J10 Flashcards

1
Q

Gaining trust requires what three skills

A

1) earning trust
2) giving advice effectively
3) building relationships

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2
Q

what is critical yield?

A

Rate of return needed to meet the objective, based on a given level of investment

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3
Q

what is stochastic modelling?

A

Asset allocation based on an economic model. The aim of these models is to predict probable outcomes for different investments depending on a range of assumptions

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4
Q

what may clients be categorised as?

A

1) retail client
2) professional client
3) eligible counterparty

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5
Q

Where a firm proposes to manage investments for a retail client, what info must it provide?

A

1) method and frequency of valuation of the investments
2) details of any delegation of discretionary management
3) specification of any benchmark against which the portfolio will be compared
4) types of investments that might be included and types of transaction that may be carried out
5) clients investment objectives

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6
Q

what must benchmarks be?

A

Meaningful and provide appropriate indication to the client of what performance could have been achieved based on their objectives and types of investment in their portfolio

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7
Q

What is a black swan event?

A

It is a rare event with severe consequences, used to describe any event that is unexpected, difficult to predict and has severe negative effects

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8
Q

three elements of risk assessment

A

1) risk tolerance
2) risk perception
3) risk capacity

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9
Q

what is risk tolerance?

A

degree of uncertainty that an investor can handle in regard to a negative change in the value of their portfolio

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10
Q

what is risk perception?

A

subjective view that clients have on the characteristics and severity of risk

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11
Q

Four objectives of investing

A

1) capital preservation
2) capital appreciation
3) current income
4) total return

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12
Q

what are some investment constraints?

A

1) time horizon
2) liquidity
3) tax
4) any legal and regulatory factors
5) any unique needs and preferences

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13
Q

3 types of esg

A

1) positive
2) negative
3) responsible ownership

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14
Q

what is a net assets statement?

A

It is a statement of what the client owns and owes at any particular time

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15
Q

what are lifetime cash flow projections?

A

provide year by year summaries of cash paid to (and out by) the client, showing those years in which there is a surplus or deficit

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16
Q

AER formula

A

(1+r/n)n - 1

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17
Q

What is a tier one capital ratio?

A

This is the ratio that regulatory authorities use to judge the adequacy of a banks capital position

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18
Q

what is a credit default swap?

A

cost of insuring a bank against default using a CDS, which is a derivative that enables an organisation to protect itself against the risk of default by passing that exposure on to someone else

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19
Q

How much capital must banks maintain under basel rules?

A

At least 8%

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20
Q

Timeframe for FSCS Payout?

A

Within 7 days for most, more complex within 20 working days

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21
Q

Protection status for deposits with uk authorised banks held in an EEA Branch?

A

No longer protected by the FSCS, but may be protected by the depositor protection regime in each EEA country but will depend on that countries rules

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22
Q

what are treasury bills?

A

Issued by governments to finance their short-term cash needs

In the UK, this is managed by the DMO

issued at weekly auctions, with maturities of one, three or six months

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23
Q

what are certificates of deposit?

A

Receipts from banks for deposits placed with them

Deposits have fixed rate interest, usually related to a reference such as SONIA

most CDs issued with maturities of one to three months and interest is paid on maturity

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24
Q

what is commercial paper?

A

short term money market funding instrument issued by companies to fund day to day cash flows

Issued at discount to maturity, with typical maturities between 30 and 90 days

Higher risks involved so higher returns

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25
Q

What are short term money market funds?

A

invested in short term debt, and money market instruments and have a weighted average maturity of no more than 60 days and a weighted average life of no more than 120 days

Stable NAV

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26
Q

what are normal money market funds?

A

aims to make slightly higher returns than short term, invest with extended periods of 6-12 months

fluctuating NAV

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27
Q

what does mid market bond price mean?

A

mid point between the bid and offer price quoted in the markets, investor would pay higher price to purchase (offer price) and receive lower price on sale (bid price)

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28
Q

how are gilts classified?

A

shorts = up to 7 years before redemption
mediums = 7 to 15 years
longs = over 15 years

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29
Q

what are medium term notes?

A

standard corporate bonds that are usually issued as part of a programme of bond issues. They are usually defined as having maturities ranging from 9 months to 5 years

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30
Q

what are eurobonds?

A

large international bonds, denominated in a currency different from financial centre in which they are issued

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31
Q

Foreign bond names?

A

Yankee - USA
Samurai - Japan
Bulldog - UK
Matador - Spain

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32
Q

Conversion premium / discount for convertible bonds

A

market price of convertible stock / (conversion ratio x market price of ordinary shares) - 1 x 100

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33
Q

Interest yield formula

A

Coupon / clean price x 100

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34
Q

redemption yield

A

1) calculate interest yield

2) work out difference between what they paid and PAR, divide this by the number of years to redemption, then divide this figure by market price

3) + or minus this off flat yield

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35
Q

what causes inverted or reverse yield curves

A

investor expectations that interest rates will fall in the short term

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36
Q

What is non investment grade for moody’s, S&P and fitch?

A

Moody’s = BA
S&P and Fitch = BB

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37
Q

what is modified duration?

A

used to calculate how sensitive a bond is to changes in interest rates

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38
Q

Formula for modified duration

A

duration / (1+GRY)

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39
Q

what are offers for subscription?

A

special form of tender offer for sale, issuer seeks bids above minimum subscription level, but does not commit to go through with it unless minimum subscription is met

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40
Q

what are placing?

A

fastest and cheapest method of issuing new shares, often used as a supplementary method to an offer for sale

issuing company decides on price and company calls directly on big institutions and makes a sales presentation

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41
Q

what are open offers?

A

similar to a rights issue, but rights cannot be traded

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42
Q

what are bonus issues?

A

involves company issuing further shares, to its existing shareholders without raising any new funds

a bonus issue is used to make companies share capital more in line with its worth, and reduce share price to make it more marketable

company issues new shares and pays for them out of capital reserves, so shares are fully paid to shareholders,

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43
Q

what are share splits?

A

It is the process whereby a company splits the par value, for example changing £1 ordinary shares to 50p ordinary shares

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44
Q

Rental yield formula

A

annual rental income / price of property x 100

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45
Q

What is a derivative?

A

Very simply a financial instrument that is based on some other asset, known as an underlying asset

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46
Q

what is a future?

A

exchange traded contract to buy or sell an asset at a specified date for a certain price

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47
Q

what is an option?

A

gives holder the right but not the obligation to buy or sell asset at specified price

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48
Q

what is a swap?

A

agreement between two parties to exchange a series of cash flows over a period of time - most common is interest rate swap

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49
Q

what is the FTSE 100 index future?

A

based upon Ftse 100 index,

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50
Q

what is the FTSE 100 index future?

A

based upon Ftse 100 index,

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51
Q

what are STIR futures?

A

based on short term interest rates such as three month SONIA

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52
Q

what is a call option?

A

the right to buy at the exercise price if they choose

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53
Q

what is a put option?

A

the right to sell at the exercise price if they choose

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54
Q

when do call and put options have intrinsic value

A

call = if strike price is lower than current price
put = if strike price is higher than current price

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55
Q

what is a warrant?

A

A type of long term call option, holder has the right but not the obligation to buy shares at a fixed price at a predetermined rate

produce no income and represent geared investment with potentially high level of risk and reward

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56
Q

what is a covered warrant?

A

Type of option. issued by financial institutions such as banks,

the writer of the covered option, will often cover or hedge its exposure by either buying underlying stock or taking out futures or options on an exchange

They differ from traditional options because they are always cash settled - never any delivery of underlying asset and the maximum loss that an investor can make is the amount invested

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57
Q

Four broad categories of hedge fund strategy:

A

1) Long/short funds
2) Relative value funds
3) event-driven funds
4) tactical trading funds

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58
Q

what are long/short funds in hedge funds?

A

invest in equity and or bond instruments, combine long investments with short sales of individual securities and derivatives to reduce market exposure

This strategy is most popular

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59
Q

What are relative value funds?

A

often said to adopt market neutral strategies, managers rely on arbitrage to produce returns

involves identifying and exploiting pricing anomalies

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60
Q

what are event driven funds?

A

use the price movements arising from anticipated corporate events to achieve their returns

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61
Q

What is tactical trading hedge fund strategy?

A

relatively small part of the hedge fund universe. trade in currencies, bonds, equities and or commodities with largest funds having sets of dedicated teams in each area

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62
Q

Advantages of hedge funds

A

1) Diversification
2) Volatility
3) Expertise

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63
Q

Disadvantages of hedge funds

A

1) lack of regulation and protection
2) high minimum investments
3) complexity
4) volatility

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64
Q

what are structured products?

A

investment plans where the return is delivered at a defined point and is dependent on the performance of an index or asset and the terms of participation in the terms

The three types are:

1) structured deposits
2) capital protected products
3) capital at risk products

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65
Q

what are structured deposits?

A

designed to return investors original capital as a minimum at maturity

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66
Q

what are capital protected products?

A

Designed to return at least the original capital, regardless of how badly the stock market or underlying measure performs

unlike structured deposits they don’t benefit from FSCS protection if third party defaults

Rarely been on offer

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67
Q

What are capital at risk products?

A

have the potential to produce much higher returns, but will give rise to a loss at maturity if underlying investment performs poorly

typically include a barrier that protects capital until stock market falls by a certain amount e.g 35%

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68
Q

3 elements of the simplest capital protected products?

A

1) a zero coupon to provide repayment of capital at maturity
2) derivatives - options used to provide returns linked to the referenced class
3) charges - covers admin, custodian and management charges

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69
Q

what is an income plan structured deposits?

A

designed to provide stream of income payments paying monthly, quarterly or half yearly

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70
Q

4 ways to invest in commodities?

A

1) buying commodity directly
2) investing in companies that produce natural resources
3) investment through collective investment scheme or ETF
4) investment through derivatives

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71
Q

Advantages of commodities investment

A

1) spreads risk by diversifying investments
2) prices tend to not move in same direction as other asset classes
3) allows investor to include exposure to specific areas to take advantage of opportunities
4) hedge against inflation

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72
Q

Disadvantages of commodities

A

1). demand affected by business cycle
2) imbalances in supply and demand frequently occur leading to bull and bear markets
3) commodities are volatile
4) no income produced and storage costs

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73
Q

what are VCTS?

A

Quoted vehicles that aim to encourage investment in smaller unlisted UK companies, and companies listed on AIM

Pooled investments but difficult to sell due to liquidity issues

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74
Q

VCT Tax benefits

A

Dividend relief - exempt for up to £200,000

Income tax relief - 30% up to £200,000

disposal relief - capital gains made on disposal of shares in a VCT are free of CGT

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75
Q

EIS Tax benefits

A
  • income tax relief at 30%
  • maximum investment £2,000,000 (if £1,000,000 goes into knowledge intensive)
  • CGT can be deferred by reinvesting gains
  • IHT relief after 2 years
  • no cgt charge on EIS Share profits
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76
Q

What are SEIS?

A

Tax advantaged venture capital scheme, similar to EIS, focused on even smaller companies than EIS

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77
Q

Tax treatment of SEIS?

A
  • income tax relief up to maximum of £200,000 per year - given at rate of 50%
  • cgt relief - can exempt 50% and defer other 50% of gain
  • potential IHT relief after two years
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78
Q

what are business angels?

A

private investors who invest directly in private companies in return for an equity stake and perhaps seat on the companies board

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79
Q

4 types of ISA

A

1) cash
2) stocks and shares
3) innovative finance
4) lifetime ISA

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80
Q

LISA limit per year

A

4,000

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81
Q

7 fund sectors

A

1) mixed-asset funds
2) distribution funds
3) uk equity funds
4) overseas equity funds
5) fixed-interest funds
6) property funds
7) other funds

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82
Q

What are the two steps in asset allocation?

A

1) deciding the benchmark for the portfolio
2) making active investment decisions around the benchmark, often referred to as dynamic or tactical asset allocation

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83
Q

what data is needed to run an optimisation model?

A

1) returns of each asset classes
2) standard deviation of each asset class
3) correlations between each pair

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84
Q

issues with optimisation

A

1) forecasts for risk return and correlation if used may be incorrect
2) historical data for risk, return and correlation if used may be a poor indicator of the future
3) correlation in extreme market conditions is very different to normal conditions
4) transaction costs are often not incorporated
5) appropriate measure of risk is assumed to be standard deviation based on normal distributions

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85
Q

what is stochastic modelling?

A

applies mathematical technique to generate a probabilistic assessment of returns and volatility

generates thousands of outcomes based on probability

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86
Q

what should benchmarks be?

A

1) specified in advance
2) appropriate to managers investment approach and style
3) measurable so value can be calculated on a frequent basis
4) unambiguous in its construction
5) reflective of managers current investment options

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87
Q

what is value?

A

oldest style - based on premise that rigorous analysis can identify businesses whose value is greater than their market price.

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88
Q

what is GAARP?

A

based on finding companies with a long term sustainable advantage, in terms of business franchise, quality of management, technology or other factord

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89
Q

what is momentum?

A

aims to capitalise on existing trends in the market

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90
Q

what is momentum?

A

aims to capitalise on existing trends in the market

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91
Q

what is a centralised and decentralised approach?

A

centralised - a firm has an agreed investment policy that all of its investment managers follow

decentralised - a firm gives discretion to its investment managers to operate freely

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92
Q

what does CASS require?

A

1) make adequate arrangements to safeguard clients ownership rights, especially in the event of insolvency

2) prevent use of safe custody assets belonging to a client on the firms own account expect with clients consent

3) introduce adequate organisational arrangements to minimise the risk of loss

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93
Q

what is omnibus?

A

investments are all held in one account whereas designated is a designated account

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94
Q

what is legal entity identifier?

A

unique identifier for persons that are legal entities or structures, it is a code that is unique to that legal entity or structure and must be obtained if they wish the firm to act on their instructions

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95
Q

what are some of trustees duties under common law?

A
  • exercise due diligence and prudence in exercising a power of investment
  • demonstrate professional expertise
  • act impartially
  • administer trust property in best interest
  • make trust productive e.g grow
  • obtain advice where required
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96
Q

what is standard investment criteria?

A

imposes duty on trustees to have regard to the need for diversification and suitability

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97
Q

who can NMPIs be marketed too?

A

1) certified high net worth individuals
2) certified sophisticated investors
3) self certified sophisticated investors

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98
Q

Graham’s values test

A

1) adequate size
2) strong financial condition
3) earnings stability
4) dividend record
5) earnings growth
6) moderate price to earnings ratio
7) moderate ratio of price to assets

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99
Q

what is full replication?

A

requires each constituent of the index to be tracked in accordance with its index weighting. Most expensive method and only suitable for big portfolios

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100
Q

what is stratified sampling?

A

requires representative sample is securities from each sector of the index to be held, this method is less expensive than full replication but the lack of statistical analysis renders it subjective with potential bias

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101
Q

what is optimisation?

A

costs less than fully replicating index, but statistically more complex. uses sophisticated computer modelling technique to find a representative sample of those securities that mimic broad characteristics of index tracked

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102
Q

what is synthetic replication?

A

involves fund manager entering into a swap - an OTC derivative - with a market counterparty to exchange returns on index for payment

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103
Q

what are the three ways economic activity can be measured?

A

1) by the total income paid by firms to individuals

2) by individuals total expenditure on firms output

3) by the value of total output generated by firms

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104
Q

How is GDP calculated?

A

By adding together the total value of all goods and services produced domestically during a calendar year

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105
Q

when is the economy contracting?

A

when level of GDP falls compared with previous quarter

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106
Q

when is economy in a recession?

A

two successive quarters of declining GDP

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107
Q

when is economy expanding?

A

When GDP rises compared with previous quarter

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108
Q

common formula for GDP

A

C + I + G + (X-M)

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109
Q

4 stages of economic cycle

A

1) recovery
2) boom
3) slowdown or contraction
4) recession

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110
Q

what is the public sector net cash requirement?

A

Difference between governments expenditure and revenue receipts

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111
Q

what are leading indicators?

A

usually change before the economy as a whole changes, for example stock markets

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112
Q

what are coincident indicators?

A

change at approximately the same time as the economy and so provide information on the current state, GDP, industrial production and retail sales are examples of

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113
Q

what are lagging indicators?

A

usually change after the economy does. Unemployment is an example

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114
Q

what are the two components of balance of payments?

A

1) current account - deal with imports and exports of goods and services

2) capital and financial account - deals with foreign investments in the UK and UK investment abroad

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115
Q

what does the current account consist of?

A

1) visible trades - exports and imports of goods such as oils, agricultural products, other raw materials, machinery and transport equipment, computers, white goods and clothing

2) invisible trades - exports and imports of services such as international transport, travel, tourism and financial and business services

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116
Q

What four parts does the current account divide into?

A

Trade in goods
Trade in services
Investment income
Transfer payments

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117
Q

what does capital account measure?

A

all movement in and out of the country for investment

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118
Q

what does financial account measure?

A

covers transactions that result in a change of ownership of financial assets and liabilities between a countries residents and non residents

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119
Q

what are the UKs official reserves made up of?

A

foreign currencies
gold
IMF special drawing rights
UKs reserves tranche position

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120
Q

what happens if real exchange rate rises?

A

domestic goods become more expensive relative to foreign goods adversely affecting domestic production

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121
Q

what happens if real exchange rate falls?

A

domestic goods become relatively cheaper and demand for them increases

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122
Q

what is fiscal policy?

A

use of government spending and taxation to influence both the level of demand in the economy and the level of economic activity

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123
Q

what is monetary policy?

A

attempts to stabilise the economy by controlling interest rates and the supply of money

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124
Q

What is M0?

A

Narrow money, includes:

  • notes and coins in circulation
  • banks operational deposits with Bank of England

Reflects changes in economic cycle, but does not cause them as it has little effect on total national output or inflation

It is an indicator of consumer spending and retail sales

Growth in M0 indicates that consumer spending is buoyant

A contraction in M0 suggests consumers are behaving more cautiously

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125
Q

What is M4?

A

Broad money

includes notes and coins in circulation, plus all instant access and time deposit accounts of UK residents with UK banks and building societies

Includes deposits created by banks and building societies through their lending activities as well as deposits lodged in accounts by savers

Acts as an economic indicator:

  • an increase in demand for loans will be reflected in a faster growth in M4
  • rapid growth in money circulating in the economy is often interpreted as a build up of inflationary pressures
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126
Q

what is the MPc?

A

set interest rate strategy

meet 8 times a year and have 9 members

five from within the bank and four external

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127
Q

what is quantitative easing?

A

involved injection money directly into economy by purchasing government bonds from investors

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128
Q

what is quantitative tightening?

A

a process under which banks sell bonds previously acquired under QE and or allow their holdings to mature without replacement

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129
Q

what is cost push inflation?

A

if firms face increased costs and inelastic demand for their output, the likelihood is that these rising costs will be passed onto the end consumers

consumers will in turn demand higher wages from firms causing a wage price spiral to develop

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130
Q

what is demand pull inflation?

A

when the economy is operating beyond its full employment level of output, prices are pulled up as a result of an inflationary gap emerging

this excess demand can often stem from the optimism that accompanies rising prices

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131
Q

what is disinflation?

A

occurs when there is a decrease in the rate of inflation, with disinflation the prices of goods and services are still rising but there is a slowing of the rate at which they increase

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132
Q

what is deflation?

A

opposite of inflation and occurs as prices decline over time and the inflation rate becomes negative

consumers become reluctant to spend and buy items as they know they will be cheaper in the future

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133
Q

what is stagflation?

A

combination of stagnant growth, and inflation,

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134
Q

what is systematic risk?

A

also known as market risk, refers to the risk that there might be events that lead to a change in expected returns in the stock market generally. Affects the whole system and cannot be diversified against

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135
Q

what is non systematic risk?

A

also known as investment specific risk, it is the risk that there might be a change in expected returns as a result of some event or circumstance to a particular company or industry sector

can be diversified against

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136
Q

what is default risk?

A

refers to an issuer defaulting on their obligations to pay interest and capital

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137
Q

what is downgrade risk?

A

the risk that the market anticipates that a credit rating agency is going to downgrade a bond

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138
Q

what is credit spread risk?

A

if investors become nervous, there is a flight to quality. this means bonds issued by corporates will tend to underperform bonds issued by governments

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139
Q

what is credit spread risk?

A

if investors become nervous, there is a flight to quality. this means bonds issued by corporates will tend to underperform bonds issued by governments

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140
Q

what is counterparty risk?

A

refers to a situation in which the organisation with which an investment is placed, or the counterparty to a transaction fails

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141
Q

what is bail in risk?

A

governments and or central banks and institutions bailed out financial institutions at a cost to taxpayers;

with a bail in those with money in the bank may see their balance reduced

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142
Q

what is liquidity risk?

A

risk faced by investors when they are forced to sell a security at a price below its fair value due to a lack of liquidity

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143
Q

what is liquidity risk?

A

risk faced by investors when they are forced to sell a security at a price below its fair value due to a lack of liquidity

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144
Q

what is event risk?

A

refers to issuer of a security being unable to pay interest or repay capital or suffering a fall in value due to:

  • a major unexpected events such as industrial disaster
  • corporate change (such as takeover)
  • regulatory change
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145
Q

what is gearing risk?

A

gearing risk is because gearing magnifies potential losses and gains

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146
Q

safety first ratio

A

expected return - threshold acceptable returns / standard deviation

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147
Q

what is modern portfolio theory?

A

reflects the way in which portfolios can be constructed to maximise returns and minimise risk

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148
Q

what is standard deviation?

A

measures how widely the actual return on an investment varies around its average or expected return. The greater the standard deviation, the greater the volatility

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149
Q

what is hedging?

A

means protecting an existing investment position by taking another position that will increase in value if existing position falls in value

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150
Q

what is the efficient frontier?

A

describes relationship between the return that can be expected from a portfolio and the risk of the portfolio as measured by the standard deviation

efficient frontier plots the risk reward profiles of various portfolios and shows the best return that can be expected for a given level of risk

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151
Q

limitations of efficient frontier

A
  • it assumes standard deviation is the correct measure of risk and assumes assets have normally distributed returns
  • investors may have concerns such as ethical preferences which add constraints
  • inputs rely on historical data
  • model doesn’t include transaction costs
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152
Q

how many securities are sufficient for diversification?

A

15 to 20

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153
Q

CAPM calculation

A

1) market return - risk free return
2) times this by the beta
3) add the risk free return back in

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154
Q

CAPM Assumptions

A
  • investors are rational and risk averse
  • all investors have an identical holding period
  • market comprises many buyers and sellers
  • no taxes, transaction costs and no restrictions
  • information is free and is simultaneously available
  • all investors can borrow and lend unlimited amounts of money at risk free rate
  • quantity of risky securities in the market is fixed
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155
Q

limitations of CAPM

A

1) what to use as risk free rate
2) what is the market portfolio
3) the suitability of beta

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156
Q

what is fama and french model?

A

expands CAPM by adding factors for company size and value in addition to the market risk factor of CAPM.

Fama and french identified two types of company securities that tend to do better than the market as a whole:

1) small caps tend to outperform large cap stocks

2) value stocks (those with a high book value to price ratio) tended to outperform growth stocks

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157
Q

what is arbitrage pricing theory?

A

general theory of asset pricing that has become influential in the pricing of securities

it is based on the idea that a securities return can be predicted using the relationship between the security and a number of common risk factors, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor specific beta

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158
Q

what influences security returns?

A

1) unanticipated inflation
2) changes in the expected level of industrial production
3) changes in default risk premium on bonds
4) unanticipated changes in the return of long term government bonds over treasury bills

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159
Q

what is weak from EMH?

A

states that current security prices fully reflect all past price and trading volume information, and future prices cannot be predicted by analysing this type of historical data

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160
Q

what is semi strong efficiency?

A

states that security prices adjust to all publicly available information very rapidly and in an unbiased ways, so that excess returns cannot be earned by trading on that information.

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161
Q

what is strong form efficiency?

A

states that security prices reflect all the information that any investor can acquire, in this form, all information includes not only public information, but also private information typically held by corporate insiders

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162
Q

what is prospect theory?

A

deals with the idea that people don’t always behave rationally, particularly with respect to risk tolerance when facing a loss or making a profit

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163
Q

what is regret?

A

investors may be less willing to sell a losing investment because it is showing a loss

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164
Q

Holding period return

A

D + v1 - v0 / v0

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165
Q

Formula for relative return

A

return - benchmark return

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166
Q

Money weighted rate of return formula

A

If contributions:

1) D + V1 - V0 - C

2) Divide this by

3) V0 + (C x n/12)

If withdrawals:

1) D + V1 - V0 + C

2) Divide this by

3) V0 - (C x n/12)

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167
Q

time weighed rate of return

A

v1 / v0 x v2 / (v1 + c) - 1

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168
Q

time weighed rate of return

A

v1 / v0 x v2 / (v1 + c) - 1

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169
Q

sharpe ratio formula

A

return on the investment - risk free return / standard deviation

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170
Q

alpha formula

A

[Risk free + beta (market return - risk free return)]

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171
Q

information ratio formula

A

return - benchmark return / tracking error

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172
Q

Interest yield formula

A

coupon / clean price x 100

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173
Q

what is a statement of financial position?

A

shows the assets and liabilities of a company and can be seen as a list of resources

also known as a balance sheet

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174
Q

straight line depreciation formula

A

original cost - expected residual value / expected useful life

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175
Q

what is the income statement?

A

shows the performance of the company over the accounting period, or part of it, used to be known as profit and loss account

176
Q

what is a cash flow statement?

A

seek to identify how a company’s cash has been generated over the accounting period and how it has been expended

177
Q

what are subsidiaries?

A

owning more than 50% of shares

178
Q

what are associates?

A

where a company has 20% - 50% shareholding or the investing company participates in or exercises significant influence over the management of another company

179
Q

what are investments in terms of companies?

A

where company has less than 20% holding

180
Q

operating margin formula

A

operating profit / sales x 100

181
Q

net margin formula

A

net profit after tax / sales x 100

182
Q

Return on equity formula

A

net profit after tax / total equity x 100

183
Q

Return on capital employed formula

A

profit before interest and tax / capital employed x 100

184
Q

Financial leverage formula

A

(Long term loans + preference shares) / total equity - preference shares

185
Q

Interest cover formula

A

Profit before interest and tax / Gross interest payable

186
Q

Working capital current ratio

A

Current assets / current liabilities

187
Q

liquidity ratio

A

current assets - stock / current liabilities

188
Q

Debtor turnover formula

A

Sales / debtors

189
Q

Debtor collection period in days

A

debtors / sales x 365

190
Q

stock turnover

A

cost of sales / stock

191
Q

creditor turnover formula

A

cost of sales / trade creditors

192
Q

Creditor payment in days

A

trade creditors / cost of sales

193
Q

Earnings per share

A

net income / number of shares in issue

194
Q

P/e ratio

A

share price / earnings per share

195
Q

dividend yield

A

dividend per share / share price x 100

196
Q

dividend cover

A

EPS / dividend per share

197
Q

Price to book ratio

A

share price / NAV per share

198
Q

Gordon’s Share price formula

A

dividend / (return required - dividend growth)

199
Q

NAV formula

A

(total assets - liabilities - preference shares) / number of shares in issue

200
Q

what is risk perception?

A

represents the clients personal opinion on the risks associated with making an investment, based on prior knowledge and experience

201
Q

how long must a firm retain a client agreement?

A

for at least the duration of the client relationship

202
Q

when does disinflation occur?

A

when there is a decrease in rate of inflation

203
Q

what is a disadvantage of adopting tactical approach rather than strategic?

A

volatility of the portfolio could become higher than originally intended

204
Q

what do pragmatists tend to use?

A

the historic range of returns to estimate future returns

205
Q

sharpe ratio formula

A

Return - risk free / standard deviation

206
Q

How to calculate alpha

A

1) market return - risk free return
2) x by beta + risk free return

deduct this from actual return

207
Q

when considering the information ratio, the risk taken relative to the benchmark is called

A

tracking error

208
Q

How to work out future value

A

1) (1+r) n-1
2) divide this by r
3) times it by present value

209
Q

interest cover formula

A

profit before interest and tax / gross interest payable

210
Q

what are descriptive statistics?

A

study of how data can be effectively summarised to provide information on a larger group of

211
Q

what is statistical inference?

A

refers to making estimates or judgments about the larger group

212
Q

what is a frequency distribution?

A

grouping of data into a number of non-overlapping classes or intervals, so that the number of observations in each interval can be counted and the data can be analysed

213
Q

what is a histogram?

A

bar chart showing the absolute frequency on the vertical axis and intervals on horizontal

useful for displaying the form of the data distribution

214
Q

what is a frequency polygon?

A

trend line showing the absolute frequency on the vertical axis and the interval midpoints on horizontal axis

215
Q

what is a moving average?

A

statistical technique using averages for consecutive time periods to smooth out data

216
Q

steps to calculate standard deviation

A

1) obtain arithmetic mean
2) obtain set deviations from the mean
3) square each deviation
4) divide the sum of the squared deviations by the number of observations to obtain the population variance
5) take the square root of the variance to obtain the standard deviation

217
Q

standard deviation percentages

A

68.3% lie between 1 standard deviation
95.5% lie between 2 standard deviation
99.75% lie between 3 standard deviation

218
Q

what is data mining bias?

A

when forecasting models are derived from searching through historic data for patterns or trading rules. Problems occur when a large number of models are tested but only successful ones are reported

219
Q

what is selection bias?

A

occurs when certain data is excluded from the analysis, possibly because data wasn’t available

220
Q

what is selection bias?

A

occurs when certain data is excluded from the analysis, possibly because data wasn’t available

221
Q

what is a blind trust?

A

A blind trust is a form of bare trust. Here, the settlor remains the beneficial owner of trust property, but have no say in the management of the assets

222
Q

Under the Investment Associations fund sector rules, a specialist hybrid property fund must not invest more than what percentage in direct property?

A

60%

223
Q

what does the real exchange rate measure?

A

Measures the price of domestically produced goods relative to the price of foreign goods taking into account the exchange rate

224
Q

What happens to exports if pound falls?

A

If the pound falls, exports become more competitive, increasing demand for them and pushing up the share price of exporters

225
Q

what is event risk?

A

Refers to the issuer of a security being unable to repay interest or capital or suffering a fall in the value of their securities due to a major unexpected event or regulatory change

226
Q

which two types of company security tend to do better than the market as a whole according to a study carried out by Fama and French?

A

Small cap and value stocks

227
Q

Formula for total holding period

A

1) Any income + selling price - acquisition price
2) divided by acquisition price

228
Q

Time weighted return formula

A

V1 / V0 x

v2 / (v1 + c) - 1

229
Q

What does the FTSE All share index comprise of?

A

FTSE 100, FTSE 250 & FTSE smallcap

230
Q

which method of measuring risk shows how consistent a manager is at beating a benchmark index?

A

information ratio

231
Q

Future value formula

A

PV (1+r)n

232
Q

Future value formula

A

PV (1+r)n

233
Q

Annuity formula

A

Present value / by

1 - (1+r)-n / r

234
Q

Formula for Earnings per share

A

profit attributable to ordinary shareholders / number of ordinary shares in issue

235
Q

Dividend yield formula

A

Dividend per share / current share price x 100

236
Q

A company is likely to be considered as having high operating leverage if fixed costs are above what percent?

A

80%

237
Q

which type of organisation is accepted by the markets as running with lower liquidity than normally expected?

A

supermarkets

238
Q

equities can be valued on four bases, which of the following is the correct description of these bases?

A

Dividend flows, earnings growth, net asset value and shareholder added value

239
Q

what reports do listed companies have to publish?

A

annual reports
semi annual and interim

240
Q

how can industry participants and investors share news and ideas?

A

online forums

241
Q

AER Formula

A

(1+ r/n)n - 1

242
Q

what is tier one capital ratio?

A

ratio that regulatory authorities use to judge the adequacy of a banks capital position

Higher the percentage the better

243
Q

what are credit default swaps?

A

Cost of insuring a bank against default by using a CDS, which is a derivative that enables an organisation to protect itself against the risk of default by passing that exposure on to someone else

244
Q

What are the Basel III rules?

A

International standards on the amount of capital held by banks

245
Q

FSCS timescales?

A

majority within 7 days of a bank failing, more complex within 20 working days

246
Q

what are treasury bills?

A

Issued by debt management office
finance short term cash needs
Routinely issued at weekly auctions
Maturities of one, three or six months
Minimum of £500,000

247
Q

what are certificates of deposit?

A

receipts from banks for deposits placed with them.

have fixed rate interest, usually related to a reference rate such as sonia and have a fixed term to maturity

most issued with maturities of one to three months and interest paid on maturity

248
Q

what is commercial paper?

A

short term money market funding instrument
issued by companies to fund day to day cash flows
issued at discount to maturity
typical maturity between 30 and 90 days

249
Q

what are short term money market funds?

A

invested in short term debt, have weighted average maturity of no more than 60 days and a weighted average life of no more than 120 days

stable NAV

250
Q

what are standard money market funds?

A

aim to make slightly higher returns than short term, therefore invest in extended maturity periods of six and 12 months

fluctuating NAV

251
Q

what are eurobonds?

A

denominated in a currency different from the financial sector which they have been issued in

252
Q

Formula to calculate conversion premium for convertible shares

A

(conversion ratio x market price of convertible shares / market price of ordinary shares) - 1 x 100

253
Q

Bond Conversion formula

A

(market price of convertible stock / conversion ratio x market price of shares - 1) x 100

254
Q

What is an offer for sale?

A

Most common form of issuing new shares. The process varies slightly depending on how and when the price is set

Where the company is large and stable an offer price can be fixed with confidence,

for some issues they are difficult to price so the issuer may decide to invite bids to help establish degree of interest before setting a strike price

255
Q

What is an offer for subscription?

A

Special form of tender offer for sale, in that the issuer seeks bids above the minimum subscription level but does not commit to go through with it until certain level of demand is met

256
Q

what is a placing?

A

Fastest and cheapest method of issuing new shares, often used as supplementary method

It is the most popular route for smaller companies

The company decides on a price and then reaches out to the big institutions and makes a sale presentation

257
Q

What is a rights issue?

A

Companies may come back to raise additional share capital

all existing shareholders are offered a chance to subscribe to new share

258
Q

what is open offer?

A

similar to a rights issue, but rights cannot be traded and shareholders are not usually compensated if they choose not to apply for entitlement of new shares

259
Q

what is a bonus issue?

A

involves the company issuing further shares to its existing shareholders without raising any new funds

bonus issue is used to bring companies share capital more in line with real worth and to reduce share price to make it more marketable

260
Q

main risks affecting equities

A

price risk

liquidity risk

issuer risk

261
Q

Rental income yield calculator

A

Rental income / property price x 100

262
Q

what is a future?

A

a future is an exchange traded contract to buy or sell an asset at a specified future date for a certain price. Price is predetermined at the time the contract is agreed and imposes open ended obligation on the holder until expiry or closing out

263
Q

what is an option?

A

gives the holder the right but not the obligation to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on or by a future date

264
Q

what is a swap?

A

a swap is an agreement between two parties to exchange a series of cash flows over a period of time . most common type is an interest rate swap, where one party swaps floating rates of interest for fixed rates

265
Q

what is a call option?

A

the buyer has the right to buy the asset at the exercise price if they choose

266
Q

what is a put option?

A

the buyer has the right to sell the underlying asset

267
Q

when can american style options be exercised?

A

any time up until expiry

268
Q

what is a warrant?

A

A warrant is a type of long term call option. The holder has the right but not the obligation to buy shares at a fixed price at a predetermined date or within a specified period

269
Q

what is a futures and options fund?

A

funds permitted managers to invest in derivatives provided the transactions were covered by the underlying assets

they were launched as bull and bear funds from a handful of unit trust management groups

270
Q

what are Geared futures and options funds?

A

permitted managers to invest up to 20% of the fund in derivatives markets

271
Q

what are capital protected unit trusts?

A

In November 2002, the regulator gave the go ahead for the launch of limited issue funds. These allowed investment managers to market derivatives based funds, which for example, could offer a return of 80% of the rise in the FTSE 100

this has been largely superseded by structured retail products

272
Q

what is spread betting?

A

seen by some as an alternative to conventional dealing in futures markets, stock markets and currencies, others see it as a form of gambling

placing bets requires an account with a spread betting firm, which offers quotes on a wide range of indices, equities, currencies and commodities

trading takes place on a margin allowing for high levels of leverage

273
Q

what is binary betting?

A

another way of speculating on the markets
spread betting firm will quote prices say whether the FFSE100 will close up on a given day

If it does close higher binary bet will settle at 100, if lower binary bet settles at 0, hence name binary bet

FCA banned selling, marketing and distribution of binary options to retail investors in April 2019

274
Q

what are hedge funds?

A

type of alternative investment
they pool investors money to invest, often using non traditional methods

generally do not adopt a long only strategy, the funds aim for absolute return with limited volatility rather than performance relative to an index benchmark

275
Q

what are long / short funds in terms of hedge fund management

A

invest in equity and or bond instruments, and combine long investments with short sales of individual securities and derivatives

can operate with a bias towards either the long or short side or balance both in a market neutral approach

276
Q

what are hedge fund relative value funds?

A

often said to adopt market neutral strategies because there is no market related element in their returns. Instead managers rely on arbitrage to produce returns

involves identifying and exploiting price anomalies between similar investments

277
Q

what are typical trading funds?

A

relatively small part of the hedge fund universe, trade in currencies, bonds, equities and or commodities with the largest funds having sets of dedicated teams

278
Q

what are structured products?

A

investment plans where the return is delivered at a defined point and is dependent on the performance of an index or asset and the terms of participation in the returns

279
Q

what are structured deposits?

A

designed to return the investors original capital as a minimum at maturity

If issuer is authorised by the PRA, to issue deposits in the Uk, it includes the potential benefit of FSCS protection

280
Q

what are capital protected products?

A

designed to return at least the original capital, regardless of how bad the stock market or underlying measure performs

they do not benefit from FSCS protection however

rarely been on offer

281
Q

what are capital at risk products?

A

have the potential to produce much higher returns, but will give rise to a loss at maturity if the underlying investment performs poorly over the term

typically incorporate a barrier that protects capital until the stock market falls by a set amount

282
Q

what are the components of a structured product?

A

zero coupon - used to repay capital at maturity

call options

charges

283
Q

Tax benefits of VCTs

A
  • Dividends from ordinary shares in VCTs are exempt from income tax up to £200,000 per year
  • Income tax relief of upto 30% is available but is clawed back if shares are not held for 5 years
  • Capital gains made on disposal of VCT shares are free of CGT
284
Q

Tax advantages of EIS

A
  • income tax relief up to 30%
  • maximum total amount invested is
    £2,000,000, so long as £1million is knowledge intensive
  • CGT can be deferred by reinvesting gains
  • no CGT charge on EIS Share profits
  • income tax relief can be backdated
  • shares usually qualify for 100% IHT business relief once held for 2 years, provided they remain unlisted
285
Q

SEIS tax advantages

A
  • income tax relief of upto 50% capped at £200,000, shares must be held for 3 years
  • Any gain free of CGT
  • CGT reinvestment relief - can roll half of gain with full CGT exemption and defer other half
  • IHT relief after 2 years
286
Q

Three common areas to be considered when deciding on asset allocation

A

1) timescale - how long will the investor be invested

2) acceptable level of loss

3) need for income

287
Q

what are the two steps in asset allocation?

A

1) deciding the benchmark for the portfolio
2) making active investment decisions around the benchmark referred to as dynamic or tactical asset allocation

288
Q

what data is needed to run an optimisation model?

A

1) returns of each asset class
2) standard deviations of each asset class
3) correlations between each pair of asset classes

289
Q

issues with optimisation models

A

1) forecasts for risk, return and correlation could be wrong

2) historical data may be a poor indicator for the future

3) correlation in extreme conditions is often very different to those in normal conditions

4) standard deviation is based on normal distribution

5) transaction costs not incorporated

290
Q

what are core property funds?

A

usually open ended and lower risk and lower return funds, aiming to produce returns benchmarked against an established property index

291
Q

what are core plus and value added property funds?

A

use higher gearing and more active management styles to generate higher returns

292
Q

what are opportunistic funds?

A

typically closed ended and aim to exploit opportunities to acquire property from distressed sellers, redevelopments and property in emerging markets. Closer in nature to private equity funds

293
Q

what are property unit trust funds?

A

exempt from corporation tax on any gains they make, but the income arising in the fund is liable to corporation tax at a special rate of 20%

They are designed for the domestic UK market and their unfavourable tax treatment means they are unsuitable for institutional and overseas investors

294
Q

what are property unit trust funds?

A

exempt from corporation tax on any gains they make, but the income arising in the fund is liable to corporation tax at a special rate of 20%

They are designed for the domestic UK market and their unfavourable tax treatment means they are unsuitable for institutional and overseas investors

295
Q

what is a PAIF?

A

OEIC that specialises in holding property and in which the taxation of profits from its property business lies with the investors

296
Q

Advantages of property funds

A

1) attractive absolute returns
2) potential for high income rental yields
3) portfolio diversification

297
Q

Disadvantages of property funds

A

1) lack of liquidity
2) volatility
3) costs

298
Q

Graham’s value tests

A

1) adequate size
2) strong financial condition
3) earnings stability
4) dividend record
5) Earnings growth
6) moderate price to earnings ratio
7) moderate ratio of price to assets

299
Q

what are high yield funds?

A

required to have at least 80% of assets in bonds rated less than BBB minus.

300
Q

how to calculate GDP?

A

Add together total value of all goods and services produced domestically during a calendar year

301
Q

Under COBS, how does the frequency of reporting differ between advisory management services and DMS services?

A

Advisory must be at least annually

DMS must be at least every three months

302
Q

what is a core satellite approach?

A

contains passive managed assets as the core with the remainder actively managed

303
Q

what is a countries real exchange rate?

A

domestic goods relative to foreign goods, taking into account the exchange rate

304
Q

what is total loss in a portfolio?

A

risk of the portfolio losing its entire value during the investment period

305
Q

what can MPT be used for?

A

to identify a potential return for a set level of risk

306
Q

if two different investment portfolios both rest on a typical efficient frontier curve at different points, this normally shows that compared to each other they have?

A

the potential for different maximum returns given different levels of risk

307
Q

the companies permanent capital is represented by

A

the share capital and reserves

308
Q

Earnings per share formula

A

income - preference dividends / number of ordinary shares in issue

309
Q

Price to book ratio

A

share price / NAV

310
Q

ROCE Formula

A

Profit / capital employed

311
Q

CAPM assumptions

A
  • Investors are rational and risk averse, making decisions on the basis of risk and return alone
  • all investors have an identical holding period
  • market comprises many buyers and sellers, and no one individual can affect the market price
  • there are no taxes, no transaction costs and no restrictions on short selling
  • information is free and is simultaneously available to all investors
  • all investors can borrow and lend unlimited amounts of money at the risk free rate
  • quantity of risky securities in the market is fixed, and all are fully marketable
312
Q

what influences on securities returns?

A

1) unanticipated inflation
2) changes in expected level of industrial production
3) changes in the default risk premium on bonds
4) unanticipated changes in the return of long term government bonds

313
Q

what is weak form efficiency?

A

states that current security prices fully reflect all past price and trading volume information, and future prices cannot be predicted by analysing this type of historical data

therefore technical analysis which charts historical trading data and looks for trends, is of no use in determining future prices

314
Q

what is weak form efficiency?

A

states that current security prices fully reflect all past price and trading volume information, and future prices cannot be predicted by analysing this type of historical data

therefore technical analysis which charts historical trading data and looks for trends, is of no use in determining future prices

315
Q

what is semi strong efficiency?

A

This states that security prices adjust to all publicly available information very rapidly and in an unbiased way

316
Q

what is strong form?

A

states security prices reflect all the information that any investor can acquire, not only public information but also private information

317
Q

what is free float?

A

Number of shares available for trading on the market

318
Q

Holding period return formula

A

D + V1 - V0

319
Q

Holding period return formula

A

D + V1 - V0

320
Q

what is relative return?

A

return from an investment or portfolio measured against the return from a benchmark index, shows how well the investments have done relative to the return of the benchmark index

321
Q

formula for relative return

A

holding period return - benchmark return

322
Q

Money weighted return formula

A

D + V1 - V0 - C

323
Q

Money weighted return formula

A

1) D + v1 - v0 - c

/

3) v0 + (c x n/12)

324
Q

what does a low dividend yield mean?

A

A dividend yield provides an indication of a companies perceived ability to grow its dividends. A low dividend yield implies high future dividend growth, whereas the opposite is true of a high dividend yield

325
Q

What is ROE?

A

measures returns companies achieve on the funds provided by shareholders

makes possible comparisons with other investments such as bonds and deposits

326
Q

what does P/e ratio measure?

A

How highly investors value a company in its ability to grow its income stream

327
Q

what is the information ratio used for?

A

to assess the risk adjusted performance of active portfolio managers. It is often used to gauge the skill of fund managers and shows the consistency with which a manager beats a benchmark index

328
Q

what does a negative information ratio mean?

A

means an investor would probably have achieved a better return by matching the index using a tracker or index fund

329
Q

what does sharpe ratio measure?

A

measure of how well the return on an asset compensates the investor for the risk taken

330
Q

what is alpha?

A

difference between the return you would expect from a security, given its beta, and the return that it has actually produced

331
Q

what is descriptive statistics?

A

Study of how data can be effectively summarised to provide information on a larger group

332
Q

what is statistical inference?

A

refers to making estimates or judgements about a larger group of data

333
Q

Formula for Compound Interest

A

PV(1+r)n

334
Q

Present value formula

A

FV / (1+r)n

335
Q

Future value regular investment formula

A

P

x by

(1+r)n - 1 / r

336
Q

what is real return?

A

nominal return - inflation rare

337
Q

what is a strategic report?

A

most uk companies must now prepare a strategic report as well as a directors report within their annual report

The purpose of the report is to provide a companies shareholders with a holistic and meaningful picture of a companies business model, strategy, development, performance, position and future prospects

338
Q

what are IFRS?

A

international financial report standards issued by the International accounting standards board

339
Q

What is an audit report?

A

Gives an opinion on whether or not the accounts give a true and fair view of the companies activities and financial position and if so, they will issue an unqualified audit report, if not then the auditor must qualify the report

340
Q

what is disclaimer of opinion?

A

where auditor is unable to form an opinion owing to a considerable amount of uncertainty surrounding the outcome of a particular event

341
Q

what is an adverse opinion?

A

where auditor disagrees with an accounting treatment or a view made in the statements, which the directors refuse to amend

342
Q

what is an audit qualification?

A

where the auditor has material disagreement with the treatment adopted by the directors or material uncertainty that limits the scope of the audit option

343
Q

what is the statement of financial position?

A

shows the assets and liabilities of a company and can be seen as a list of resources of the company and how they have been financed

344
Q

what is retained earnings?

A

revenue reserve. represents the accumulation of the companies distributable profits that have not been distributed to shareholders as dividends or transferred to a capital reserve but have instead been retained in the business

345
Q

what is the income statement?

A

shows the performance of the company over the accounting period or part of it,

details how companies profit was arrived at and states how much has been earned and distributed

346
Q

what is a cash flow statement?

A

seek to identify how a companies cash has been generated over the accounting period and how it has been expended

347
Q

what is the operating margin formula used for?

A

It provides information about the profitability of a firms core business

348
Q

formula for operating margin

A

operating profit / sales x 100

349
Q

what does net profit margin measure?

A

Also called profit margin, measures the percentage of net income of an entity to its net sales. It represents the proportion of sales that is left over after all relevant expenses have been deducted

it is used to compare profitability of competitors in the same industry,

350
Q

Net profit margin formula

A

net profit after tax / sales x 100

351
Q

What is ROE?

A

It is the ratio of net income of a business during a year to its shareholders equity during that year. it is a measure of profitability of the shareholders investment

So it measures the percentage return the company is achieving on the amount of funds provided by shareholders

with care, ROE makes comparisons with other investments such as bonds and deposits, but ROCE is a better comparison between companies as ROE is heavily affected by differences in company capital structure

352
Q

Formula for ROE

A

net profit after tax / total equity x 100

353
Q

what is ROCE

A

Determines how much the company has earned from the total of the different types of capital it has employed, such as equity or long or short term borrowings

since ROCE includes long term finance in the calculation, it is a more comprehensive test of profitability compared to ROE

but one limit is that it does not account for depreciation and amortisation of the capital employed

354
Q

ROCE Formula

A

profit before interest and tax / capital employed x 100

355
Q

profitability measurements per industry’: retail; distribution; airlines, creative companies?

A

1) retail companies - profits per square foot
2) distribution companies - profits per ton mile
3) airlines - profits per passenger per mile
4) creative companies - profits per employee

356
Q

Gearing formula

A

(long term loans + preference shares) / (total equity - preference shares)

357
Q

Interest cover tells us?

A

how many times over the interest bill could be paid out of current profits

the formula is:

profit before interest and tax / gross interest payable

358
Q

working capital (current) ratio

A

current assets / current liabilities

359
Q

Liquidity ratio formula

A

current assets - stock / liabilities

360
Q

Debtor turnover formula

A

sales / debtors

361
Q

debtor collection period in days

A

debtors / sales x 365

362
Q

stock turnover formula

A

cost of sales / stock

363
Q

creditor turnover formula

A

cost of sales / creditors

364
Q

creditor payment period in days

A

trade creditors / cost of sales x 365

365
Q

Limitations of ratio analysis

A
  • changes in accounting periods can make it difficult
  • based on historical data
  • only as good as information source
  • individual ratios shouldn’t be considered in isolation
  • ratio analysis is concerned with trends over time
366
Q

what is EPS?

A

measure of the profitability of a company that is expressed in an amount per share so meaningful comparisons can be made

quality of a companies earnings stream and ability to grow its EPS are probably most important factors affecting share price

367
Q

Three versions of EPS

A

1) basic EPS
2) earnings before interest and tax
3) earnings before interest, tax, depreciation and amortisation

368
Q

EPS formula

A

Net income / number of shares

369
Q

price earnings ratio

A

measures how highly investors value a company in its ability to grow its income stream

Share price / EPS

370
Q

Dividend yield

A

gives investors an indication of the expected return on a share so it can be compared to other shares and investments

dividend per share / share price x 100

371
Q

Dividend cover

A

considers ability of company to continue paying such a level of dividend

EPS / dividend per share

372
Q

Price to book ratio

A

measures the relationship between the companies share price and the net book,

share price / NAV

373
Q

Share price formula

A

dividend / return required - dividend growth

374
Q

NAV formula

A

total assets - liabilities - preference shares / number of shares in issue

375
Q

Information ratio formula

A

portfolio return - benchmark return / tracking error

376
Q

Sharpe formula

A

expected return - risk free rate / standard deviation

377
Q

convertible preference shares formula

A

(ratio x price of convertible) / share price - 1 x 100

378
Q

Put warrant payout

A

strike price - underlying price / parity

379
Q

working capital formula

A

current assets - liabilities

380
Q

warrant gearing

A

share price / warrant price

381
Q

When do contract notes need to be issued?

A

as soon as possible and no later than the business day following execution of the trade

382
Q

how often do discretionary firms need to report?

A

periodic reports must be issued every quarter or every month if leveraging is used

383
Q

what does section 5 of the trustee act impose?

A

statutory duty to obtain advice

384
Q

Calculate time weighted return

A

1) start with period 1, take the end value, divide this by the start value

2) period 2, divide the end amount by the starting value and any contributions

Multiply these two returns together, - 1 x 100

385
Q

dividend yield formula

A

dividend per share / share price

386
Q

Dividend cover formula

A

EPS / dividend per share

387
Q

if dividend cover is high, what does this suggest?

A

The higher the figure, the more likely a company can maintain the existing dividend if profits fall

388
Q

formula for working out what investment is needed now

A

FV / (1+r)n

389
Q

2 main ways to reduce risk?

A

hedging out risk or diversifying portfolio holdings

390
Q

what is weak form efficiency?

A

States that current security prices fully reflect all past price and trading volume information, and future prices cannot be predicted by analysing this type of historical data and looking for trends.

391
Q

what is semi strong efficiency?

A

states that security prices adjust to all publicly available information very rapidly and in an unbiased way

so that excess returns cannot be earned by trading on that information

so a companies financial statements are of no help in forecasting future price movements and excess returnd

392
Q

what is strong form?

A

states that security prices reflect all the information that any investor can acquire, in this form, all information includes not only public information but private information

393
Q

at what inflation rates must the bank write to the chancellor

A

if inflation falls below 1% or above 3%

394
Q

what does the information ratio assess?

A

the risk adjusted performance of active fund managers

395
Q

which rate of return formula allows for comparisons to be made between the performance of one fund manager and that of another?

A

Time weighted rate of return

396
Q

regarding mean and median, what is true regarding normal distribution

A

mean and median are equal

397
Q

3 main types of IPo

A

1) offers for sale
2) placing
3) introductions

398
Q

options under a rights issue

A

1) subscribe for new shares and pay full amount
2) sell rights in the market
3) sell enough to generate cash to take up remainder
4) lapse - company sells and distributes proceeds after cost

399
Q

What are bonus shares?

A

Used to bring share capital more in line with real worth

Reduced share price to make it more attractive

shares are issued fully paid to shareholders

also called scrip issue

400
Q

what are indices used for?

A

compare particular share to overall market

compare fund managers performance to overall market

401
Q

what is the FTSE all share?

A

aggregates:

  • FTSE100
  • FTSE250
  • FTSE Smallcap
402
Q

what is FTSE100?

A

100 largest companies by capitalisation

403
Q

what is FTSE250?

A

next 250 companies by capitalisation below the FTSE100

404
Q

what is FTSE350?

A

combines FTSE100 and FTSE250

405
Q

what is FTSE Fledging?

A

companies too small to qualify for FTSE All share

406
Q

US Indices

A

Dow Jones - 30 blue chip companies

S&P - composite 500 companies

NASDAQ - small, young companies

407
Q

Japan

A

Nikkei225 - average of 225 stocks

Tokyo stock exchange

408
Q

Germany indice

A

DAX - 30 largest companies

409
Q

France index

A

CAC 40

410
Q

What does EPS tell us?

A

The amount in pence the company earned during the year for each ordinary share

411
Q

formula for EPS

A

profit attributable to ordinary shareholders / number of ordinary shares in issue

412
Q

what does dividend yield measure?

A

measures the yield as a percentage return on the share price

413
Q

formula for dividend yield

A

dividend per share / share price x 100

414
Q

what does dividend cover measure?

A

how many times the dividend can be paid out of available current earnings

415
Q

formula for dividend cover

A

EPS / dividend per share

416
Q

what does price earnings ratio measure?

A

measures how highly investors value the earnings of a company

417
Q

P/e ratio formula

A

share price / EPS

418
Q

Price to book formula

A

share price / NAV

419
Q

Disadvantages of investment formulas

A
  • different accounting policies between companies make comparisons difficult
  • change of accounting policy over time makes ratios misleading
  • ratios based on historic data
420
Q

what is GNP?

A

gdp but includes contribution made from overseas nationals

421
Q

fixed interest - reactions to economy

A
  • attractive when inflation and interest rates are low and falling
  • price falls when economy is booming
422
Q

what is M0?

A

notes and coins in circulation plus banks operational deposits with the bank of england

narrow money

423
Q

what is M4?

A

broad money - notes and coins in circulation plus the bank accounts of UK residents with UK banks and building societies, and deposits created by banks and building societies through lending activity

424
Q

what is quantitative easing?

A

banks buy back gilts and corporate bonds to increase UK money supply - so to bring liquidity to financial markets and increase banks lending capacity

425
Q

what is disinflation?

A

decrease in rate of inflation but prices are still rising

426
Q

what is deflation?

A

prices declining over time and inflation becomes negative

consumers defer purchases and manufacturers reduce output

427
Q

what is stagflation?

A

combo of stagnant growth and inflation

428
Q

what is the current account?

A

made up of transactions in goods (visible trade) and services (invisible trade)

429
Q

what is the capital account?

A

records all movement of money into and out of the country for investment

430
Q

what is the efficient frontier?

A

relationship between return from portfolio and risk of portfolio

set of portfolios that show the maximum rate of return for given levels of risk

431
Q

assumptions of CAPM

A
  • information is free and available
  • investors are risk averse / rational
  • no individual can affect market price
  • identical holding period
  • no taxes, transaction costs
432
Q

Limitations of CAPM

A
  • totally risk free return required
  • true market portfolio required
  • beta suitability - needs to be stable and predictable
433
Q

APT

A

security returns can be predicted using relationship between security and common risk factors

434
Q

factors influencing security of returns

A

unanticipated inflation

changes in industrial production

changes in default risk premium on bonds

unanticipated changes in return of long term government bonds over treasury bills

435
Q

Annuity formula

A

1) P /

2) (1+r)n-1 / r

436
Q

VCTs tax treatment

A
  • 30% income tax relief upto £200,000
  • relief withdrawn if held for less than 5 years
  • dividends exempt from income tax
  • no cgt deferral available
  • no cgt on disposal
  • losses not allowable for CGT purposes