposures with no symptoms
d. All injuries and all exposures, except non biological exposures with no symptoms

A

The correct answer is: All injuries and all exposures, except non biological exposures with no symptoms

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51
Q
  1. It would be correct to state that the New York State Department of Labor Log Summary Report of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses shall be?

Select one:

a. Posted on a notice board accessible to all employees from January 1st thru March 30th
b. Posted on a notice board accessible to all employees from February 1st thru April 30th
c. Given to all employees on January 1st
d. Given to all employees on February 1st

A

The correct answer is: Posted on a notice board accessible to all employees from February 1st thru April 30th

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52
Q
  1. Regarding the use of hydrant discs it would be most correct to state?

Select one:

a. White discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable hydrants and the 3” Siamese of an out of service sprinkler or standpipe system
b. Blue discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of hydrants and the 3” Siamese of sprinklers and standpipes indicating the system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and / or a portion of it will operate effectively when supplied
c. Yellow discs are available in one size only for placement on 2 ½” outlets of frozen hydrants
d. The Company Number (E99) and the individual disc number shall be painted in black on both sides of each disc

A

(Regs 28.3.1, 28.3.2) (painted in black on one side only, Yellow discs are available in two sizes for the 2 ½ and 4 ½, Blue disc is only for sprinkler + standpipes)

The correct answer is: White discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable hydrants and the 3” Siamese of an out of service sprinkler or standpipe system

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53
Q
  1. In refuse chutes constructed in new buildings, sprinklers shall be provided?

Select one:

a. On every story for the height of the chute unless electrically operated
b. On every story for the height of the chute
c. Spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute
d. Spaced not more than three stories apart for the height of the chute.

A

The correct answer is: Spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute

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54
Q
  1. A correct suffix for an Engine company can be found in which choice?

Select one:

a. F – Foam Tanker
b. Y – Systems Control Unit
c. N – Cockloft Nozzle
d. P – Purple K units
e. S – Satellite Unit

A

2 p. 2-37) (F = FAST Unit, N = High Rise Nozzle, P = High Pressure Engine, S = Communications Unit)

The correct answer is: Y – Systems Control Unit

y

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55
Q
  1. Which point is correct regarding hydrant inspection duty?

Select one:

a. Hydrant inspection duty shall be performed between 1000-1600 hours
b. An officer, or acting officer and not less than 2 firefighters, exclusive of the chauffeur, shall perform inspectional duty
c. Relocated companies shall perform hydrant inspection duty when relocated for the day tour
d. If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone

A

(28.2.2, 28.2.8, 28.2.9) And not less than 3 FF’s, between 0930-1700 hours, Relocated companies shall NOT perform)

The correct answer is: If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone

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56
Q
  1. Regarding the use of hydrant discs it would be most correct to state?

Select one:

a. Blue discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of hydrants and the 3” Siamese of sprinklers and standpipes indicating the system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and / or a portion of it will operate effectively when supplied
b. White discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable hydrants and the 3” Siamese of an out of service sprinkler or standpipe system
c. Yellow discs are available in one size only for placement on 2 ½” outlets of frozen hydrants
d. The Company Number (E99) and the individual disc number shall be painted in black on both sides of each disc

A

(Regs 28.3.1, 28.3.2) (painted in black on one side only, Yellow discs are available in two sizes for the 2 ½ and 4 ½, Blue disc is only for sprinkler + standpipes)

The correct answer is: White discs are available in two sizes for use on 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable hydrants and the 3” Siamese of an out of service sprinkler or standpipe system

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57
Q
  1. Which construction feature of an old law tenement is described incorrectly?

Select one:

a. When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape. This always applies to corner buildings.
b. In 1934, most of these buildings were required to fire retard the stairway enclosure.
c. When the building has four windows per floor and a front fire escape, it usually indicates three or four apartments per floor with another fire escape in the rear
d. There are two means of egress from each apartment, almost always consisting of an interior stairway and a fire escape.

A

MD 2.1) (This does not necessarily apply to corner buildings)

The correct answer is: When the building has four windows per floor and no front fire escape, it usually indicates two “railroad flats” with a rear fire escape. This always applies to corner buildings.

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58
Q
  1. At a fire in a H-type multiple dwelling where two floors are involved, it is generally necessary to transmit which signal below?

Select one:

a. 4th alarm
b. Extra engine and truck
c. 2nd alarm
d. 3rd alarm

A

The correct answer is: 2nd alarm

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59
Q
  1. In general, the Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting __________ pounds of a particular material.

Select one:

a. 500 or more
b. Over 500
c. 1000 or more
d. Over 1000

A

The correct answer is: Over 1000

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60
Q

Which one of the following injuries would not be classified as a “Minor” Injury?

Select one:

a. Sprain with minor swelling
b. Laceration, not requiring stitches
c. First degree burn
d. Foreign body in the eye, already removed

A

The correct answer is: Sprain with minor swelling

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61
Q

First alarm units respond to an alarm for a Lithium-Ion Energy Storage System housed in separate containers in an outdoor facility. On arrival, they determine there is no smoke or fire showing from any container. In this situation, the Engine Officer, as the initial IC, would be correct to?

Select one:

a. Stretch a precautionary hand line, and also stretch and charge a supply line to the Fire Department Connection
b. Insure members remain a minimum of 50 feet from any exhaust fan on any container
c. Establish an initial danger zone of at least 25 feet from any container
d. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 for a Haz Mat Response

A

The correct answer is: Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 for a Haz Mat Response

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62
Q
  1. In older cast iron lofts some sub-level openings provide direct access to the below grade level of the building, which can be more than _____ feet below the sidewalk.

Select one:

a. 20
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

20

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63
Q

A Company Officer conducting drill on the Pak-Tracker was correct when he stated that when searching?

Select one:

a. The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will usually pass through and penetrate through glass, wood, brick and concrete.
b. The bottom of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target
c. The Pak-tracker should be held at chest height out in front of the operating member
d. Always pause 3-4 seconds for a reading and always move toward the highest relative signal strength

A

3-4

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64
Q
  1. Regarding the color coding of high voltage cables found in hybrid vehicles it would be correct to state that?

Select one:

a. Most high voltage cables are color coded blue, however some might be orange
b. Most high voltage cables are color coded orange, however some might be blue
c. All high voltage cables are color coded orange
d. Most high voltage cables are color coded orange, however some might be red

A

The correct answer is: Most high voltage cables are color coded orange, however some might be blue

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65
Q

. Passenger cars that are propane powered should have a reflectorized warning sticker on the _____ side of the bumper with the 4 digit number _____ and the single digit number _____ below that?

Select one:

a. Left, 1075, 3
b. Right, 1961, 2
c. Right, 1075, 2
d. Left, 1075, 2

A

The correct answer is: Left, 1075, 2

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66
Q
  1. Ladder 100 is alone at the scene of a reported smoke detector activation when the Dispatcher receives a phone call reporting a fire at the same location. Which choice concerning this situation is incorrect?

Select one:

a. The Dispatcher will notify the responding BC and attempt to contact Ladder 100 to see if additional help is required
b. The Box will not be filled out by the dispatcher unless the responding BC requests it.
c. The Box will not be filled out by the dispatcher unless Ladder 100 requests it.
d. The Box will always be filled out by the dispatcher in this situation.

A

(Ch. 6 Sec. 6.2.3) (This is different than when an alarm is received from more than one source reporting an incident requiring a structural response PRIOR TO THE ARRIVAL OF FD UNITS. If no FD Units are on scene, then the dispatcher will dispatch a total of 3 Engine, 2 Ladders, and a BC)

The correct answer is: The Box will always be filled out by the dispatcher in this situation.

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67
Q
  1. A single unit should respond in alone in the 10-20 mode to all of the following emergencies with the exception of which type of incident?

Select one:

a. ERS no contact (2300-0800 hours).
b. A lock-in with no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency.
c. Salvage Truck.
d. Water Leak
e. A tree down on a car.

A

(Ch. 6 Add. 1 Sec. 2.1) (NO WIRES, BUILDINGS OR VEHICLES AFFECTED)

The correct answer is: A tree down on a car.

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68
Q
  1. Units that are assigned first due shall respond in the Emergency Mode for all of the following responses except for?

Select one:

a. Manhole emergencies.
b. Sprinkler activation.
c. Class 3 alarms – automatic, valve, manual, etc.
d. All odors.
e. Electrical emergencies.

A

(Ch. 6 Add. 1 Sec. 2.2) Odors – gas, fumes, etc. OTHER THAN SMOKE. Note: These are Group 2 responses – Units that are assigned first due shall respond in the Emergency Mode. Units that are assigned other than 1st due shall respond in the 10-20 mode.

The correct answer is: All odors.

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69
Q
  1. High pressure steam is used in buildings to provide heat, hot water and other purposes. This steam can reach temperatures as high as ______ degrees Fahrenheit?

Select one:

a. 500
b. 350
c. 400
d. 170

A

350

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70
Q
  1. When using foam equipment, it would be incorrect to state?

Select one:

a. A first alarm assignment of three engines and two ladders should provide 65 gallons of AR-AFFF, which will provide approximately 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam at a 3 % setting
b. Handlines with foam nozzles that are used with an eductor are useful for small spills of approximately 600 feet
c. Self-Educting Nozzles on Foam Tankers provide effective knockdown of spills over 600 square feet
d. Master Stream Nozzles are to be used at large spills over 1500 square feet

A

The correct answer is: Master Stream Nozzles are to be used at large spills over 1500 square feet

over 2000

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71
Q
  1. A Foam Tanker with 1500 gallons of foam in its booster tank, using their foam deck gun with a 1000 gpm nozzle at a 3 % setting, will provide _____ minutes of foam?

Select one:

a. 66
b. 33
c. 75
d. 50

A

50

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72
Q
  1. At a spill fire that is contained and not flowing, the widest pattern at the lowest velocity is obtained by?

Select one:

a. Applying the foam directly onto the front edge of the spill
b. Directing the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion
c. Bouncing the foam on the ground ahead of the fire
d. Deflecting the stream against something so the foam will slide down

A

The correct answer is: Bouncing the foam on the ground ahead of the fire

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73
Q
  1. When operating at a Bulk Oil Storage Facility where there is fire in a Bulk Oil tank, water should be applied to other similar exposed tanks to cool them?

Select one:

a. Only when the exposed tank is steaming
b. Whenever they are filled with a flammable liquid
c. Whenever they are within 15 feet of the tank on fire
d. Only when directed by the IC

A

The correct answer is: Only when the exposed tank is steaming

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74
Q
  1. When cleaning a foam eductor, water should be educted through it?

Select one:

a. For 5 minutes
b. For 10 minutes
c. For 15 minutes
d. Until clean water flows through the eductor

A

The correct answer is: Until clean water flows through the eductor

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75
Q
  1. Which signal would be incorrectly transmitted?

Select one:

a. 10-35-4 for an alarm system activation caused by a maintenance worker smoking in a stairwell.
b. 10-40-2 for an alarm system activation due to a utility power fluctuation.
c. 10-35-2 for an unwarranted sprinkler alarm caused by people working on the system.
d. 10-35-1 for an unnecessary alarm caused by the Fire Safety Director testing the Class E alarm system.

A

The correct answer is: 10-35-2 for an unwarranted sprinkler alarm caused by people working on the system.

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76
Q
  1. The recommended placement of the eductor at a Hi-Ex Foam operation is?

Select one:

a. At the pumper
b. One length from the pumper
c. One length from the generator
d. At the generator

A

The correct answer is: One length from the pumper

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77
Q

. Which choice is correct concerning the transmission of Signal 10-70?

Select one:

a. The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.
b. It requires a “Mayday” transmission on the HT.
c. It shall be transmitted when any Engine Company is unable to secure a positive water source.
d. It requires a “Mayday” message to the Borough Dispatcher.

A

mitted when the FIRST arriving Engine Company, requires an “Urgent”, requires an “Urgent”)

The correct answer is: The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.

78
Q
  1. A member would be correct to make an “Urgent” transmission for “Fire Extending” in which choice?

Select one:

a. Fire extending from a Private Dwelling attic to a 5’ by 5’ shed in the rear yard
b. Heavy fire extending to a small area of brush on the side of the building.
c. Minor fire extension to the curtains around the window in the rear bedroom of the fire apartment.
d. Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

A

h. 9 p. 9-11) (Member discovering fire extending INTO AN EXPOSURE and any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem)

The correct answer is: Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

79
Q
  1. An incorrect point concerning an “Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue” can be found in which choice?

Select one:

a. The member designated to perform the operation should be located remote from search activity.
b. The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.
c. It requires only one HT.
d. The Emergency Alert Button is pressed every few seconds.

A

(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.5.1, 9.5.3, 9.5.5, 9.5.6) (HT is placed on the channel which the missing, lost or trapped member was operating)

The correct answer is: The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.

80
Q
  1. The recommended placement of the eductor at a Hi-Ex Foam operation is?

Select one:

a. One length from the generator
b. At the generator
c. At the pumper
d. One length from the pumper

A

The correct answer is: One length from the pumper

81
Q
  1. At the completion of a HI-Ex foam operation, place the pick-up tube of the eductor in a pail of fresh, clean water and run the system at the same pressure used during operations for ______ minutes?

Select one:

a. 5
b. 15
c. 20
d. 10

A

15

82
Q
  1. Regarding the use of the AFFF Foam extinguisher, it would be inaccurate to state?

Select one:

a. Its distance reach is 35 to 40 feet
b. It should have 100 pounds of pressure
c. It should never be used on a Class “A” fire
d. It can be used on Class “B” fires like pit or grease fires

A

The correct answer is: It should never be used on a Class “A” fire

(TB Foam Add 2) (May be used on Special Class A fires like tires or small rubbish)

83
Q
  1. At a cellar fire in a private dwelling, which ladder company procedure is incorrect?

Select one:

a. When the first ladder uses the main entrance and advances down the cellar stairs, the second ladder will report to the IC and augment search operations and ventilation efforts on all floors above the cellar.
b. When the first hoseline is advanced through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs, the first ladder company will perform a primary search of only the cellar.
c. When the first ladder inside team proceeds to the cellar via a secondary entrance, the second ladder inside team will then provide VEIS of the floors above the cellar.
d. When the main entrance is used, if the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the first ladder inside team shall be sent to provide assistance.

A

(PD Ch 4 10.3, 10.4) (first ladder company will perform a primary search of THE FIRST FLOOR PRIOR TO DESCENDING INTO THE CELLAR)

The correct answer is: When the first hoseline is advanced through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs, the first ladder company will perform a primary search of only the cellar.

84
Q
  1. Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than _____ feet are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present.

Select one:

a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
d. 25

A

25

85
Q
  1. In lightweight parallel chord wood truss, the gang nails are the weakest point of the support system since these connections only penetrate _____.

Select one:

a. 1/2”-1”
b. 1”-2”
c. 1/3”-2/3”
d. 1/4”-1/2”

A

The correct answer is: 1/4”-1/2”

86
Q
  1. An incorrect point concerning an “Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue” can be found in which choice?

Select one:

a. The member designated to perform the operation should be located remote from search activity.
b. The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.
c. It requires only one HT.
d. The Emergency Alert Button is pressed every few seconds.

A

(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.5.1, 9.5.3, 9.5.5, 9.5.6) (HT is placed on the channel which the missing, lost or trapped member was operating)

The correct answer is: The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.

87
Q
  1. A member would be correct to make an “Urgent” transmission for “Fire Extending” in which choice?

Select one:

a. Fire extending from a Private Dwelling attic to a 5’ by 5’ shed in the rear yard
b. Heavy fire extending to a small area of brush on the side of the building.
c. Minor fire extension to the curtains around the window in the rear bedroom of the fire apartment.
d. Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

A

(Ch. 9 p. 9-11) (Member discovering fire extending INTO AN EXPOSURE and any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem)

The correct answer is: Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

88
Q
  1. Which choice is correct concerning the transmission of Signal 10-70?

Select one:

a. The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.
b. It requires a “Mayday” transmission on the HT.
c. It shall be transmitted when any Engine Company is unable to secure a positive water source.
d. It requires a “Mayday” message to the Borough Dispatcher.

A

(Ch. 9 p. 9-10) (transmitted when the FIRST arriving Engine Company, requires an “Urgent”, requires an “Urgent”)

The correct answer is: The IC shall announce over the HT and notify the Borough Dispatcher when a positive water source has been attained.

89
Q
  1. A member would be correct to make an “Urgent” transmission for “Fire Extending” in which choice?

Select one:

a. Fire extending from a Private Dwelling attic to a 5’ by 5’ shed in the rear yard
b. Heavy fire extending to a small area of brush on the side of the building.
c. Minor fire extension to the curtains around the window in the rear bedroom of the fire apartment.
d. Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

A

(Ch. 9 p. 9-11) (Member discovering fire extending INTO AN EXPOSURE and any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem)

The correct answer is: Heavy fire extending to Exposure 2, a Private Dwelling.

90
Q
  1. The recommended placement of the eductor at a Hi-Ex Foam operation is?

Select one:

a. At the pumper
b. One length from the pumper
c. One length from the generator
d. At the generator

A

The correct answer is: One length from the pumper

91
Q
  1. In cast-iron and mill loft buildings who notifies the IC of straight run stairs at upper floor fires?

Select one:

a. Second Ladder Company
b. Second Engine Company
c. First Engine Company
d. First Ladder Company

A

ofts, sec 7.2.3A1) 1st Ladder Company - Gains access to the fire area via the interior stairs for VES.

The correct answer is: First Ladder Company

92
Q

A Company Officer who is informed or made aware of that hazing or bullying conduct has occurred must report the incident or allegation in writing, up the chain of command to?

Select one:

a. BITS
b. The Fire Commissioner
c. The Chief of Operations
d. The Chief of Department

A

your an animal

93
Q

Company commanders shall determine special needs for winter operations and requisition or obtain such supplies and equipment in advance of winter weather. Requisitioning shall commence on what date to permit sufficient time for materials to be delivered?

Select one:

a. August 1st
b. July 1st
c. September 1st
d. October 1st

A

july 1st

94
Q
  1. First arriving units at the scene of a structural collapse should take all but which one of the following actions?

Select one:

a. Transmit a 10-60 with appropriate code when necessary.
b. Identify a location for the Incident Command Post.
c. Designate an initial staging area for other responders.
d. Do not enter any danger zones under any circumstances.

A

(Collapse 4.2, 4.3, 4.4,) - Do not enter any danger zones except to save life.

The correct answer is: Do not enter any danger zones under any circumstances.

95
Q
  1. The officer of a company drilling with a Training KO Curtain that finds a defect with the curtain should telephone _____________.

Select one:

a. Administrative Battalion
b. Bureau of Training
c. Technical Services
d. Research and Development

A

endum 1 3.3) - Telephone Tech Services and if instructed to place the Curtain out of service, notify the Division Training Chief and prepare an RT-2.

The correct answer is: Technical Services

96
Q
  1. When making assignments at an Under River Rail operation, the Incident Commander (IC) must attempt to keep sufficient SOC units available for specialized tasks, particularly if the use of Rebreather Masks is under consideration. For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to _______ feet from the point of entry, consider using SOC units with their supplied air cart and hose.

Select one:

a. 400
b. 500
c. 750
d. 300

A

300

97
Q
  1. Regarding vacant building markings, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. The square should be approximately 18” x 18” and lines shall be 2” wide, using lime-yellow reflective paint
b. Do not place markings on sealed doors or windows.
c. All vacant buildings shall be marked with an “X” symbol inside of a square
d. Additional markings shall be made at other places (e.g., rear or side entrance, fire escape, roof bulkhead, etc.)
e. Primary markings shall be made above the front entrance

A

acants 3.1) Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance.

The correct answer is: Primary markings shall be made above the front entrance

98
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect choice regarding the KO Curtain.

Select one:

a. If a company’s KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the Company Commander will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Operations.
b. Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes.
c. Repeated use of the KO Curtain for drill can cause unnecessary damage to the KO Curtain.
d. Each Battalion has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill.

A

(TB Tools 2 6.5, 6.6) - Each DIVISION has been issued Training KO Curtains

The correct answer is: Each Battalion has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill.

99
Q
  1. If two buildings are involved at a rowframe fire, ________________.

Select one:

a. Transmit a 2nd alarm
b. Transmit a 3rd alarm
c. Special call an extra engine and lad

A

2nd

100
Q
  1. When stretching a foam handline it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. If the go-gauge enters the red position, this indicates a flow problem that the ECC will need to correct
b. When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have minimal effect on foam production, but could cause the go-gauge to approach the red
c. Sufficient AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate containers should be placed near the nozzle
d. Members should avoid opening and closing the foam nozzle as this interrupts the educting process and causes an intermittent flow of foam

A
  1. When stretching a foam handline it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. If the go-gauge enters the red position, this indicates a flow problem that the ECC will need to correct
b. When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have minimal effect on foam production, but could cause the go-gauge to approach the red
c. Sufficient AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate containers should be placed near the nozzle
d. Members should avoid opening and closing the foam nozzle as this interrupts the educting process and causes an intermittent flow of foam

101
Q
  1. At a 3rd alarm, Tower Ladder 99 is ordered to place the Modified Angus Foam Cannon on its Tower Ladder Stang to operate at a large flammable liquid fire. In this situation, it would be incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. Approximately 1000 gpm of water is needed to supply the Foam Cannon
b. The basket of the Tower Ladder shall be staffed with 2 firefighters
c. Foam concentrate should be supplied to the FIMM pumper through 1 ¾” hose and be pumped at a minimum of 50 psi over the hydrant pressure
d. A FIMM pumper is required and it must utilize a 4 ½” back-flow prevention valve

A

Evol 3—2.1—2.5) (Basket shall be unstaffed)

The correct answer is: The basket of the Tower Ladder shall be staffed with 2 firefighters

102
Q
  1. When using the “Through the Lock” method to gain entry with a locked door, it would be incorrect to think that?

Select one:

a. Police locks are easily recognizable by the location of the lock cylinder in the center of the door
b. Police locks will require a square key tool to open
c. Before pulling the lock cylinder, check the position of the keyway, as the keyway is always the 6 o’clock position when using the 5 o’clock to 7 o’clock principle
d. Fox Locks will require a square key tool to open

A

—5-6) (Fox locks)

The correct answer is: Police locks are easily recognizable by the location of the lock cylinder in the center of the door

103
Q
  1. To force a door that has a multi-lock that is engaged, members should cut a triangle in the ________?

Select one:

a. Lower quadrant of the door on the hinge side
b. Upper quadrant of the door on the hinge side
c. Upper quadrant of the door on the doorknob side
d. Lower quadrant of the door on the doorknob side

A

The correct answer is: Lower quadrant of the door on the doorknob side

104
Q
  1. Regarding the Police Lock, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. Conventional forcible entry will be difficult as this lock offers great resistance
b. On the inside of the door, the lock has a metal rod extending down into a metal receptacle in the floor
c. The ring holding the tumbler in place will protrude about 1/8” on the public hall side of the door
d. The metal receptacle in the floor is about 2’ from the door

A

B) (will be almost flush with the door, Rim locks protrude 1/8”)

The correct answer is: The ring holding the tumbler in place will protrude about 1/8” on the public hall side of the door

105
Q
  1. If a Company Officer does not answer when called by the RCO, the RCO should next call all but which member(s)?

Select one:

a. Another company operating in the immediate area of that Officer.
b. The Nozzle or Back-up FF if it is an Engine officer
c. The Can or Irons FF if it is a Ladder officer
d. The IC
e. A firefighter operating with that Officer

A

Ch. 9 Add. 2 Sec. 4.10) (If the members or units in Choice A, B, D, or E are unable to account for the Officer and the Officer still has not responded to the roll call, the RCO must then notify the IC)

The correct answer is: The IC

106
Q
  1. When a member activates their Emergency Alert Button, the MDT will automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing all but which choice?

Select one:

a. Position
b. Name
c. Time
d. Company

A

The correct answer is: Name

107
Q
  1. While operating a Purple K extinguisher at a flammable liquid spill fire, FF Methane‘s actions would be incorrect in which statement?

Select one:

a. Hold the nozzle at a 45 degree angle to the ground.
b. Direct the stream of dry chemical 18-24 inches ahead of the flame edge
c. Direct the stream using a rapid side to side sweeping motion with each sweep slightly wider than the near edge of the fire
d. Stop walking at approximately 10 to 12 feet from the front edge of the fire area

A

The correct answer is: Direct the stream of dry chemical 18-24 inches ahead of the flame edge

108
Q
  1. You are a Company Officer working in Engine 229, a Purple K unit, that is special called to a fire for the use of their Purple K. In this situation, you would be incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. Be aware that the Purple K truck mounted system will last less than 2 minutes
b. The Purple K unit has two electric hose reels containing 100’ of 1” hose, with special nozzles for expelling the product
c. When using more than one extinguisher, the angle of attack of these extinguishers should be no more than 45 degrees
d. Start the attack about 20-30 feet from the fire, with the wind at your back, and use a side to side sweeping motion.

A

The correct answer is: When using more than one extinguisher, the angle of attack of these extinguishers should be no more than 45 degrees 90

109
Q
  1. When subjected to the weight of one person, the LSR shall be carefully examined for damage or abrasion before being placed back in service. An entry shall also be made in the Company Journal in _____ and also on the Life Saving Rope Record Card (RP-100) in _____.

Select one:

a. Blue or Black, Red
b. Red, Black
c. Red, Blue or Black
d. Red, Red

A

redb red

110
Q
  1. The LSR be placed out of service forthwith whenever?

Select one:

a. It has developed a kink
b. It is used for a single slide by a member
c. It shows signs of wear
d. It is subjected to medium or highly heated surfaces

A

The correct answer is: It shows signs of wear

111
Q
  1. When repacking the Life Saving Rope which procedure is stated incorrectly?

Select one:

a. After placing the anti-chafing devise on the LSR then pull 1 ½ arms-length of rope through the anti-chafing device and tie a bowline knot on this section of rope
b. Once the entire rope is coiled in the case, remove 4 feet of rope from the carrying case and place the anti-chafing device on this section of the LSR
c. After the LSR is coiled, place the hook of the LSR in the left front corner of the carrying case, then place the LSR making counterclockwise circles one half the width of the bottom of the case
d. The entire rope should first be coiled clockwise into an approximate 4 foot diameter

A

—Pg 2) (remove 3 feet of rope)

The correct answer is: Once the entire rope is coiled in the case, remove 4 feet of rope from the carrying case and place the anti-chafing device on this section of the LSR

112
Q
  1. To activate the Emergency Alert, the Emergency Alert Button must be depressed for approximately ______?

Select one:

a. ¼ second
b. ½ second
c. 1 second
d. 2 seconds

A

The correct answer is: 1 second

113
Q
  1. The Officer on Duty must immediately make the following notifications upon discovery of a missing HT with the exception of which choice?

Select one:

a. FDOC via email and telephone.
b. Fire Marshals and NYPD
c. Administrative Battalion and Division
d. Radio Shop via email.

A

b

114
Q
  1. Some of the warning signs that will signal a potential structural collapse during firefighting operations at a taxpayer are mentioned below. Which one is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Heavy body of fire which had been burning out of control for 10 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.
b. Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 20 minutes into the operation at the fire.
c. Sagging or bulging walls. One cubic foot of brickwork weighs about 100 pounds.
d. Spongy or soft feeling as you walk on the roof.

A

Taxpayers 4.2.5) (Heavy body of fire which had been burning out of control for 20 MINUTES OR MORE)

The correct answer is: Heavy body of fire which had been burning out of control for 10 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.

115
Q
  1. Generally, wood joists run the short side of a building or occupancy, particularly in the older taxpayers where the occupancies within a taxpayer have frontages not exceeding _____ feet.

Select one:

a. 25
b. 20
c. 35
d. 30

Feedback

(Taxpayers 5.5.10)

A

The correct answer is: 20

116
Q
  1. Every officer who observes a member exhibiting possible signs of alcohol or drug abuse shall consult with?

Select one:

a. Counseling Services Unit (CSU)
b. Administrative Division Chief
c. Administrative Battalion Chief
d. Bureau of Health Services (BHS)

A

The correct answer is: Counseling Services Unit (CSU)

117
Q
  1. Buckeye Pipeline valves located on the shipper’s lines extending from the Long Island City terminal require _____ full turns clockwise to shut off.

Select one:

a. 42
b. 48
c. 12
d. 24

A

24

118
Q
  1. Regarding the Search Rope design, it would be correct to state that?

Select one:

a. Spacing between distance knots is approximately 3 inches
b. Distance knots are 25 feet apart
c. All distance knots will have a directional knot
d. Directional knots are located 12 inches before distance knots

A

3) (The 25’ distance knot has NO directional knot, Spacing between distance knots is 6 inches, Directional knots are located 18 inches)

The correct answer is: Distance knots are 25 feet apart

119
Q
  1. The Division Inflatable Soft Landing Mat shall be placed out of service in which situation(s)?

Select one or more:

a. The mat develops a tear
b. The firmness of the mat is not capable of holding the weight of a member standing on it
c. The motor continually fails to operate

A

Your answer is partially correct.

You have correctly selected 1.

(TB—Rope—DS 4—7.1, 7.3, 7.4)

The correct answers are: The mat develops a tear, The motor continually fails to operate, The firmness of the mat is not capable of holding the weight of a member standing on it

120
Q

A “10-31” should be transmitted for all but which of the following incident(s)?

Select one or more:

a. A stuck elevator

Use the 10-29 code

b. A highway incident in which FDNY units blocked traffic for EMS
c. A lock-out
d. A medical assignment that FDNY units did not perform patient care
e. Any calls that are handled by another agency

Feedback

(Communications Chap. 8) (10-31 for calls for assistance ot

A

. 8) (10-31 for calls for assistance other than medical assignments, Stuck Elevators use 10-29 with appropriate code. D.O. 72/19)

The correct answers are: A stuck elevator, A medical assignment that FDNY units did not perform patient care

121
Q
  1. When activated, glow sticks will provide up to ______ hours of illumination.

Select one:

a. 5
b. 3
c. 10
d. 12

A

12

122
Q
  1. The Hazardous Material classification on a DOT placard for LPG is the number _____ and its 4 digit ID number is _____?

Select one:

a. 2, 1075
b. 3, 1971
c. 3, 1075
d. 2, 1971

A

The correct answer is: 2, 1075

123
Q
  1. Which choice contains an incorrect point about the properties of Methanol?

Select one:

a. Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will float above the ground collecting in high areas.
b. Methanol has a flash point of 54 degrees Fahrenheit and is soluble in water.
c. Methanol burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.
d. Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid.

A

4.3) (Vapors are slightly heavier than air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas)

The correct answer is: Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will float above the ground collecting in high area

124
Q
  1. In buildings under construction, combination standpipe valve handles shall be painted what color?

Select one:

a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Green

A

ye

125
Q
  1. If an out of service fire protection system is found in an occupied residential occupancy, however the owner, impairment coordinator, and/or responsible building staff are not available ask the Dispatcher to notify whom?

Select one:

a. OEM
b. Bureau of Fire Investigation
c. HPD
d. Department of Buildings

A

(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add.4 4.6) OEM will coordinate with HPD to ensure proper actions are taken until a responsible party can be contacted.

The correct answer is: OEM

126
Q
  1. Not more than ______ Violation Categories (VCs) are to be cited on each FDNY Summons.

Select one:

a. 3
b. 5
c. 9
d. 7

A

The correct answer is: 7

127
Q
  1. One quarter of an SCBA cylinder’s air is remaining when a ______ light at the far ______ of the Heads-Up Display flashes _________?

Select one:

a. Red, left, rapidly
b. Red, right, rapidly
c. Yellow, right, slowly
d. Yellow, left, rapidly

A

(TB–SCBA 3.8.9)

The correct answer is: Red, left, rapidly

128
Q
  1. You are a company officer at the 0900 Roll Call where a member indicates he cannot get a proper seal with the SCBA facepiece. In this situation, which action would be incorrect?

Select one:

a. Be aware that small and extra-large facepieces are available through the Battalion and Mask Service Unit
b. If the member cannot achieve a good seal with any facepieces available, immediately notify the Safety Command and the Mask Service Unit and insure the member does not operate in areas requiring an SCBA until the problem is resolved
c. First, have the member reposition the facepiece and try again
d. Second, if the leak persists, have a member who can achieve a good seal with a standard facepiece check this SCBA.

A

CBA—4.2.3 E) (Division or MSU)

The correct answer is: Be aware that small and extra-large facepieces are available through the Battalion and Mask Service Unit

129
Q
  1. At a minimum, all sites with Pre-Incident Guidelines shall be the scene of a familiarization drill how often?

Select one:

a. Every two years
b. Semi-Annually
c. Annually
d. Quarterly

Feedback

(AUC 345 5.1)

A

annua

130
Q
  1. When operating at an incident involving Energy Storage Systems where there is no fire or smoke showing and there is no rise in temperature from the container or cabinet on arrival, it would be correct to?

Select one:

a. Transmit a 10-80 No Code
b. Shut down the ESS
c. Exhaust the container or cabinet using the exhaust override switch at the FDC.
d. Stretch a precautionary handline and charge the FDC of the water extinguishing system of the container/ cabinet if available.

A

5) (DO NOT charge the FDC, 10-80 Code 1, Do not shut down the ESS)

The correct answer is: Exhaust the container or cabinet using the exhaust override switch at the FDC.

131
Q
  1. Which is an incorrect point below regarding operations after fire has been extinguished at an Energy Storage Systems fire?

Select one:

a. FDNY personnel shall only enter a container if necessary, for final extinguishment.
b. A SME is required to be on scene within 2 hours.
c. FDNY personnel may open container or cabinet doors after consultation with SME and only when the fire is extinguished.
d. No overhauling shall be performed by members at any ESS fire.

A

6) (FDNY personnel shall not enter any container)

The correct answer is: FDNY personnel shall only enter a container if necessary, for final extinguishment.

132
Q
  1. Areas that have been designated as a “Danger Zone” should not be entered except to save life or if authorized by the IC or?

Select one:

a. Sector Chief
b. Safety Chief
c. Operations Chief
d. SOC officer working in the area

A

The correct answer is: Sector Chief

133
Q

Theft of property in connection with illegal entry of quarters must be reported immediately to the Police Department. If there is no illegal entry of quarters and a Department employee is suspected, immediately notify _________ and forward a report with full particulars to the Chief of Operations.

Select one:

a. The Inspector General (IG)
b. The Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)

A
134
Q

Theft of property in connection with illegal entry of quarters must be reported immediately to the Police Department. If there is no illegal entry of quarters and a Department employee is suspected, immediately notify _________ and forward a report with full particulars to the Chief of Operations.

Select one:

a. The Inspector General (IG)
b. The Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)

A

ig

135
Q
  1. Please choose a correct description about the Air Train Guideways from the list below?

Select one:

a. Most guideways are elevated. There are some sections that travel along grade level, through tunnels, and also through a terminal building.
b. The AirTrain guideway has two parallel tracks. AirTrains generally follow the left hand side rule, that is, they travel in the same fashion as automobile traffic.
c. There are no Blue Light Station Power Removal Boxes along the guideway.

A

AUC 207, add 12, sec 4) The AirTrain guideway has two parallel tracks. AirTrains generally follow the right hand side rule, that is, they travel in the same fashion as automobile traffic, and there are Blue Light Station Power Removal Boxes along the guideway.

The correct answer is: Most guideways are elevated. There are some sections that travel along grade level, through tunnels, and also through a terminal building.

136
Q
  1. Which point indicated below regarding the Fire Window Blanket is not correctly stated?

Select one:

a. A spotter shall be designated by the assigned unit or IC and be equipped with a HT and binoculars obtained from the battalion vehicle
b. The bottom of the blanket is weighted to facilitate positioning
c. Members assigned to the floor below must be in place prior to deploying the blanket
d. When a replacement Fire Window Blanket is required, the company officer should contact the Division

A

The correct answer is: When a replacement Fire Window Blanket is required, the company officer should contact the Division

(TB Tools 3—3.2, 3.4, 4.3) (Contact R & D during business hours, Contact SOC during non-business hours)

137
Q
  1. Safe Refuge Area should occur in which zone?

Select one:

a. Support Zone / Cold Zone
b. Decontamination Zone
c. Contamination Reduction Zone / Warm Zone
d. Exclusion Zone / Hot Zone

A

The correct answer is: Contamination Reduction Zone / Warm Zone

138
Q
  1. The Casualty Collection Point is located in the?

Select one:

a. Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone
b. Support Zone/Cold Zone
c. Decontamination Zone
d. Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone

A

The correct answer is: Support Zone/Cold Zone

139
Q
  1. During a hazardous materials incident the second arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. TEAM 1 from the Second arriving ladder is responsible for?

Select one:

a. Evacuation to gross decon
b. Site access control
c. Hazard identification
d. Information Resource

A

The correct answer is: Information Resource

140
Q
  1. Manifestation of a biological incident is not immediate; however, manifestation of a chemical attack will be immediate. However, there are two biological agents that may present immediate symptoms. Please choose the biological agents that may present immediate symptoms.

Select one:

a. Mustards & Phosgene
b. Ricin & Mycotoxins
c. COVID-19 & Cholera
d. Anthrax & Plague

A

The correct answer is: Ricin & Mycotoxins

141
Q
  1. Units responding to a chemical agent attack should know that a Choking Agent may give an odor that would smell like?

Select one:

a. Garlic
b. Chlorine
c. Fruit
d. Burnt Almonds

A

The correct answer is: Chlorine

142
Q

Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes), except for which agents that has delayed effects?

Select one:

a. Ricin & Mycotoxins
b. Mustards & Phosgene
c. Hydrogen Cyanide & Cyanogen Chloride
d. Sarin (GB) & VX

A

The correct answer is: Mustards & Phosgene

143
Q
  1. At a chemical attack, which engine informs the second arriving ladder company and the Incident Commander that victims are collapsing on their way from the subway exit to the gross decontamination area?

Select one:

a. 3rd Engine
b. 2nd Engine
c. 1st Engine
d. 4th Engine

A

The correct answer is: 1st Engine

144
Q
  1. A small group of local residents enters your quarters and requests a spray cap for a hydrant on their block. You should issue the spray cap as long as all but which one of the following conditions is met?

Select one:

a. The requesting party is at least 16 years old.
b. The cap is not placed on a hydrant on a two-way street, near an intersection, on a bus route, or on an access route to main traffic arteries.
c. The cap is not placed on a hydrant that is located on a main larger than 20 inches in diameter.
d. The “Request for Spray Caps Form” is completed

A

Add.1 Page 2) (Ensure the requesting party is at least 18 years old)

The correct answer is: The requesting party is at least 16 years old.

145
Q
  1. Upon receiving a request for a Fire Safety Education Event, other than a visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty shall have the requester contact whom?

Select one:

a. Administrative Battalion
b. Fire Prevention
c. Fire Safety Education Unit
d. FDNY Press Desk

A

The correct answer is: Fire Safety Education Unit

146
Q
  1. When using multiple air bags to obtain greater lift height it would be most correct to state that?

Select one:

a. Never stack more than three bags on top of each other
b. Always place the smaller bag on top of the larger bag
c. Be aware the tonnage of the larger bag is the maximum that can be lifted
d. Generally, inflate the top bag first

A

(TB Tools20 - 6.9) (Never stack more than two bags, inflate bottom bag first, Be aware the tonnage of the Smaller bag)

The correct answer is: Always place the smaller bag on top of the larger bag

147
Q
  1. When operations are being conducted with a chain saw it would be incorrect to think that?

Select one:

a. The control member must not remove cutting debris while the operator is cutting
b. Hand signals must be established between the operator, control person and officer
c. The Control member should be positioned to permit easy visual contact with the officer
d. Anytime the control member approaches the immediate cutting area, the operator must first apply the chain break and signal the control member to approach

A

The correct answer is: The Control member should be positioned to permit easy visual contact with the officer

148
Q

Radiological materials come in all three physical states—solid, liquid and gas. Which point below concerning radiological materials is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Neutron can affect the whole body and its range is up to several hundred feed.
b. Alpha is an inhalation hazard and its range is 1 to 2 inches.
c. Gamma can affect the whole body and its range is up to 25 feet.
d. Beta can penetrate skin up to ¼” thick and its range is up to 10 feet.

A

able) (several hundred feet)

The correct answer is: Gamma can affect the whole body and its range is up to 25 feet.

149
Q
  1. The FDNY action level for radiological incident or emergency is?

Select one:

a. 1 Rem/hr
b. 2 Rem/hr
c. 1mR/hr
d. 2mr/hr

A

The correct answer is: 1mR/hr

150
Q
  1. The FDNY Hotline is established at ______ for radiological incidents and emergencies?

Select one:

a. 2mr/hr
b. 2 Rem/hr
c. 1 Rem/hr
d. 1mR/hr

A

The correct answer is: 2mr/hr

MR

151
Q
  1. While operating at overturned box truck you noticed packages with diamond shaped label that reads radioactive. When it comes to the TI index found on these labels, you would be incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. The transport index of a package should not exceed 10 mR/hr.
b. The total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr.
c. The transport index indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one foot from an undamaged package.
d. If levels of radiation exceed the TI, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached.

A

P Ch4 App 2, 2.5) (One meter)

The correct answer is: The transport index indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one foot from an undamaged package.

152
Q
  1. When making assignments at an Under River Rail operation, the Incident Commander (IC) must attempt to keep sufficient SOC units available for specialized tasks, particularly if the use of Rebreather Masks is under consideration. For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to _______ feet from the point of entry, consider using SOC units with their supplied air cart and hose.

Select one:

a. 400
b. 750
c. 500
d. 300

A

The correct answer is: 300

153
Q
  1. At an LP Gas truck fire, keep everyone not actually engaged in operations, at least _____feet from the front and rear of the tank and ______ feet from the sides.

Select one:

a. 500 / 1000
b. 1000 / 500
c. 250 / 500
d. 500 / 250

A

The correct answer is: 1000 / 500

154
Q

he Taxpayer bulletin lists three times when a 2nd alarm should be transmitted at these fires. Which one of the following is not listed?

Select one:

a. Fire extends to the cockloft
b. Fire extends to an adjoining occupancy
c. An advanced fire in a store with two handlines operating.
d. An advanced fire in the cellar

A

The correct answer is: An advanced fire in a store with two handlines operating.

155
Q
  1. Convected heat movement showing on the TIC may appear as?

Select one:

a. Gray swirling waves or smoke
b. Black swirling waves or smoke
c. Brown swirling waves or smoke
d. White swirling waves or smoke

A

The correct answer is: White swirling waves or smoke

156
Q
  1. When the battery power status indicator on the Evolution 6000 Thermal Imaging Camera has one Red LED flashing, this indicates that the battery has?

Select one:

a. Less than 15 minutes left
b. Less than 1 hour left
c. 1 - 2 hours left
d. 5 minutes or less remaining

A

The correct answer is: 5 minutes or less remaining

157
Q
  1. Which point is correct regarding the “Ogura” cordless Rebar Cutter?

Select one:

a. Hold the material to be cut with your hand
b. The tool should be positioned so it is at 45 degrees to the rebar to be cut
c. It is designed for cutting maximum 5/8” diameter high tensile rebar
d. Allow the Tipped saw blade to reach full speed before beginning to cut

A

2—3.1) (1” diameter high tensile rebar, positioned so it is at 90 degrees, DO NOT Hold the material to be cut with your hand)

The correct answer is: Allow the Tipped saw blade to reach full speed before beginning to cut

158
Q
  1. Which extinguisher(s) have a yellow label affixed indicating its use on Class “D” fires?

Select one:

a. Only the MET-L-X extinguisher
b. Neither extinguisher
c. Only the LITH-X extinguisher
d. Both the MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers

A

The correct answer is: Only the MET-L-X extinguisher

159
Q
  1. When using the keys to lower a bollard, members should insert the key marked?

Select one:

a. “RB” to unlock the control box and the key marked “EM” into the upper key switch inside
b. “EM” to unlock the control box and the key marked “FD” into the upper key switch inside
c. “RB” to unlock the control box and the key marked “FD” into the upper key switch inside
d. “EM” to unlock the control box and the key marked “RB” into the upper key switch inside

A

The correct answer is: “RB” to unlock the control box and the key marked “EM” into the upper key switch inside

160
Q
  1. At an extended operation using the Digital In-Line Gauge, the Control FF sees the digital readout slowly flash “LO batt”. In this situation she should know that there are approximately ______ minutes of battery life remaining?

Select one:

a. 30
b. 90
c. 10
d. 60

Feedback

(TB Tools 36—5.3)

A

90

161
Q
  1. Which point concerning the Blitzfire Solid Stream tips is incorrect?

Select one:

a. The 1 ¼” solid stream tip will flow approximately 490 gpm’s when supplied with 175 psi at the inlet
b. Its integrated stream shaper should be supplemented with another stream shaper attached to the solid stream tip
c. The 1 ½” solid stream tip will flow approximately 500 gpm’s when supplied with 175 psi at the inlet
d. It has an integrated stream shaper

A

.5) (will flow 600 gpm’s)

The correct answer is: The 1 ½” solid stream tip will flow approximately 500 gpm’s when supplied with 175 psi at the inlet

162
Q

First alarm units arrive at an emergency in a building where a high-pressure steam riser in the wall of the building has failed and created serious steam conditions. In this situation, members would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve
b. Steam temperatures in a supplied building can be as high as 900 degrees Fahrenheit
c. Members should shut all of the steam valves inside of the steam control room
d. Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

A

The correct answer is: Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

163
Q

You are Captain Fauci from E99, operating in the A-Wing of an H-type building where there is heavy fire in the cockloft. The IC orders you to use the cockloft nozzle in an attempt to control extension of the fire. In this situation, you would be incorrect to believe that the cockloft nozzle?

Select one:

a. Delivers about 180 gallons of water per minute.
b. Requires the same pressure as a standard 1 ¾” line
c. Should be supplied by a 1 ¾” hose line
d. Has a configuration of the ½” Outer Stream Tips that eliminates back pressure

A

The correct answer is: Delivers about 180 gallons of water per minute.

164
Q
  1. An Engine Company arrives at the scene of a 10-75 where they choose to utilize In-Line Pumping procedures for their apparatus water supply. The members would be correct to believe that after the pumper stops with the rear step opposite the hydrant?

Select one:

a. While the Hydrant FF is testing the hydrant, the Hose FF shall key the hydrant using
b. The ECC is the member who should break the 3 ½” supply line and connect it to the 3” gated inlet on the pump panel side
c. The Hydrant FF should maintain the key as the pumper proceeds, then connect the 3 ½” hose to the 4 ½” outlet. He must also connect the 2 ½” gate to the hydrants 2 ½” outlet
d. 3 ½” hose that is prepared for ILP, taking a turn around the hydrant
e. The Hydrant FF must bring a hydrant wrench, 2 ½” gate, and a bolt cutter

A

A — 3.1, 3.2, 3.5) (Bolt cutter only brought if necessary, After the hydrant is tested and deemed serviceable, 2 ½ gate connected only if time permits)

The correct answer is: The ECC is the member who should break the 3 ½” supply line and connect it to the 3” gated inlet on the pump panel side

165
Q
  1. A Ladder Company arrives at the scene of an auto extrication incident where the driver is trapped inside of an upright, stable vehicle, but no engine company or EMS unit is on the scene yet. Which of the following actions was most correct for the unit to take?

Select one:

a. The Chauffeur and OV brought the Hurst Tool equipment to the scene
b. The Irons FF disconnected the battery, removing the positive terminal first
c. The Hurst Tool Power Unit was placed on the Driver’s side of the vehicle
d. The Can FF climbed inside the vehicle in order to stabilize the victim

A

nt 3.3.3, 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.2.3) (Once an engine or EMS arrives, the inside team can pass off patient stabilization and assist the outside team with disentanglement. Roof and OV bring Hurst tool equipment to scene of accident and initiate operation. The power unit should be placed in the front or rear of the vehicle. This will allow flexibility to operate on both sides of vehicle without having to reposition. When disconnecting the battery, remove the negative terminal first.)

The correct answer is: The Can FF climbed inside the vehicle in order to stabilize the victim

166
Q
  1. Regarding bucket operations, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. The pedestal position should be staffed whenever a TL operation is in progress
b. Substantial parts of the bucket include any bucket post or the waterway
c. If two members are operating in a TL bucket, at least one member must personally verify the placement of both door latches
d. Each member operating in a TL bucket shall ensure they use either the installed safety belt or a life belt / personal harness secured to a substantial part of the bucket

A

Ch 3—Pg 1) (BOTH members must personally verify the placement)

The correct answer is: If two members are operating in a TL bucket, at least one member must personally verify the placement of both door latches

167
Q
  1. EEO personnel arrive at 1300 hours in the quarters of Engine 99 and Ladder 100 to conduct an unannounced EEO compliance inspection. In this situation, it would be most correct to state that?

Select one:

a. The housewatch member should not make any type of notification or any announcement at all, unless specifically directed to do so by EEO personnel
b. The compliance inspection will be conducted while the unit remains in service, but will terminate if any unit receives an alarm
c. The EEO investigators, officers and staff will present their FDNY ID and must sign their name, in their own handwriting, in red ink, in the company journal
d. When the inspection is complete, the EEO investigator will provide the officer with a signed copy of the EEO inspection sheet

A

Regs 20.3.10) (The housewatch will notify the officer on-duty that his/her presence is required at the housewatch area, If the Unit in a single unit house OR both Units in a double house receive an alarm during the EEO visit, then the EEO staff will terminate the inspection and leave the premises, EEO personnel, after presentation of official identification, in lieu of signing-in may use their employee identification number for entry into the journal.)

The correct answer is: When the inspection is complete, the EEO investigator will provide the officer with a signed copy of the EEO inspection sheet

168
Q
  1. An ECC that is using In-Line Pumping for his water supply is supplying two handlines and finds that his intake pressure drops very low and he requires augmentation. In this situation, he would be correct to be augmented by (More than one correct)?

Select one or more:

a. Having another pumper, who is also using In-Line Pumping, stretch 3 ½” hose into his gated inlet to relay water. In this situation, 2 ½” hose should never be used for relay between two In-Line Pumpers.
b. Handstretching 3 ½” hose to another pumper on a hydrant, who will relay to him
c. Handstretching 2 ½” hose to the same hydrant using the 2 ½” gate
d. Handstretching 2 ½” hose to another hydrant

A

1A — Note 12) (Handstretching 3 ½” only, 2 ½” may be used if absolutely necessary)

The correct answers are: Handstretching 2 ½” hose to the same hydrant using the 2 ½” gate, Handstretching 3 ½” hose to another pumper on a hydrant, who will relay to him

169
Q
  1. Defective HTs should be forwarded to the Division with the radio, battery, antenna, remote speaker and leather strap. (Comm 11 5.5, Add. 4 2.1.7)

Select one:

a. Disagree
b. Agree

A

(Leather cases and straps should only be sent if in need of repair)

The correct answer is: Disagree

170
Q
  1. If member(s) enter a bucket for VEIS, and the bucket is moved for a rescue, the member(s) performing VEIS must be immediately notified and as soon as possible the bucket?

Select one:

a. Must always be returned to the window
b. Should be returned to the window or replaced by an aerial ladder or portable ladder
c. Must be replaced by an aerial ladder or other tower ladder basket as soon as possible

A

The correct answer is: Should be returned to the window or replaced by an aerial ladder or portable ladder

171
Q
  1. An officer conducting drill on Under River Rail Operations was correct when he stated that the entry point from a tunnel to a tube is indicated when members see a square underground tunnel section connecting to a?

Select one:

a. Square under river tube
b. Triangular under river tube
c. Round under river tube
d. Rectangular under river tube

A

Fig 1, Pg 4 – Fig 3) (In most cases, it is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river.)

The correct answer is: Round under river tube

172
Q
  1. When breaching an exterior wall, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. If using a power saw to cut through brick and concrete, the combination metal/concrete saw blade (Diamond Blade) shall be used
b. If using a maul to breach cinder blocks, start at the top
c. The first and second cut should be made at the brickwork
d. Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle downward

A

5—Pg 1) (Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle upward)

The correct answer is: Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle downward

173
Q
  1. When fire is not visible within the large open area of the place of worship, but suspected to be within the concealed area, the first priority is?

Select one:

a. A Tower Ladder stream into the Clearstory Window
b. Water application into the Minaret
c. A Tower Ladder stream into the Rose Window
d. Water application into the attic vent

A

f Worship—3.2)

The correct answer is: Water application into the attic vent

174
Q
  1. An officer of a ladder company is supervising the backing of a tiller apparatus into quarters where the vehicle is unable to initially be centered for backing in and the chauffeur’s side of the apparatus will be blind to the apparatus entrance door. Which point below would be incorrect to follow in this situation?

Select one:

a. The tiller firefighter should initially bring the apparatus closer to the officer’s side, so the officer can guide the chauffeur until the apparatus is in a straight line.
b. Members should be stationed on the sidewalk in front of quarters to guide the apparatus and prevent any pedestrian from walking into the rear of the apparatus.
c. The officer should give the order to allow the stopped vehicular traffic to proceed only when the front of the apparatus is completely in quarters.
d. The officer should designate members to stop vehicular traffic.

A

B 2—Pages 2-3) (Vehicles may proceed when apparatus completely on apron)

The correct answer is: The officer should give the order to allow the stopped vehicular traffic to proceed only when the front of the apparatus is completely in quarters.

175
Q
  1. When backing a tower ladder into a block, it would be incorrect to state the Guide Firefighter?

Select one:

a. Should take a flanking position alongside the apparatus
b. Should use hand signals
c. Should use a flashlight at night
d. Is typically the OV Firefighter

A

L-6—Ch 2—Pg 18)

The correct answer is: Should take a flanking position alongside the apparatus

176
Q
  1. At a High Rise FPMD apartment fire, ventilation of the attack stairway should take place?

Select one:

a. As soon is water is on the fire
b. As the hose line advance begins
c. After the main body of fire is knocked down
d. After the main body of fire is controlled

A

(MDS 6.3.4)

The correct answer is: After the main body of fire is knocked down

177
Q
  1. Ladder 100 responds at 0915 hours to a reported stuck elevator in a NYCHA building which is equipped with an electromagnetic locking device. They are informed by dispatcher that the entire building has lost electrical power. In order to gain access to the main entrance, they would be most correct to?

Select one:

a. Use their NYCHA issued Key FOB
b. Call the 24 hour NYCHA Emergency Number to have NYCHA Security remotely unlock the door
c. Call the FDNY dispatcher to have NYCHA Security remotely unlock the door
d. Proceed to the NYCHA Building Management Office to obtain a special key to unlock the door

A

The correct answer is: Proceed to the NYCHA Building Management Office to obtain a special key to unlock the door

178
Q

. The Emergency Alert Button (EAB) on the HT should be depressed for approximately __________________ to activate the Emergency Alert.

Select one:

a. ½ second
b. ¼ second
c. 1 second
d. 2 seconds

A

The correct answer is: 1 second

179
Q
  1. Tower Ladder 111 arrives first at a fire on the fourth floor of a 5-story OLT type Row Frame building, attached on both sides with two similar exposures on each side. In this situation, they would be correct to think that?

Select one:

a. If the basket is used for roof access, after completion of roof size-up, the basket FF will immediately position the basket for top floor VEIS, as coordinated with the Ladder Officer on that floor
b. The 2nd LCC may be immediately sent to the roof to assist with roof operations
c. The 1st Irons FF may be requested to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment after forcible entry has been accomplished
d. The first preference for the Roof FF to reach the roof is for him to proceed to the roof using Exposure 2A or Exposure 4A

A

(Order of Preference – 1 - the basket, 2 - the 1st arriving aerial ladder, 3 - an adjoining building, The OV will wait for completion of roof size up before repositioning the basket to the fire floor for ventilation.

The correct answer is: The 2nd LCC may be immediately sent to the roof to assist with roof operations

180
Q
  1. Units not assigned to a sector or group supervisor should give reports to the?

Select one:

a. Incident Commander
b. Resource Unit Leader
c. Operations Chief
d. Nearest Sector / Group Supervisor

A

The correct answer is: Incident Commander

181
Q
  1. While operating on a slope, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. All green lights should be illuminated on the outrigger control panel on newer tower ladders
b. Extending and / or lowering the boom may be required for uphill operations
c. Lower the jacks and outriggers and confirm all wheels remain on the ground to help prevent skipping
d. All boom operations should be performed delicately and at low speeds while on a steep incline. All sudden movements should be avoided

A

The correct answer is: Extending and / or lowering the boom may be required for uphill operations

(L-6—Ch 2—Pg 19-20) (Retracting and / or raising the boom)

182
Q
  1. Please choose the incorrect procedure for a carbon monoxide (CO) emergency (meter readings greater than 9 ppm - less than 100 ppm, no symptoms)?

Select one:

a. Once the faulty appliance is shut down and ventilation has reduced the CO level to 9 PPM or less the premises may be reoccupied.
b. If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down.
c. Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO.
d. Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.

A

on 4.4) Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.

The correct answer is: Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.

183
Q
  1. When performing a backstretch, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. The third firefighter to remove hose should lay the next 3 folds on the ground slightly to the side away from the direction of the stretch
b. After firefighters remove enough hose for the stretch, as the pumper proceeds to the hydrant playing out hose on the way, the control firefighter should ride the rear step.
c. The first firefighter to remove hose should lay his 3 folds of hose on the ground about 15 feet from the apparatus, slightly to the side in the direction of the stretch
d. The second firefighter to remove hose should lay the next 3 folds slightly to the side in the direction of the stretch

A

The correct answer is: The second firefighter to remove hose should lay the next 3 folds slightly to the side in the direction of the stretch

(Evol 1 — 3.2, 4.1) (2nd FF lays hose directly to the rear of the apparatus)

184
Q
  1. “The Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) Nerve Agent Antidote procedure applies to all FDNY members.”

Select one:

a. True
b. False

A

13, section 2.1) This procedure applies to all FDNY members trained to operate in Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC), including members of EMS Haz-Tac units.

The correct answer is: False

185
Q
  1. When a smoke and / or heat condition exists in a public hallway on the fire floor, and the first due ladder officer is unable to determine if the fire is wind impacted, the first ladder officer should enter the public hallway to locate the fire apartment with one member of the FE team?

Select one:

a. Leaving the other FE team member at the attack stairwell door on the hallway side
b. Leaving the other FE team member at the attack stairwell door on the stairwell side

A

ther FE team member at the attack stairwell door on the hallway side

186
Q
  1. Please choose the incorrect item about carbon monoxide (CO) responses from the list below?

Select one:

a. Search of the premises is to be conducted by a radio equipped team of a least two firefighters.
b. SCBA shall be used at all CO investigations, and worn at all CO Emergencies.
c. CO Emergencies: Occupants are symptomatic or meter readings greater than 9PPM.
d. CO Incidents: No occupants are symptomatic and meter readings of 9PPM or less.

A

Haz-Mat 4, section 4.2) SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations, and used at all CO Emergencies.

The correct answer is: SCBA shall be used at all CO investigations, and worn at all CO Emergencies.

187
Q
  1. When transmitting an URGENT or MAYDAY message, the member shall begin by depressing their EAB for approximately ___________.

Select one:

a. ½ second
b. 1 second
c. ¼ second

A

nications Chapter 9 Add. 4 3.1)

The correct answer is: ½ second

188
Q
  1. Which one of the following maintenance checks is performed weekly?

Select one:

a. The tread wear depth on tires
b. Engine oil level
c. Radiator level
d. Transmission Fluid level

A

The correct answer is: Transmission Fluid level

189
Q
  1. In High Rise FPMD operations, the IC must control all vertical and horizontal ventilation.

Select one:

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

1) IC controls all venting except the fire apartment

The correct answer is: Disagree

190
Q
  1. A singe CPC Entry Team will be able to handle removing how many victims from the Hot Zone to a safe area?

Select one:

a. One or two victims
b. Up to four victims
c. One victim only
d. Up to three victims

A

The correct answer is: One or two victims