J. Mandell & D. Marchiori Flashcards
1
Q
What is the most common cause of bladder calculi?
A
Bladder outlet obstruction from prostatic disease (seen in elderly men)
2
Q
The presence of bladder stones is associated with an increased incidence of _____
A
Bladder carcinoma
3
Q
80% of Wilms tumors occurs in children of what age range?
A
1-5 years old
Peak incidence: 3-4 years old
4
Q
What is the most common abdominal malignancy in children?
A
Wilms tumor (aka nephroblastoma)
5
Q
Intra-parenchymal calcifications within the kidney is known as what?
A
Nephrocalcinosis
cortical vs. medullary types
6
Q
Calcifications within the pyelocalyceal lumina of the kidney is known as what?
A
Nephrolithiasis
7
Q
What is the most common substance that makes up renal stones in the US?
A
Calcium oxalate (75%)
8
Q
What percentage of renal stones are visible on radiographs?
A
90% are opaque enough to be seen on plain films
9
Q
What is the most common germ cell neoplasm and the most common childhood ovarian tumor?
A
Mature teratoma (aka ovarian dermoid cysts)
10
Q
What is the most common complication with a ovarian dermoid cyst?
A
Torsion
11
Q
What percentage of ovarian tumors are benign?
A
80% (majority occur in patients of reproductive age)
12
Q
Pheochromocytoma is a rare, potentially life-threatening neoplasm characterized by its marked production of what?
A
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
13
Q
Approximately 85-95% of pheochrormocytomas occur where?
A
Adrenal medulla
14
Q
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) accounts for what percentage of primary malignant renal neoplasms?
A
80-90%
15
Q
Of all genitourinary malignancies, which is considered the most lethal?
A
Renal cell carcinoma
16
Q
What is the most common benign renal neoplasm?
A
Angiomyolipoma
17
Q
Approximately what percentage of angiomyolipomas occur in females?
A
80%
18
Q
Multiple, bilateral, small angiomyolipomas that may be symptomatic are found in up to 80% of patients with what underlying disease?
A
Tuberous sclerosis
19
Q
Angiomyolipoma often has a similar appearance to RCC on ultrasound, which modality is used to determine the diagnosis?
A
CT
20
Q
Angiomyolipomas have a classical appearance of inhomogenous attenuation of what kind of tissue on CT?
A
Fatty tissue that does not enhance
21
Q
What is the most common benign uterine tumor?
A
Leiomyoma (aka uterine fibroma)
22
Q
A uterine fibroma is primarily affected by what when it comes to growth?
A
Estrogen
23
Q
What genitourinary tumor has a classic “popcorn” or “cauliflower-like” appearance on plain film?
A
Uterine fibroid (leiomyoma)
24
Q
What is the preferred imaging modality when imaging gallstones?
A
Ultrasound
25
What percentage of gallstones have enough calcification to be visualized on plain film?
10-15%
26
Porcelain gallbladder (aka calcifying cholecystitis) is extensive calcification of the _____ of the gallbladder
Wall of the gallbladder
27
A porcelain gallbladder is associated with a higher risk of which primary gallbladder malignancy?
Adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder
28
Describe gallstone ileus
A complication of gallstones, it is perforation of the duodenum/bowel by gallstone
29
What is the classic radiographic triad associated with gallstone ileus?
Small bowel obstruction
Biliary tract air
Opaque concretion seen in the small bowel
30
Describe limy bile syndrome (milk of calcium bile)
Radiopaque appearance of gallbladder on radiographs
| Caused by calcium carbonate precipitation in the bile
31
In the setting of limy bile syndrome, what is a characteristic finding on upright radiographs?
An air-fluid level
32
A non-surgical technique that helps to break up gallstones is called _____
Lithotripsy (strong ultrasound waves)
33
Adenomatous colon polyps are considered a precursor to _____ cancer
Colorectal cancer
34
Why is colon polyp size critical for guiding clinical management?
As colon polyp size increases, so does the risk of malignancy
35
Chronic occult blood loss from polyps may lead to what kind of deficiency?
Iron deficiency
36
The following are high risk groups for colorectal carcinoma
Familial polyposis (100% risk if untreated)
Gardner syndrome
Ulcerative colitis (increased risk with chronic UC)
Crohns disease (risk is lower than UC)
Family history
37
What are characteristic findings of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
```
Multiple polyps (mostly at small intestines)
Mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation at:
Lips
Buccal mucosa
Fingers and toes
```
38
What lesions are associated with Gardner syndrome?
Multiple polyps
Osteomas
Fibromas
Desmoid tumors
39
A narrowed segment of bowel with markedly narrowed lumen, abrupt transition, and overhanging edges is known as a _____
"Napkin ring" or "apple core" lesion
40
The "napkin ring" or "apple core" lesion is associated with what pathology?
Colon carcinoma
41
Which part of bowel does Crohns disease predominantly affect?
Terminal ileum and proximal ascending colon
Small bowel only involvement (30-40%)
Colon only involvement (25%)
42
Which age range does Crohns disease typically affect?
Adolescents and young adults
43
"Rose thorn" ulcerations, "cobble stone" mucosal appearance, "skip lesions", fissures, strictures, and fistulas are all associated with which inflammatory bowel disease?
Crohns disease
44
What are some clinical symptoms of Crohns disease?
```
Intermittent low-grade fever
Non-bloody diarrhea
Abdominal distention
RLQ pain
Iron deficiency anemia
```
45
Diverticulosis/diverticulitis is most common at which location?
Sigmoid colon (may occur anywhere in the colon)
46
What category of diseases can predispose a patient to diverticular disease?
Connective tissue diseases, reduces the integrity of the bowel wall:
Marfans syndome
Ehlers-Danlos
Scleroderma
47
What are some clinical symptoms of diverticular disease?
Diverticulitis (inflammation)
Hemorrhage
LLQ tenderness
Rectal bleeding (associated with right colon diverticulitis)
48
What is the most common type of hiatal hernia?
Sliding (95%):
| A portion of gastric fundus herniates into chest
49
The following conditions may lead to pancreatic calcifications
Alcoholism: small concretions scattered through the gland
Pseudocysts: widely scattered or rim calcification
Pancreatic cancer: diffuse calcification (most do not calcify)
Hyperparathyroidism: causes pancreatic and renal calcification
Cystadenoma/cystadenocarcinoma: sunburst pattern calcification (pathognomonic but uncommon)
50
IN the setting of pancreatic calculi, what percentage of patients have a history of high alcohol intake?
90%
51
Calcifications of the pancreas usually develops after how many years of abdominal pain in patients with high alcohol intake?
5-10 years
52
Peptic ulcer disease (aka gastric ulcers) is the erosion of the _____ or _____ mucosa
Gastric or duodenal mucosa
53
What bacteria is thought to be a major cause of peptic ulcer disease?
H. pylori (present in 80-90% of patients with peptic ulcer disease)
54
What percentage of gastric ulcers are associated with malignancies?
5%
55
What percentage of duodenal ulcers are associated with malignancies?
Virtually none
56
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the mucosal surface of the colon. Which region is involved in approximately 50% off the patients?
Involves only the rectosimoid region in approximately 50% of patients
57
Epigastric pain is present in what percentage of patients with peptic ulcer disease?
Approximately 90%
58
What is the acceptable measurement of small bowel?
< 3cm
59
What is the acceptable measurement of large bowel?
< 6cm
60
What is the acceptable measurement of the cecum?
< 9cm
61
Image findings of ulcerative colitis includes the following
Loss of haustra
| Coarse, granular appearance of mucosa
62
Differentiating ulcerative colitis from Crohns disease
```
UC:
Colon involvement is continuous
Pseudopolyps
Decreased rectal distensibility
No strictures, fissures, fistulas
```
63
A hallmark clinical symptoms that is present in ulcerative colitis and not Crohns disease is _____
Bloody diarrhea
64
Dilatation larger than _____cm indicates a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm
3cm
65
What is the most diagnostic imaging modality for detecting an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
Ultrasound
66
What is the most common cause of an acute abdomen?
Appendicitis
67
Tearing of the lower esophagus due to violent vomiting is called what?
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
68
What is the most frequently involved site for a hydatid cyst?
```
Liver
Can also be seen at:
Spleen
Kidney
Peritoneum
```
69
Which animals are hosts for echinococcus granulosus/echinococcus multilocularis?
```
Sheep
Dogs
Cattle
Deer
Hogs
```
70
Hydatid cysts represent infestation by which 2 organisms?
Echinococcus grranulosus
| Echinococcus multilocularis
71
Describe characteristics of a concretion calcification within the abdomen
```
Varied shape (typically round/oval)
Clearly defined border (usually smooth)
Continuous border
```
72
Describe the characteristics of conduit wall calcification within the abdomen
Tubular, track-like appearance
Border may be indistinct
Margins may be discontinuous, irregular
73
Describe the characteristics of a cyst calcification within the abdomen
Round/oval in shape
May be compressed on one side
Smooth, curvilinear rim of opacification
Rim calcification may be continuous/interrupted
74
Describe the characteristics of a mass calcification within the abdomen
Varied shape
Irregular, calcified border
Interrupted margins
75
Vas deferens calcification is highly associated with what underlying systemic disease?
Diabetes mellitus
76
Which abdominal calcification is associated with current/future appendices perforation, especially in children?
Appendicolith
77
The presence of phleboliths outside of the pelvic bowl periphery usually indicates what?
Soft tissue hemangiomas
78
Concretions of variable sizes behind the pubic symphysis of male patients older than 40 most likely represents what?
Prostatic calculi
79
What is the most common location for conduit wall calcification?
Abdominal aorta
80
Renal artery calcification occurs primarily as a consequence of which systemic disease?
Diabetes mellitus
81
Splenic artery calcification is seen in which location of the abdomen?
LUQ
82
What is the characteristic appearance of splenic artery calcification?
Serpiginous
83
2/3 of splenic cysts are caused by what organism?
Echinococcus granulosis
| Seeni n LUQ
84
What type of cysts are most likely to calcify at the adrenal glands?
Pseudocysts
85
What is the most common cause of calcification of the bladder?
Schistosomiasis
| Thin, continuous curvilinear calcification
86
What is the most common cause of pneumoperitoneum?
Recent laparotomy (usually presents 3-7 days after)
87
What is the most common spontaneous causes of pneumoperitoneum?
Perforation of gastric/duodenal ulcer
88
What is the most helpful radiographic view for visualizing pneumoperitoneum?
Left lateral decubitus (free air may be seen in contrast to the solid water density of the liver)
89
Describe the "gas-relief" or "double wall" sign
Intraluminal and extraluminal air outlining both surfaces of bowel.
Usually at least 1 L of gas is required to demonstrate this sign, indicating pneumoperitoneum
90
What is the "falciform ligament" sign?
This may appear as a linear density when surrounded by air, indicating pneumoperitoneum
91
What is the name sign that shows a large amount of air forming a dome over free intraperitoneal fluid in the central part of the abdomen, most seen frequently in children
"Football" sign (pneumoperitoneum)
92
A triangular gas density projected over the superior margin of the right kidney, representing air trapped dorsally under the liver, what is this sign called?
"Morison pouch" sign (pneumoperitoneum)
93
Anterior interposition of the colon to the liver, reaching the undersurface of the right hemidiaphragm, creating abdominal pain, is known as what syndrome?
Chilaiditi syndrome (causes pseudopneumoperitoneum)
94
What 2 conditions predisposes a patient to Chilaiditi syndrome?
Ascites and cirrhosis
95
What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?
Adhesions from prior surgery
96
Aside from adhesions from previous surgery, what are other common causes of small bowel obstruction?
Hernias
Masses
Volvulus
97
What is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction?
Colon cancer
| Diverticulitis
98
Aside from colon cancer and diverticulitis, what are other common causes of large bowel obstruction?
Volvulus
Peritoneal metastasis (especially from ovarian cancer)
Distended bladder
Pelvic mass
99
The "dog ears" sign seen in the pelvis is an indicator of what?
Ascites
100
What are some common causes of hepatomegaly?
```
Fatty infiltrate
Congestive heart failure
Primary neoplasms
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Abscesses
Hepatitis
```
101
What are some common causes of gallbladder enlargement?
Acute cholecystitis
Gallbladder hydrops
Gallbladder carcinoma
Acute obstruction (Courvoisier gallbladder)
102
What is the average length of the spleen?
10cm (up to 13cm is considered normal)
103
What are some common causes of splenomegaly?
```
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Infection
Portal hypertension from hepatitis/cirrhosis
Hematologic abnormalities
```
104
What is the most common adrenal mass?
Adenocarcinoma
105
What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?
Obstruction of cystic duct by gallstone
106
Acute infection of the gallbladder caused by gas-forming organisms is known as what?
Emphysematous cholecystitis
| Perforation is 5x more common than acute cholecystitis
107
Which segments of the liver are in the left lobe?
2, 3, 4
108
Which segments of the liver are in the right lobe?
5, 6, 7, 8
109
Typically which 2 lobes of the liver are posterior and not visible on the frontal view?
6 and 7
110
Wilson disease is the accumulation of what substance?
Copper
111
In which organs does the copper like to accumulate in Wilson disease?
Liver
Basal ganglia
Cornea
112
What is the most common cause of iron overload?
Hemochromatosis (genetic defect causing increased iron absorption)
113
In which system is the excess iron stored in those with hemochromatosis?
Reticuloendothelial system
114
What is secondary hemochromatosis?
Hepatic damage from iron overload after the rrerticuloendothelial system (RES) becomes saturated
115
What is the most common organism to cause an abscess in the liver?
E. coli
116
Echinococcus granulosus is endemic to which part of the world?
Mediterranean (associated with sheep-raising)
117
What are some causes of cirrhosis of the liver?
```
Alcoholism
Hemochromatosis
Wilson disease
Hepatitis B/C
Sclerosing cholangitis
```
118
Enlargement of which liver lobe is a specific sign of cirrhosis?
Caudate lobe
119
In the setting of cirrhosis, which malignancy is thought most likely develop?
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
120
What is the most common primary liver tumor?
hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
121
Alpha-feto protein is elevated in approximately what percentage of cases of HCC?
75%
122
What is the subtype of hepatocellular carcinoma that occurs in young patients without cirrhosis?
Fibrolamellar carcinoma
123
Hypervascular metastasis to the liver classically includes the following
```
Neuroendocrine tumors
Renal cell carcinoma
Thyroid carcinoma
Melanoma
Sarcoma
```
124
Hypovascular metastasis to the liver classically includes the following
Colorectal adenocarcinoma
| Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
125
Hepatic adenomas are associated with what kind of medication?
Prolonged oral contraceptive use in females
| Anabolic steroids use, typically seen in males
126
Hepatic adenomas have a relatively high risk of what complication?
Hemorrhage
| When discovered incidentally, they are typically resected
127
What measurement is considered greater than normal range for the wall of the gallbladder?
> 3mm
128
What modality is considered the best when it comes to gallstones?
Ultrasound
129
Complications of acute cholecystitis include the following
Gangrenous cholecystitis
Gallbladder perforation
Emphysematous cholecystitis
130
What is thought to be the cause of porcelain gallbladder?
Chronic cholecystitis
131
Porcelain gallbladder is associated with what kind of malignancy?
Gallbladder carcinoma
132
Descibre primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
Idiopathic inflammation and destruction of bile ducts
133
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is associated with what condition?
Ulcerative colitis
| Males > females
134
What is the difference between primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)?
Primary billiary cirrhosis (PBC) is inflammation and destruction of smaller bile ducts compared to PSC
135
What is the most common form of cholangiocarcinoma?
Klatskin tumor
136
Which malignancy as a propensity to metastasize to the gallbladder?
Melanoma
137
What makes up the majority of pancreatic neoplasms?
Ductal adenocarcinoma (80-90%)
138
What pancreatic neoplasm is associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
Gastrinoma
139
What is the age range of patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma?
> 60 years old
140
What are some risk factors associated with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma?
Smoking
Alcohol
Chronic pancreatitis
141
Where is the most common location for a ductal adenocarcinoma?
Pancreatic head
142
A rare, aggressive variant of pancreatic adenocarcinoma that is seen exclusively in elderly males is called what?
Acinar cell carcinoma
143
Acinar cell carcinoma produces a large amount of lipase that creates a clinical triad that consists of the following
Lipase hyper secretion syndrome:
Subcutaneous fat necrosis
Bone infarcts causing polyarthralgia
Eosinophilia
144
What is the most common pancreatic endocrine tumor?
Insulinoma
145
What is the 2nd most common pancreatic endocrine tumor?
Gastrinoma
146
What are the 2 types of neoplasms seen in the pancreas that are associated with von Hippel-Lindau?
Cystadenoma
| Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors
147
What is the most common cause of childhood pancreatic atrophy?
Cystic fibrosis
148
What causes an accessory spleen (aka splenule)?
Failure of embryological fusion of the splenic anlage
| Most common location: splenic hilum
149
Describe a wandering spleen
Normal spleen with abnormal laxity or absence of its fixed ligamentous attachments
150
What is the most common benign splenic neoplasm?
Hemangioma
151
Which 2 conditions are associated with splenic hemangiomas?
Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
| Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome
152
What is the most common presentation of the spleen in someone with sarcoidosis?
Splenomegaly
153
What is the most common splenic malignancy?
Splenic lymphoma
154
The most common primary malignancies known to metastasize to the spleen includes the following
Breast
Lung
Ovarian
Melanoma
155
Which abdominal organ is the most commonly injured from blunt force trauma?
Spleen
156
What is Barrett esophagus?
A long-term sequelae of peptic esophagitis that creates metaplasia of normal squamous epithelium to gastric-type adenomatous mucosa
157
What organism plays a major role in the cause of gastritis, gastric ulcers, and duodenal ulcers?
H. pylori
158
Which part of the stomach does Crohn disease affect?
Distal half the stomach
159
In what percentage of patients with scleroderma is there esophageal involvement?
80%
160
Describe the changes seen at the esophagus due to scleroderma
Lack of peristalsis at the distal 2/3 of esophagus
Smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis
Leads to marked esophageal dilation
161
What is the most common submucosal gastric tumor?
Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
162
Gastrointestinal stromal tumors may be malignant or benign, depending on what factor?
Size
| Malignant GISTs are generally larger
163
What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?
Adhesions from a previous surgery
164
Aside from adhesions caused by previous surgery, what are other common causes of small bowel obstruction?
Hernia
Neoplasm
Stricture
Intussusception
165
With closed-loop small bowel obstruction, what are some serious concerns?
Bowel ischemia
| Severe morbidity and mortality rates
166
What is the "small bowel feces" sign?
A loop of small bowel that demonstrates gas locals and particulate material
Often seen just proximal to transition point
167
What is the most common type of transmesenteric hernia?
Transmesocolic hernia
| Due to a defect in the transverse mesocolon
168
The Rigler's triad is associate with what?
Gallstone ileus
169
What are the findings associated with Rigler's triad?
Pneumobilia
Small bowel obstruction
Ectopic gallstone
170
What are some common complication of Crohn disease?
Bowel strictures
Fistuale
Abscesses
171
Ulcerative colitis typically begins where?
Rectum and spread proximally in a continual manner
172
Patients with ulcerative colitis have an increased risk for the following
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Colon cancer
Cholangiocarcinoma
173
Ulcerative colitis does not extend more proximally than which part of the bowel?
Does not extend more proximal than the cecum
174
What is characteristically seen in Peutz-Jeghers?
Multiple hamartomatous pedunculate polyps
| Usually in the small bowel
175
Describe Cowden syndrome?
Multiple hamartomatous polyps
| Most commonly found in skin and external mucous membranes and GI tract
176
What is the most common cause of acute abdomen?
Appendicitis
177
Describe epiploic appendigitis
Benign
| Clinical mimic of diverticulitis caused by torsion of a normal fatty tag (appendage) hanging from the colon
178
What is the most common small bowel tumor?
Gastrointestinal carcinoid
| Typically occurs at distal ileum
179
What is the most common primary retroperitoneal tumors?
Liposarcoma
180
Describe retroperitoneal fibrosis
Rare inflammatory disorder causing increased fibrotic deposition in the retroperitoneum
Often leads to ureteral obstruction
181
What is the most common type of adrenal cyst?
Endothelial adrenal cysts (45%)
182
What is the "rule of 10" associated with pheochromocytoma?
10% are extra-adrenal
10% are bilateral
10% are malignant
10% are familial or syndromic
183
Pheochromocytoma is associated with several syndromes, as follows
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN): typically bilateral and intra-adrenal
von Hippel-Lindau
Neurofibromatosis type I
Carney's triad
184
An extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma is known as what?
Paraganglioma
185
Where is the most common location for a paraganglioma?
Organ of Zuckerkandl
| Located at the aortic bifurcation in the abdomen
186
What subtype is the most common renal cell carcinoma?
Clear cell (75%)
187
Which subtype of renal cell carcinoma has the best prognosis?
Chromophobe (90% 5 year survival)
188
What is the most common benign renal neoplasm?
Angiomyolipoma (AML)
189
What a risk associated with angiomyolipoma (AML) of the kidneys?
Hemorrhage (especially if > 4cm)
190
What is the most common pattern of lymphoma at the kidneys?
Multiple lymphomatous masses (50%)
191
von Hippel-Lindau syndrome causes multiple _____ and _____ in multiple organs
Multiple cysts and neoplasms in multiple organs
192
Central nervous system manifestations of von Hippel-Lindau syndrome includes the following
Hemangioblastoma at the following locations:
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Spinal cord
193
What is the most common renal manifestation of tuberous sclerosis (TS)?
Multiple bilateral renal angiomyolipomas (AMLs)
| Renal cysts are seen in 25%
194
What is the most common cardiac manifestation of tuberous sclerosis (TS)?
Rhabdomyoma is the most common neoplasm
195
What is the classification system used for renal cysts?
Bosniak
196
Medullary nephrocalcinosis represents calcification of the renal _____
Renal medullary pyramids
197
The common causes of medullary nephrocalcinosis is as follows
Hypercalcemic state
Medullary sponge kidney
Renal tubular acidosis
Furosemide therapy in a child
198
Cortical nephrocalcinosis is dystrophic peripheral calcification of the _____
Renal cortex
199
Causes of cortical nephrocalcinosis includes the following
Acute cortical necrosis
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Chronic transplant rejection
200
Chronic renal failure develops in what percentage of patients with cortical necrosis?
50%
201
What is the most common ureteral neoplasm?
Transitional cell carcinoma
202
What is the most common benign ureteral mass?
Fibroepithelial polyp
203
What are differential diagnosis to consider when there is a ureteral filling defect?
Ureteral malignancy (transitional cell carcinoma is the most common)
Ureteral calculus
Blood clot
Malacoplakia
204
A focal dilation of the most distal portion of the ureter is called a _____
Ureterocele
205
What is the most common cause of bladder stones?
Urinary stasis (most commonly bladder outlet obstruction)
206
An off-midline bladder should raise concern for displacement of stone by _____
Bladder mass
Enlarged prostate
Stone within ureterocele
Stone within bladder diverticulum
207
The most common bladder cancer is _____
Transitional cell carcinoma
208
What is the most common site of malignancy in the urinary tract?
Bladder
209
What uncommon bladder carcinoma is associated with a tracheal remnant?
Bladder adenocarcinoma
210
Which organism is most commonly associated with urethral stricture?
Neisseria gonorrhea
211
Urethral diverticula are prone to develop _____ due to urinary stasis
Calculi
212
What is the most common benign tumor of the uterus?
Fibroid (aka leiomyoma)
| Affects up to 40% of reproductive-age women
213
What is the most common female gynecologic malignancy?
Endometrial carcinoma
214
Endometrial carcinoma typically presents with what kind of bleeding?
Post-menopausal bleeding
215
What is the third most common gynecological malignancy?
Cervical carcinoma
216
A bicornuate uterus is due to incomplete fusion of which structures?
Mullerian ducts
217
What is the most common benign ovarian neoplasm in young women?
Dermoid cyst (aka mature cystic teratoma)
218
Ovaries containing a dermoid cyst are predisposed to _____
Torsion
219
What is the second most common gynecological malignancy?
Ovarian cancer
