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Abdomen Imaging > J. Mandell & D. Marchiori > Flashcards

J. Mandell & D. Marchiori Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of bladder calculi?

A

Bladder outlet obstruction from prostatic disease (seen in elderly men)

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2
Q

The presence of bladder stones is associated with an increased incidence of _____

A

Bladder carcinoma

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3
Q

80% of Wilms tumors occurs in children of what age range?

A

1-5 years old

Peak incidence: 3-4 years old

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4
Q

What is the most common abdominal malignancy in children?

A

Wilms tumor (aka nephroblastoma)

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5
Q

Intra-parenchymal calcifications within the kidney is known as what?

A

Nephrocalcinosis

cortical vs. medullary types

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6
Q

Calcifications within the pyelocalyceal lumina of the kidney is known as what?

A

Nephrolithiasis

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7
Q

What is the most common substance that makes up renal stones in the US?

A

Calcium oxalate (75%)

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8
Q

What percentage of renal stones are visible on radiographs?

A

90% are opaque enough to be seen on plain films

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9
Q

What is the most common germ cell neoplasm and the most common childhood ovarian tumor?

A

Mature teratoma (aka ovarian dermoid cysts)

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10
Q

What is the most common complication with a ovarian dermoid cyst?

A

Torsion

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11
Q

What percentage of ovarian tumors are benign?

A

80% (majority occur in patients of reproductive age)

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12
Q

Pheochromocytoma is a rare, potentially life-threatening neoplasm characterized by its marked production of what?

A

Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

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13
Q

Approximately 85-95% of pheochrormocytomas occur where?

A

Adrenal medulla

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14
Q

Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) accounts for what percentage of primary malignant renal neoplasms?

A

80-90%

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15
Q

Of all genitourinary malignancies, which is considered the most lethal?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

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16
Q

What is the most common benign renal neoplasm?

A

Angiomyolipoma

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17
Q

Approximately what percentage of angiomyolipomas occur in females?

A

80%

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18
Q

Multiple, bilateral, small angiomyolipomas that may be symptomatic are found in up to 80% of patients with what underlying disease?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

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19
Q

Angiomyolipoma often has a similar appearance to RCC on ultrasound, which modality is used to determine the diagnosis?

A

CT

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20
Q

Angiomyolipomas have a classical appearance of inhomogenous attenuation of what kind of tissue on CT?

A

Fatty tissue that does not enhance

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21
Q

What is the most common benign uterine tumor?

A

Leiomyoma (aka uterine fibroma)

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22
Q

A uterine fibroma is primarily affected by what when it comes to growth?

A

Estrogen

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23
Q

What genitourinary tumor has a classic “popcorn” or “cauliflower-like” appearance on plain film?

A

Uterine fibroid (leiomyoma)

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24
Q

What is the preferred imaging modality when imaging gallstones?

A

Ultrasound

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25
Q

What percentage of gallstones have enough calcification to be visualized on plain film?

A

10-15%

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26
Q

Porcelain gallbladder (aka calcifying cholecystitis) is extensive calcification of the _____ of the gallbladder

A

Wall of the gallbladder

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27
Q

A porcelain gallbladder is associated with a higher risk of which primary gallbladder malignancy?

A

Adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder

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28
Q

Describe gallstone ileus

A

A complication of gallstones, it is perforation of the duodenum/bowel by gallstone

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29
Q

What is the classic radiographic triad associated with gallstone ileus?

A

Small bowel obstruction
Biliary tract air
Opaque concretion seen in the small bowel

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30
Q

Describe limy bile syndrome (milk of calcium bile)

A

Radiopaque appearance of gallbladder on radiographs

Caused by calcium carbonate precipitation in the bile

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31
Q

In the setting of limy bile syndrome, what is a characteristic finding on upright radiographs?

A

An air-fluid level

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32
Q

A non-surgical technique that helps to break up gallstones is called _____

A

Lithotripsy (strong ultrasound waves)

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33
Q

Adenomatous colon polyps are considered a precursor to _____ cancer

A

Colorectal cancer

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34
Q

Why is colon polyp size critical for guiding clinical management?

A

As colon polyp size increases, so does the risk of malignancy

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35
Q

Chronic occult blood loss from polyps may lead to what kind of deficiency?

A

Iron deficiency

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36
Q

The following are high risk groups for colorectal carcinoma

A

Familial polyposis (100% risk if untreated)
Gardner syndrome
Ulcerative colitis (increased risk with chronic UC)
Crohns disease (risk is lower than UC)
Family history

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37
Q

What are characteristic findings of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A 
Multiple polyps (mostly at small intestines)
Mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation at:
Lips
Buccal mucosa
Fingers and toes
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38
Q

What lesions are associated with Gardner syndrome?

A

Multiple polyps
Osteomas
Fibromas
Desmoid tumors

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39
Q

A narrowed segment of bowel with markedly narrowed lumen, abrupt transition, and overhanging edges is known as a _____

A

“Napkin ring” or “apple core” lesion

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40
Q

The “napkin ring” or “apple core” lesion is associated with what pathology?

A

Colon carcinoma

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41
Q

Which part of bowel does Crohns disease predominantly affect?

A

Terminal ileum and proximal ascending colon
Small bowel only involvement (30-40%)
Colon only involvement (25%)

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42
Q

Which age range does Crohns disease typically affect?

A

Adolescents and young adults

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43
Q

“Rose thorn” ulcerations, “cobble stone” mucosal appearance, “skip lesions”, fissures, strictures, and fistulas are all associated with which inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Crohns disease

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44
Q

What are some clinical symptoms of Crohns disease?

A 
Intermittent low-grade fever
Non-bloody diarrhea 
Abdominal distention
RLQ pain 
Iron deficiency anemia
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45
Q

Diverticulosis/diverticulitis is most common at which location?

A

Sigmoid colon (may occur anywhere in the colon)

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46
Q

What category of diseases can predispose a patient to diverticular disease?

A

Connective tissue diseases, reduces the integrity of the bowel wall:
Marfans syndome
Ehlers-Danlos
Scleroderma

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47
Q

What are some clinical symptoms of diverticular disease?

A

Diverticulitis (inflammation)
Hemorrhage
LLQ tenderness
Rectal bleeding (associated with right colon diverticulitis)

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48
Q

What is the most common type of hiatal hernia?

A

Sliding (95%):

A portion of gastric fundus herniates into chest

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49
Q

The following conditions may lead to pancreatic calcifications

A

Alcoholism: small concretions scattered through the gland
Pseudocysts: widely scattered or rim calcification
Pancreatic cancer: diffuse calcification (most do not calcify)
Hyperparathyroidism: causes pancreatic and renal calcification
Cystadenoma/cystadenocarcinoma: sunburst pattern calcification (pathognomonic but uncommon)

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50
Q

IN the setting of pancreatic calculi, what percentage of patients have a history of high alcohol intake?

A

90%

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51
Q

Calcifications of the pancreas usually develops after how many years of abdominal pain in patients with high alcohol intake?

A

5-10 years

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52
Q

Peptic ulcer disease (aka gastric ulcers) is the erosion of the _____ or _____ mucosa

A

Gastric or duodenal mucosa

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53
Q

What bacteria is thought to be a major cause of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H. pylori (present in 80-90% of patients with peptic ulcer disease)

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54
Q

What percentage of gastric ulcers are associated with malignancies?

A

5%

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55
Q

What percentage of duodenal ulcers are associated with malignancies?

A

Virtually none

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56
Q

Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the mucosal surface of the colon. Which region is involved in approximately 50% off the patients?

A

Involves only the rectosimoid region in approximately 50% of patients

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57
Q

Epigastric pain is present in what percentage of patients with peptic ulcer disease?

A

Approximately 90%

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58
Q

What is the acceptable measurement of small bowel?

A

< 3cm

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59
Q

What is the acceptable measurement of large bowel?

A

< 6cm

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60
Q

What is the acceptable measurement of the cecum?

A

< 9cm

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61
Q

Image findings of ulcerative colitis includes the following

A

Loss of haustra

Coarse, granular appearance of mucosa

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62
Q

Differentiating ulcerative colitis from Crohns disease

A 
UC: 
Colon involvement is continuous 
Pseudopolyps
Decreased rectal distensibility
No strictures, fissures, fistulas
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63
Q

A hallmark clinical symptoms that is present in ulcerative colitis and not Crohns disease is _____

A

Bloody diarrhea

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64
Q

Dilatation larger than _____cm indicates a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

3cm

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65
Q

What is the most diagnostic imaging modality for detecting an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

Ultrasound

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66
Q

What is the most common cause of an acute abdomen?

A

Appendicitis

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67
Q

Tearing of the lower esophagus due to violent vomiting is called what?

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

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68
Q

What is the most frequently involved site for a hydatid cyst?

A 
Liver 
Can also be seen at:
Spleen
Kidney
Peritoneum
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69
Q

Which animals are hosts for echinococcus granulosus/echinococcus multilocularis?

A 
Sheep
Dogs
Cattle
Deer
Hogs
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70
Q

Hydatid cysts represent infestation by which 2 organisms?

A

Echinococcus grranulosus

Echinococcus multilocularis

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71
Q

Describe characteristics of a concretion calcification within the abdomen

A 
Varied shape (typically round/oval)
Clearly defined border (usually smooth)
Continuous border
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72
Q

Describe the characteristics of conduit wall calcification within the abdomen

A

Tubular, track-like appearance
Border may be indistinct
Margins may be discontinuous, irregular

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73
Q

Describe the characteristics of a cyst calcification within the abdomen

A

Round/oval in shape
May be compressed on one side
Smooth, curvilinear rim of opacification
Rim calcification may be continuous/interrupted

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74
Q

Describe the characteristics of a mass calcification within the abdomen

A

Varied shape
Irregular, calcified border
Interrupted margins

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75
Q

Vas deferens calcification is highly associated with what underlying systemic disease?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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76
Q

Which abdominal calcification is associated with current/future appendices perforation, especially in children?

A

Appendicolith

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77
Q

The presence of phleboliths outside of the pelvic bowl periphery usually indicates what?

A

Soft tissue hemangiomas

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78
Q

Concretions of variable sizes behind the pubic symphysis of male patients older than 40 most likely represents what?

A

Prostatic calculi

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79
Q

What is the most common location for conduit wall calcification?

A

Abdominal aorta

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80
Q

Renal artery calcification occurs primarily as a consequence of which systemic disease?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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81
Q

Splenic artery calcification is seen in which location of the abdomen?

A

LUQ

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82
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of splenic artery calcification?

A

Serpiginous

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83
Q

2/3 of splenic cysts are caused by what organism?

A

Echinococcus granulosis

Seeni n LUQ

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84
Q

What type of cysts are most likely to calcify at the adrenal glands?

A

Pseudocysts

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85
Q

What is the most common cause of calcification of the bladder?

A

Schistosomiasis

Thin, continuous curvilinear calcification

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86
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumoperitoneum?

A

Recent laparotomy (usually presents 3-7 days after)

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87
Q

What is the most common spontaneous causes of pneumoperitoneum?

A

Perforation of gastric/duodenal ulcer

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88
Q

What is the most helpful radiographic view for visualizing pneumoperitoneum?

A

Left lateral decubitus (free air may be seen in contrast to the solid water density of the liver)

89
Q

Describe the “gas-relief” or “double wall” sign

A

Intraluminal and extraluminal air outlining both surfaces of bowel.
Usually at least 1 L of gas is required to demonstrate this sign, indicating pneumoperitoneum

90
Q

What is the “falciform ligament” sign?

A

This may appear as a linear density when surrounded by air, indicating pneumoperitoneum

91
Q

What is the name sign that shows a large amount of air forming a dome over free intraperitoneal fluid in the central part of the abdomen, most seen frequently in children

A

“Football” sign (pneumoperitoneum)

92
Q

A triangular gas density projected over the superior margin of the right kidney, representing air trapped dorsally under the liver, what is this sign called?

A

“Morison pouch” sign (pneumoperitoneum)

93
Q

Anterior interposition of the colon to the liver, reaching the undersurface of the right hemidiaphragm, creating abdominal pain, is known as what syndrome?

A

Chilaiditi syndrome (causes pseudopneumoperitoneum)

94
Q

What 2 conditions predisposes a patient to Chilaiditi syndrome?

A

Ascites and cirrhosis

95
Q

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions from prior surgery

96
Q

Aside from adhesions from previous surgery, what are other common causes of small bowel obstruction?

A

Hernias
Masses
Volvulus

97
Q

What is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction?

A

Colon cancer

Diverticulitis

98
Q

Aside from colon cancer and diverticulitis, what are other common causes of large bowel obstruction?

A

Volvulus
Peritoneal metastasis (especially from ovarian cancer)
Distended bladder
Pelvic mass

99
Q

The “dog ears” sign seen in the pelvis is an indicator of what?

A

Ascites

100
Q

What are some common causes of hepatomegaly?

A 
Fatty infiltrate
Congestive heart failure
Primary neoplasms
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Abscesses
Hepatitis
101
Q

What are some common causes of gallbladder enlargement?

A

Acute cholecystitis
Gallbladder hydrops
Gallbladder carcinoma
Acute obstruction (Courvoisier gallbladder)

102
Q

What is the average length of the spleen?

A

10cm (up to 13cm is considered normal)

103
Q

What are some common causes of splenomegaly?

A 
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Infection
Portal hypertension from hepatitis/cirrhosis
Hematologic abnormalities
104
Q

What is the most common adrenal mass?

A

Adenocarcinoma

105
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?

A

Obstruction of cystic duct by gallstone

106
Q

Acute infection of the gallbladder caused by gas-forming organisms is known as what?

A

Emphysematous cholecystitis

Perforation is 5x more common than acute cholecystitis

107
Q

Which segments of the liver are in the left lobe?

A

2, 3, 4

108
Q

Which segments of the liver are in the right lobe?

A

5, 6, 7, 8

109
Q

Typically which 2 lobes of the liver are posterior and not visible on the frontal view?

A

6 and 7

110
Q

Wilson disease is the accumulation of what substance?

A

Copper

111
Q

In which organs does the copper like to accumulate in Wilson disease?

A

Liver
Basal ganglia
Cornea

112
Q

What is the most common cause of iron overload?

A

Hemochromatosis (genetic defect causing increased iron absorption)

113
Q

In which system is the excess iron stored in those with hemochromatosis?

A

Reticuloendothelial system

114
Q

What is secondary hemochromatosis?

A

Hepatic damage from iron overload after the rrerticuloendothelial system (RES) becomes saturated

115
Q

What is the most common organism to cause an abscess in the liver?

A

E. coli

116
Q

Echinococcus granulosus is endemic to which part of the world?

A

Mediterranean (associated with sheep-raising)

117
Q

What are some causes of cirrhosis of the liver?

A 
Alcoholism
Hemochromatosis 
Wilson disease
Hepatitis B/C
Sclerosing cholangitis
118
Q

Enlargement of which liver lobe is a specific sign of cirrhosis?

A

Caudate lobe

119
Q

In the setting of cirrhosis, which malignancy is thought most likely develop?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

120
Q

What is the most common primary liver tumor?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

121
Q

Alpha-feto protein is elevated in approximately what percentage of cases of HCC?

A

75%

122
Q

What is the subtype of hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs in young patients without cirrhosis?

A

Fibrolamellar carcinoma

123
Q

Hypervascular metastasis to the liver classically includes the following

A 
Neuroendocrine tumors
Renal cell carcinoma
Thyroid carcinoma
Melanoma
Sarcoma
124
Q

Hypovascular metastasis to the liver classically includes the following

A

Colorectal adenocarcinoma

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

125
Q

Hepatic adenomas are associated with what kind of medication?

A

Prolonged oral contraceptive use in females

Anabolic steroids use, typically seen in males

126
Q

Hepatic adenomas have a relatively high risk of what complication?

A

Hemorrhage

When discovered incidentally, they are typically resected

127
Q

What measurement is considered greater than normal range for the wall of the gallbladder?

A

> 3mm

128
Q

What modality is considered the best when it comes to gallstones?

A

Ultrasound

129
Q

Complications of acute cholecystitis include the following

A

Gangrenous cholecystitis
Gallbladder perforation
Emphysematous cholecystitis

130
Q

What is thought to be the cause of porcelain gallbladder?

A

Chronic cholecystitis

131
Q

Porcelain gallbladder is associated with what kind of malignancy?

A

Gallbladder carcinoma

132
Q

Descibre primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

A

Idiopathic inflammation and destruction of bile ducts

133
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is associated with what condition?

A

Ulcerative colitis

Males > females

134
Q

What is the difference between primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)?

A

Primary billiary cirrhosis (PBC) is inflammation and destruction of smaller bile ducts compared to PSC

135
Q

What is the most common form of cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Klatskin tumor

136
Q

Which malignancy as a propensity to metastasize to the gallbladder?

A

Melanoma

137
Q

What makes up the majority of pancreatic neoplasms?

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma (80-90%)

138
Q

What pancreatic neoplasm is associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrinoma

139
Q

What is the age range of patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma?

A

> 60 years old

140
Q

What are some risk factors associated with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma?

A

Smoking
Alcohol
Chronic pancreatitis

141
Q

Where is the most common location for a ductal adenocarcinoma?

A

Pancreatic head

142
Q

A rare, aggressive variant of pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is seen exclusively in elderly males is called what?

A

Acinar cell carcinoma

143
Q

Acinar cell carcinoma produces a large amount of lipase that creates a clinical triad that consists of the following

A

Lipase hyper secretion syndrome:
Subcutaneous fat necrosis
Bone infarcts causing polyarthralgia
Eosinophilia

144
Q

What is the most common pancreatic endocrine tumor?

A

Insulinoma

145
Q

What is the 2nd most common pancreatic endocrine tumor?

A

Gastrinoma

146
Q

What are the 2 types of neoplasms seen in the pancreas that are associated with von Hippel-Lindau?

A

Cystadenoma

Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors

147
Q

What is the most common cause of childhood pancreatic atrophy?

A

Cystic fibrosis

148
Q

What causes an accessory spleen (aka splenule)?

A

Failure of embryological fusion of the splenic anlage

Most common location: splenic hilum

149
Q

Describe a wandering spleen

A

Normal spleen with abnormal laxity or absence of its fixed ligamentous attachments

150
Q

What is the most common benign splenic neoplasm?

A

Hemangioma

151
Q

Which 2 conditions are associated with splenic hemangiomas?

A

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome

152
Q

What is the most common presentation of the spleen in someone with sarcoidosis?

A

Splenomegaly

153
Q

What is the most common splenic malignancy?

A

Splenic lymphoma

154
Q

The most common primary malignancies known to metastasize to the spleen includes the following

A

Breast
Lung
Ovarian
Melanoma

155
Q

Which abdominal organ is the most commonly injured from blunt force trauma?

A

Spleen

156
Q

What is Barrett esophagus?

A

A long-term sequelae of peptic esophagitis that creates metaplasia of normal squamous epithelium to gastric-type adenomatous mucosa

157
Q

What organism plays a major role in the cause of gastritis, gastric ulcers, and duodenal ulcers?

A

H. pylori

158
Q

Which part of the stomach does Crohn disease affect?

A

Distal half the stomach

159
Q

In what percentage of patients with scleroderma is there esophageal involvement?

A

80%

160
Q

Describe the changes seen at the esophagus due to scleroderma

A

Lack of peristalsis at the distal 2/3 of esophagus
Smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis
Leads to marked esophageal dilation

161
Q

What is the most common submucosal gastric tumor?

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)

162
Q

Gastrointestinal stromal tumors may be malignant or benign, depending on what factor?

A

Size

Malignant GISTs are generally larger

163
Q

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions from a previous surgery

164
Q

Aside from adhesions caused by previous surgery, what are other common causes of small bowel obstruction?

A

Hernia
Neoplasm
Stricture
Intussusception

165
Q

With closed-loop small bowel obstruction, what are some serious concerns?

A

Bowel ischemia

Severe morbidity and mortality rates

166
Q

What is the “small bowel feces” sign?

A

A loop of small bowel that demonstrates gas locals and particulate material
Often seen just proximal to transition point

167
Q

What is the most common type of transmesenteric hernia?

A

Transmesocolic hernia

Due to a defect in the transverse mesocolon

168
Q

The Rigler’s triad is associate with what?

A

Gallstone ileus

169
Q

What are the findings associated with Rigler’s triad?

A

Pneumobilia
Small bowel obstruction
Ectopic gallstone

170
Q

What are some common complication of Crohn disease?

A

Bowel strictures
Fistuale
Abscesses

171
Q

Ulcerative colitis typically begins where?

A

Rectum and spread proximally in a continual manner

172
Q

Patients with ulcerative colitis have an increased risk for the following

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Colon cancer
Cholangiocarcinoma

173
Q

Ulcerative colitis does not extend more proximally than which part of the bowel?

A

Does not extend more proximal than the cecum

174
Q

What is characteristically seen in Peutz-Jeghers?

A

Multiple hamartomatous pedunculate polyps

Usually in the small bowel

175
Q

Describe Cowden syndrome?

A

Multiple hamartomatous polyps

Most commonly found in skin and external mucous membranes and GI tract

176
Q

What is the most common cause of acute abdomen?

A

Appendicitis

177
Q

Describe epiploic appendigitis

A

Benign

Clinical mimic of diverticulitis caused by torsion of a normal fatty tag (appendage) hanging from the colon

178
Q

What is the most common small bowel tumor?

A

Gastrointestinal carcinoid

Typically occurs at distal ileum

179
Q

What is the most common primary retroperitoneal tumors?

A

Liposarcoma

180
Q

Describe retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Rare inflammatory disorder causing increased fibrotic deposition in the retroperitoneum
Often leads to ureteral obstruction

181
Q

What is the most common type of adrenal cyst?

A

Endothelial adrenal cysts (45%)

182
Q

What is the “rule of 10” associated with pheochromocytoma?

A

10% are extra-adrenal
10% are bilateral
10% are malignant
10% are familial or syndromic

183
Q

Pheochromocytoma is associated with several syndromes, as follows

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN): typically bilateral and intra-adrenal
von Hippel-Lindau
Neurofibromatosis type I
Carney’s triad

184
Q

An extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma is known as what?

A

Paraganglioma

185
Q

Where is the most common location for a paraganglioma?

A

Organ of Zuckerkandl

Located at the aortic bifurcation in the abdomen

186
Q

What subtype is the most common renal cell carcinoma?

A

Clear cell (75%)

187
Q

Which subtype of renal cell carcinoma has the best prognosis?

A

Chromophobe (90% 5 year survival)

188
Q

What is the most common benign renal neoplasm?

A

Angiomyolipoma (AML)

189
Q

What a risk associated with angiomyolipoma (AML) of the kidneys?

A

Hemorrhage (especially if > 4cm)

190
Q

What is the most common pattern of lymphoma at the kidneys?

A

Multiple lymphomatous masses (50%)

191
Q

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome causes multiple _____ and _____ in multiple organs

A

Multiple cysts and neoplasms in multiple organs

192
Q

Central nervous system manifestations of von Hippel-Lindau syndrome includes the following

A

Hemangioblastoma at the following locations:
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Spinal cord

193
Q

What is the most common renal manifestation of tuberous sclerosis (TS)?

A

Multiple bilateral renal angiomyolipomas (AMLs)

Renal cysts are seen in 25%

194
Q

What is the most common cardiac manifestation of tuberous sclerosis (TS)?

A

Rhabdomyoma is the most common neoplasm

195
Q

What is the classification system used for renal cysts?

A

Bosniak

196
Q

Medullary nephrocalcinosis represents calcification of the renal _____

A

Renal medullary pyramids

197
Q

The common causes of medullary nephrocalcinosis is as follows

A

Hypercalcemic state
Medullary sponge kidney
Renal tubular acidosis
Furosemide therapy in a child

198
Q

Cortical nephrocalcinosis is dystrophic peripheral calcification of the _____

A

Renal cortex

199
Q

Causes of cortical nephrocalcinosis includes the following

A

Acute cortical necrosis
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Chronic transplant rejection

200
Q

Chronic renal failure develops in what percentage of patients with cortical necrosis?

A

50%

201
Q

What is the most common ureteral neoplasm?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

202
Q

What is the most common benign ureteral mass?

A

Fibroepithelial polyp

203
Q

What are differential diagnosis to consider when there is a ureteral filling defect?

A

Ureteral malignancy (transitional cell carcinoma is the most common)
Ureteral calculus
Blood clot
Malacoplakia

204
Q

A focal dilation of the most distal portion of the ureter is called a _____

A

Ureterocele

205
Q

What is the most common cause of bladder stones?

A

Urinary stasis (most commonly bladder outlet obstruction)

206
Q

An off-midline bladder should raise concern for displacement of stone by _____

A

Bladder mass
Enlarged prostate
Stone within ureterocele
Stone within bladder diverticulum

207
Q

The most common bladder cancer is _____

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

208
Q

What is the most common site of malignancy in the urinary tract?

A

Bladder

209
Q

What uncommon bladder carcinoma is associated with a tracheal remnant?

A

Bladder adenocarcinoma

210
Q

Which organism is most commonly associated with urethral stricture?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

211
Q

Urethral diverticula are prone to develop _____ due to urinary stasis

A

Calculi

212
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the uterus?

A

Fibroid (aka leiomyoma)

Affects up to 40% of reproductive-age women

213
Q

What is the most common female gynecologic malignancy?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

214
Q

Endometrial carcinoma typically presents with what kind of bleeding?

A

Post-menopausal bleeding

215
Q

What is the third most common gynecological malignancy?

A

Cervical carcinoma

216
Q

A bicornuate uterus is due to incomplete fusion of which structures?

A

Mullerian ducts

217
Q

What is the most common benign ovarian neoplasm in young women?

A

Dermoid cyst (aka mature cystic teratoma)

218
Q

Ovaries containing a dermoid cyst are predisposed to _____

A

Torsion

219
Q

What is the second most common gynecological malignancy?

A

Ovarian cancer

Abdomen Imaging (3 decks)

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