ITSM Flashcards
What kind of service is published to service owners that underpins a business or service application?
A. Application service
B. Business service
C. Technical service
D. Commerce service
C. Technical service
What is derived from a service and defines specific business needs and performance levels?
A. Child service
B. Offering
C. Commitment
D. Service metric definition
B. Offering
Which role has the ability to create a new CI class? (Select all that apply)
A. admin
B. itil_admin+itil
C. ecmdb_admin
D. app_admin
A. admin
B. itil_admin+itil
All technical configuration items extend from what table?
A. [cmdb]
B. [cmdb_ci]
C. [base_config]
D. [base_cmdb]
B. [cmdb_ci]
Non-technical configuration items extend from what table?
A. [cmdb]
B. [cmdb_ci]
C. [base_config]
D. [base_cmdb]
A. [cmdb]
What do you use to explore the hierarchy and table definitions at each level?
A. Table Explorer
B. CI Class Manager
C. Configuration > Base Items
D. Class Lookup Tool
B. CI Class Manager
What table stores CI relationship data?
A. Base Configuration [cmdb]
B. Configuration Item [cmdb_ci]
C. CI Relationship [cmdb_rel_ci]
D. Service [cmdb_ci_service]
C. CI Relationship [cmdb_rel_ci]
When importing a spreadsheet containing (business) services and servers, what three transform maps will be required to fully import the CI relationship data?
- Transform map to populate services in the Service [cmdb_ci_service] table.
- Transform map to populate servers in the Server [cmdb_ci_server] table.
- Transform map to populate the relationship between each service and server.
Which role has the ability to delete a configuration item (CI)? (Select all that apply)
A. admin
B. itil_admin+itil
C. ecmdb_admin
D. itil
A. admin
B. itil_admin+itil
D. itil
What plugins must be activated to use the CMDB Workspace? Choose 2
A. CMDB CSDM Support
B. CMDB - Business Process
C. CSDM Activation
D. CMDB CI Class Models
A. CMDB CSDM Support
C. CSDM Activation
By default, what is the maximum number of CI’s that a dynamic group can contain?
A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000
C. 10,000
CSDM is which of the following? (Select 5 that apply)
A. Standard terms and definitions
B. Best practice for CMDB Data Modeling and Data Management
C. Implementation/Process guide for ITSM, SPM, APM, etc.
D. Guidance on service modeling
E. Recommended mappings
F. People and process - NOT technology
G. Automatic fix for past mistakes
A. Standard terms and definitions
B. Best practice for CMDB Data Modeling and Data Management
D. Guidance on service modeling
E. Recommended mappings
F. People and process - NOT technology
What are the CSDM domains?
A. Foundation
B. Design
C. Build
D. Manage Technical Services
E. Sell/Consume
A. Foundation
B. Design
D. Manage Technical Services
E. Sell/Consume
Which CSDM domain only contains non-operational, developmental data that is not used in core ITSM applications such as Incident or Problem?
A. Foundation
B. Design
C. Build
D. Sell/Consume
C. Build
Note: This domain is really to bridge into DevOps
How many service offerings can a catalog item be related to?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. No limit
A. 1
What can you use to drive priority, assignments, and approvals for all ITSM processes?
A. CI Relationship
B. Business Service
C. CI meta data
D. Transform map
C. CI meta data
What are the stages in the Request Management process lifecycle?
- Submittal
- Approval
- Fulfillment
- Closure
Which Request stage notifies approvers of the request?
A. Submittal
B. Approval
C. Fulfillment
D. Closure
B. Approval
Which Request stage has the fulfiller complete a predefined series of tasks to fulfill each item in the order?
A. Submittal
B. Approval
C. Fulfillment
D. Closure
C. Fulfillment
Which Request stage closes the Request item automatically?
A. Submittal
B. Approval
C. Fulfillment
D. Closure
D. Closure
Which Request stage has the end user select one or more items from the service catalog?
A. Submittal
B. Approval
C. Fulfillment
D. Closure
A. Submittal
How can you identify tables associated with the service catalog?
A. They are prefixed with ‘sc_’
B. Lookup the tables in the System Definition with ‘service’ in the Label field
C. They are prefixed with ‘catalog_’
D. The name contains ‘sc_cat’
A. They are prefixed with ‘sc_’.
Which role has the ability to approve requests?
A. itil
B. catalog_manager
C. sn_request_write
D. approver_user
D. approver_user
Which role has the ability to delete request items?
A. catalog_admin
B. catalog_manager
C. itil_admin + itil
D. sn_request_write
C. itil_admin + itil
Which role has the ability to create or update the cart layout?
A. itil
B. catalog_admin
C. catalog_builder_editor
D. sn_request_read
B. catalog_admin
Which role does NOT have the ability to maintain categories and catalog definitions?
A. catalog_admin
B. catalog_builder_editor
C. catalog_manager
D. catalog_editor
B. catalog_builder_editor
T | F: Catalog items can only be added to the Employee Center individually
False
Catalog items can only be added to the Employee Center by category or individually.
T | F: The taxonomy for Service Catalog and Employee Center are separate as they organize content through different lenses for different personas.
True
It is recommended to create at least _______ catalog/s.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
B. two
Note: a customer-focused version and an IT-focused version.
What catalog would be for employees requesting services from IT?
A. Business Service Catalog
B. Technical Service Catalog
C. Product Catalog
D. Software Catalog
A. Business Service Catalog
What catalog would be for IT employees requesting more technical services from IT?
A. Business Service Catalog
B. Technical Service Catalog
C. Product Catalog
D. Software Catalog
B. Technical Service Catalog
What is important to consider when determining how many catalogs are needed? (Select 3 choices)
A. Hardware/software availability
B. Audience
C. Cost
D. Services and types of service
E. Administration delegation
F. Catalog definition
B. Audience
D. Services and types of service
E. Administration delegation
What allows users to save partially-completed requests?
A. Enable Continue Shopping
B. Enable Save Cart
C. Enable Save for Later
D. Enable Wish List
D. Enable Wish List
Which persona can edit catalog records, manage categories, and assign editors?
A. Editors
B. Managers
C. Users
D. Self-Service
B. Managers
Which persona can create, modify, and publish items within catalogs they are assigned to?
A. Editors
B. Managers
C. Users
D. Self-Service
A. Editors
T | F: Catalog categories may be nested.
True
Note: It is recommended that you keep the top-level categories to 8-10 and don’t go too deep, usually nesting no more than 1-2 levels.
What related lists can be added to apply user criteria to a catalog category? (Select 2)
A. Available for
B. Not Available for
C. Catalog items
D. Categories
A. Available for
B. Not Available for
What are the levels in the classification framework of the Service Catalog?
T1: Catalog Group (i.e. IT, HR, Finance)
T2: Category (i.e. Services, Hardware)
T3: Sub Category (i.e. Access, Laptops)
T4: Catalog Item (Orderable items - Good/Services)
Which catalog type should be used for “Report an outage”?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
B. Record producer
User criteria can be applied to which two components?
A. Service catalog
B. Catalog categories
C. Catalog items
D. Catalog homepage
B. Catalog categories
C. Catalog items
A Catalog UI Policy cannot be applied to which of the following?
A. Catalog item view
B. Catalog tasks
C. Requested items
D. Cart layout
D. Cart layout
A service level agreement can be applied to which of the following? Choose 2
A. Catalog (sc_catalog)
B. Request (REQ)
C. Catalog item (RITM)
D. Catalog task (SCTASK)
B. Request (REQ)
D. Catalog task (SCTASK)
The Incident Variable Editor is used to display variables on which of these records?
A. Incidents created via record producer
B. Incidents created via Now Mobile
C. Catalog items
D. Catalog tasks
A. Incidents created via record producer
A catalog item with no specific access controls is available to ____________.
A. all users
B. no users
C. itil users
D. catalog admins
A. all users
What provides a standard set of rules to ensure consistency in application of entitlement views of the catalog?
A. Filters
B. Roles
C. Groups
D. User criteria
D. User criteria
What can appear in service catalogs? (Select all that apply)
A. Incidents assigned to me
B. Catalog items
C. Surveys
D. Record producers
E. Dashboards
F. Order guides
G. Content items
B. Catalog items
D. Record producers
F. Order guides
G. Content items
Which catalog type should be used for “orderable” goods and services?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
Which catalog type should be used for requests that require approval?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
Which catalog type should be used for requests that have fulfillment tasks?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
Which catalog type should be used for requests that are not associated with other ITSM processes?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
What are the configurable items in the cart layout? (hint: there are 3)
- Cart widgets
- Preview screens
- Order status screens
On the cart layout, how can you enable additional cart options like “No cart” or “No quantity”?
Uncheck the ‘Use cart layout’ radio button in the Advanced view.
What editor is only used for record producers?
Default Variables Editor
What editor is for catalog items and catalog tasks?
VEditor
T | F: You cannot edit variables in Variable Editor (VEditor) for a page based on a table that extends the task table when you do not have write access on the variables column.
True
What enables you to create or edit a catalog item using a visual and guided experience along with specified restrictions?
A. VEditor
B. Default Variable Editor
C. Catalog Builder
D. Flow Designer
C. Catalog Builder
What are the Catalog Builder states?
Draft
Publishing
Published
When will a catalog item appear in the Draft state? (Select all that apply)
A. When it is created from a record producer
B. When it is created directly in the catalog builder
C. When an existing item has been checked out for editing in the Catalog Builder
D. Only before you initially save the catalog item
B. When it is created directly in the catalog builder
C. When an existing item has been checked out for editing in the Catalog Builder
What provides a user-friendly way to generate records within ServiceNow and gather relevant information from users to expedite handling of their request or issue?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
B. Record producer
T | F: Mapping to encrypted fields from a record producer is not supported.
False
Mapping to encrypted fields IS supported.
Variable editors are available for which tables?
A. Incident
B. Problem
C. Change
D. Knowledge
E. Interaction
A. Incident
B. Problem
C. Change
What can be added to a form view in lieu of creating unnecessary fields to map from the record producer?
A. Business rule
B. Variables editor
C. Client script
D. UI policy
B. Variables editor
What combine multiple catalog items into a single request while minimizing the need to repeat common information on each item form?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
A. Order guide
Which catalog type should be used to onboard a new employee?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
A. Order guide
On the order guide form, what field must be checked to pass variables in the initial order to their equivalent on additional items?
A. Active
B. Expand help for all questions
C. Cascade variables
D. Two step
C. Cascade variables
Which catalog type provides information instead of goods or services?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
C. Content item
Which catalog type should be used to provide a link to a knowledge base article?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
C. Content item
Which catalog type should be used to provide a link to catalog content?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
C. Content item
Which catalog type should be used to provision a database?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
Which catalog type should be used to order a new laptop?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
Which catalog type should be used to ask a question?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
B. Record producer
Which catalog type should be used to reserve a conference room?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
D. Catalog item
Which catalog type should be used to propose a new standard change template?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
B. Record producer
As of the __________ release, every month, the system deletes Flow Designer-related entries from the Variables [var_dictionary] table if they haven’t been used for over a year.
A. New York
B. Paris
C. Quebec
D. Rome
Rome
T | F: In the Service Portal, widgets should be used instead of Macros and Macros with labels.
True
What control the behavior of catalog item forms when presented to the users?
Catalog UI Policies
Note: Catalog UI policies can be applied to variables and variable sets.
T | F: g_scratchpad can be used on catalog items.
False
g_scratchpad CANNOT be used on catalog items.
What run client-side to control the behavior of catalog items when presented to users?
A. Business rules
B. UI Actions
C. Script includes
D. Catalog client scripts
D. Catalog client scripts
What are the three different types of catalog client scripts?
onLoad
onChange
onSubmit
On a catalog item, what can be used to validate content or dynamically populate fields?
A. Catalog client scripts
B. Catalog UI policies
C. Catalog script includes
D. Assigned topics
A. Catalog client scripts
When using the Catalog Builder to create or maintain a catalog item, the process engine is selected from the _____________ tab.
A. Settings
B. Access
C. Fulfillment
D. Details
C. Fulfillment
Within a Step based request fulfillment, what types of steps are available? (Select 3 that apply)
A. Task
B. Custom approval
C. Manager approval
D. Action
A. Task
B. Custom approval
C. Manager approval
What includes a number of widgets and reports to help users manage the request management process?
A. Service Catalog Overview dashboard
B. Operations dashboard
C. Change Overview dashboard
D. ServiceNow Store Usage Overview dashboard
A. Service Catalog Overview dashboard
T | F: Service catalog item variables cannot be reported on.
False
Service catalog item variables are available for inclusion in filters, list layouts, and reports.
What table are the knowledge bases stored on?
A. [kb_knowledge_base]
B. [kb_knowledge]
C. [knowledge]
D. [kb_uc_can_read_mtom]
A. [kb_knowledge_base]
What table contains knowledge articles?
A. [kb_knowledge_base]
B. [kb_knowledge]
C. [knowledge]
D. [kb_uc_can_read_mtom]
B. [kb_knowledge]
What facilitates the publishing and retirement processes and are set at the knowledge base level?
A. Access controls
B. Client scripts
C. Workflows
D. Background scripts
C. Workflows
What controls who can read and who can contribute to knowledge bases?
A. Workflows
B. UI policy
C. Group manager
D. User Criteria
D. User Criteria
T | F: A single article may not be associated with multiple knowledge bases.
True
When is the Knowledge Version [kb_version] added to the knowledge management module?
A. Included in the baseline
B. When the Knowledge Management - Advanced Installer plugin is enabled
C. When the Knowledge Blocks plugin is enabled
D. When the Knowledge Document plugin is enabled
B. When the Knowledge Management - Advanced Installer plugin is enabled
Which role has the ability to delete a knowledge base?
A. admin
B. knowledge_admin
C. knowledge_manager
D. A knowledge base cannot be deleted
D. A knowledge base cannot be deleted
What happens if there are no user criteria records assigned on the Can Read related list of a knowledge base?
A. The knowledge base is open to the public
B. Only knowledge base managers and owner have access
C. The knowledge base will become inactive
D. The knowledge base will be available to itil users
A. The knowledge base is open to the public
What is mandatory to select when importing Microsoft Word documents as knowledge articles?
A. Publish
B. Category
C. Short Description
D. Knowledge Base
D. Knowledge Base
What happens if you select Publish when creating knowledge articles manually or by import?
A. The articles are sent for review
B. The articles are automatically moved to a Published state
C. The articles are sent for approval/s
D. It triggers the publish workflow assigned to the knowledge base
D. It triggers the publish workflow assigned to the knowledge base
Which table tracks articles that have been “attached” to incidents as well as when articles have been viewed?
A. [kb_knowledge]
B. [kb_keyword]
C. [kb_use]
D. [kb_attachments]
C. [kb_use]
Since the ________ release, the Knowledge Management Service Portal plugin is active by default.
A. Madrid
B. New York
C. Rome
D. San Diego
Madrid
T | F: The Mobile Agent app allows you to search knowledge articles.
False
The Now Mobile app allows you to search knowledge articles.
Where do knowledge bases have to be added in order for them to be viewed from the Now Mobile application?
The knowledge base/s has to be added to the Mobile Employee Service Portal.
Now Mobile App > Knowledge Bases
T | F: For a streamlined experience for Employee Center users, you can integrate knowledge base categories to Employee Center taxonomies.
True
What additional roles become available when you enable the Knowledge Management KCS Capabilities plugin?
kcs_contributor
kcs_publisher
kcs_candidate
T | F: Users are automatically assigned the security roles required to manage a knowledge base when they are assigned to the Owner and Manager fields.
True
Which script includes contains the business logic for workflows that publish knowledge articles, retire articles, and determine approvers?
A. KBViewModelSNC
B. KBUsageMetricsSNC
C. KBKnowledgeBaseSNC
D. KBWorkflowSNC
D. KBWorkflowSNC
What table tracks every query users enter into the knowledge search?
Knowledge Searches [ts_query_kb]
What are the two available knowledge article types? Select 2 Answers from the below options.
A. Wiki
B. Plain text
C. HTML
D. CSS
A. Wiki
C. HTML
In the base platform configuration, what automatically happens to an incident in a Resolved state after 7 days?
A. The incident is automatically moved to a Closed state
B. A notification is sent to the Assignment Group manager requesting review of the incident record
C. A notification is sent to the Assigned to user requested review of the incident record
D. A post incident report is automatically created
A. The incident is automatically moved to a Closed state
What is the table that stores incident records?
[incident]
The Incident Task table is an extension of what table?
A. Incident [incident]
B. Task [task]
C. Problem [problem]
D. Offering [service_offering]
B. Task [task]
Where is the Incident priority matrix configured?
A. Incident Properties module
B. Priority Data Lookup table
C. Incident Priority action script
D. Incident Priority UI policy
B. Priority Data Lookup table
What is the default time for incidents in a Resolved state to automatically move to the Closed state?
A. 1 Day
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 30 days
C. 7 days
When do SLA Percentage timers automatically trigger Breach Warning notifications?
A. 25% duration
B. 50% duration
C. 75% duration
D. 90% duration
B. 50% duration
C. 75% duration
The Incident Variable Editor is used to display variables on which of these records?
A. Incidents created via record producer
B. Incidents created via Now Mobile
C. Catalog items
D. Catalog tasks
A. Incidents created via record producer
What functionality copies the details of an existing incident record to a new incident record?
Copy Incident
Where do you define the list of attributes that will be copied to an incident from the originating incident?
Incident Properties module
What functionality copies the details of the parent incident and links the new incident to the parent incident?
Create Child Incident
If an ITIL user reopens a parent incident, what happens to the child incident/s?
A. They are reopened and set to ‘New’.
B. They are reopened and set to ‘In Progress’
C. The are reopened and set to ‘on Hold’.
D. They remain in a ‘Resolved’ state and must be reopened manually.
B. They are reopened and set to ‘In Progress’
If an ESS user reopens a parent incident, what happens to the child incident/s?
A. The parent and child incidents are reopened and set to ‘New’.
B. The parent and child incidents are reopened and set to ‘In Progress’
C. The parent and child incidents are reopened and set to ‘on Hold’.
D. The parent is set to ‘In Progress’, but the child incidents are not reopened.
D. The parent is set to ‘In Progress’, but the child incidents are not reopened.
Where can Administrators enable/disable the ability to copy incidents or create child incidents?
Incident Properties module
Incident > Administration > Incident Properties
T | F: An itil user can copy or create any incident whereas a user without any role may only copy the incident the user has created.
True
What provide a user-friendly way to generate records within ServiceNow and gather relevant information from users to expedite handling of their request of issue?
Record producers
In the baseline, what changes the caller’s name to red to flag them as a VIP user?
A. Highlight VIP Caller client script
B. Highlight VIP Caller UI policy
C. Set VIP Caller business rule
D. Set VIP Flag script includes
A. Highlight VIP Caller client script
How can you add columns to the Caller Lookup Select Box?
A. Add ref_ac_column attributes from the dictionary entry
B. Configure a related list
C. Configure the caller_id label
D. Add attributes to sys_popup view
A. Add ref_ac_column attributes from the dictionary entry
What are the reference icons next to fields that allow you to preview the related record called?
Reference Decorations
The reference decoration icon is controlled by what attribute?
A. ref_ac_column
B. show_icon
C. ref_contributions
D. click_through
C. ref_contributions
T | F: ref_contribution icons will not be displayed when a field is read-only unless the clickthrough=false attribute is added to the field’s Dictionary entry.
False
The clickthrough=true attribute has to be added to the Dictionary entry.
What table view configures the fields in the pop-up form that appear when you click on a reference icon?
A. sys_lookup
B. sys_reference
C. sys_details
D. sys_popup
D. sys_popup
How do you modify the content tracked in all Incident activity streams?
Click on the filter icon next to the Activity field.
Choices are stored on the _____________ table.
Choice [sys_choice]
What system property specifies the field where a knowledge article can be linked within the Incident?
A. glide.knowman.default
B. glide.knowman.attach.fields
C. glide.knowman.columns
D. glide.knowman.instant_results
B. glide.knowman.attach.fields
Where can administrators configure the properties of contextual search?
Table Configurations module
Contextual Search > Table Configurations
What is an incident that results in significant disruption to the business and demands a response beyond the routine incident management process?
Major incident
What allows you to accelerate resolution of incidents with high business impact by managing all aspects of a major incident, including communication and collaboration processes?
Major Incident Management (MIM)
What plugin must be activated to leverage Major Incident Management functionality?
Incident Management - Major Incident Management (com.snc.incident.mim)
What plugins are activated by the Incident Management - Major Incident Management plugin if they’re not already activated?
- Incident Communications Management (com.snc.iam)
- Incident Updates (com.snc.incident.updates)
- Task-Outage Relationship (com.snc.task_outage)
What roles are installed with the Incident Management - Major Incident Management plugin?
- major_incident_manager
- communications_manager
- incident_manager (added responsibilities)
What automatically populates the assignment group on the Incident, based on the CI or Service Offering?
A. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO business rule
B. Populate Assignment Group UI policy
C. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO script includes
D. CI/SO Set Assignment group client script
A. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO business rule
To configure a different field on the CI to automatically populate the assignment group on the Incident form, you must create a new system property called:
A. com.snc.problem.assignment_group.field_name
B. com.snc.problem.ci_assignment_group.field_name
C. com.snc.incident.service_offering_assignment_group.field_name
D. com.snc.incident.ci_assignment_group.field_name
D. com.snc.incident.ci_assignment_group.field_name
Although more can be configured, what are the group types available in the baseline?
Catalog
Itil
Survey
T | F: When it comes to notifications, it is good practice to under-communicate vs. over-communicate
True
What plugin activates the email client on the Now Platform?
Email Client plugin (com.glide.email_client)
T | F: The email client is enabled by default on incident, change, and problem.
False
By default, the email client is enabled on incident and change. It could be added by adding the ‘email_client’ dictionary attribute on the table’s collection record
What are the ways you can define system responses to inbound emails?
- Create an inbound email flow in Flow Designer (new in New York)
- Script an inbound email action
T | F: Inbound email flows take priority over inbound email actions.
True
What system property must be enabled to close incident tasks when the incident is closed or cancelled?
A. com.snc.incident.incident_task.closure
B. com.snc.incidentTask.closeThemTasks
C. com.snc.incident.task.taskClosure
D. com.snc.incident.incident_task.close_tasks
A. com.snc.incident.incident_task.closure
What plugins allow you to create knowledge articles from (resolved) incident record?
- Knowledge Management Advanced
- KCS Integration for Incident Management
T | F: Enabling auto-closure of Incidents is based on the resolution date instead of the last updated date.
True
What role is needed to create and maintain surveys?
A. sn_survey_keeper
B. sn_survey_manager
C. survey_user
D. survey_admin
D. survey_admin
What is the configurable workspace that provides a unified experience for multiple IT Service Management workflows?
Service Operations Workspace (SOW)*
This feature is new in the San Diego release.
What role is needed to access the Service Operations Workspace?
sow_user [sn_sow.sow_user]
How do you enable the Service Operations Workspace?
Activate the Service Operations Workspace plugin in the ServiceNow store.
What resolution code is automatically set for child incidents when the parent incident is resolved?
A. Solved (Work Around)
B. Solved (Permanently)
C. It matches the parent record
D. It is not set
C. It matches the parent record
What are the baseline ‘On Hold’ reasons on the Incident form?
Awaiting Caller
Awaiting Change
Awaiting Problem
Awaiting Vendor
What incident form view is displayed to the end-users?
A. Default
B. Mobile
C. Self Service
D. Metrics
C. Self Service
What incident form view is displayed to agents?
A. Default
B. Mobile
C. Self Service
D. Metrics
A. Default
What are the stages in the Incident lifecycle (Select all that apply)?
A. Resolution and Closure
B. Identification and Creation
C. Creation and Classification
D. Investigation and Diagnosis
A. Resolution and Closure
C. Creation and Classification
D. Investigation and Diagnosis
At what stage in the Incident lifecycle would you define and classify incident details?
A. Resolution and Closure
B. Identification and Creation
C. Creation and Classification
D. Investigation and Diagnosis
C. Creation and Classification
At what stage in the Incident lifecycle would you communicate the resolution to the end user?
A. Resolution and Closure
B. Identification and Creation
C. Creation and Classification
D. Investigation and Diagnosis
A. Resolution and Closure
At what stage in the Incident lifecycle would you monitor progress of the incident resolution?
A. Resolution and Closure
B. Identification and Creation
C. Creation and Classification
D. Investigation and Diagnosis
D. Investigation and Diagnosis
Which of the following automatically happens when the conditions of an active major incident trigger rule are met?
A. A major incident record is created.
B. A major incident candidate is proposed.
C. An e-mail notification is sent to the Service Desk
D. An outage record is created.
B. A major incident candidate is proposed.
Within MIM, what are the defined conditions that will automatically trigger a workflow when conditions are met?
On-call trigger rule
What can be set up to auto-assign all new Hardware category Incidents to a certain group? (Select 3 answers)
A. UI action
B. Business rule
C. Data lookup rule
D. Assignment rule
E. Access control
B. Business rule
C. Data lookup rule
D. Assignment rule
What type of relationship is recommended between Incident and SLA tables to report on incidents resolved by SLA per incident category?
A. Many-to-many (M2M)
B. Extensions
C. Database view
D. One-to-many
C. Database view
What role is required to create record producers to log incidents directly from the Service Catalogue?
A. incident_manager
B. itil_admin
C. catalog_item_designer
D. catalog_admin
D. catalog_admin
What application can you use to deliver solution definitions for incident and major incident management?
A. Performance Analytics
B. Predictive Intelligence
C. Virtual Agent
D. Search Analytics
B. Predictive Intelligence
What table stores problem records?
Problem [problem]
The Problem Task [problem_task] table is an extension of what table?
A. Task [task]
B. Problem [problem]
C. Change [change]
D. Location [cmn_location]
A. Task [task]
What are the stages in the Problem Management lifecycle (Select all that apply)?
A. Investigation and diagnosis
B. Detection and logging
C. Resolution and closure
D. Identification and classification
A. Investigation and diagnosis
B. Detection and logging
C. Resolution and closure
At what stage in the Problem Management lifecycle would you implement the change to permanently remove the root cause?
A. Investigation and diagnosis
B. Detection and logging
C. Resolution and closure
D. Identification and classification
C. Resolution and closure
At what stage in the Problem Management lifecycle would you create a known error document?
A. Investigation and diagnosis
B. Detection and logging
C. Resolution and closure
D. Identification and classification
A. Investigation and diagnosis
At what stage in the Problem Management lifecycle would you prioritize and categorize the problem?
A. Investigation and diagnosis
B. Detection and logging
C. Resolution and closure
D. Identification and classification
B. Detection and logging
What defines when a problem record can automatically move from the New to Assess state?
A. Problem state UI action
B. ProblemUtils script include
C. Update Problem State to Assess business rule
D. Problem state UI policy
C. Update Problem State to Assess business rule
Which property do you have to modify in order to add or remove fields copied from the Incident to the Problem?
A. com.snc.problem.add_remove.attributes
B. com.snc.problem.create_from_incident.attributes
C. com.snc.incident.create_problem.attributes
D. com.snc.problem.create_from_incident.fields
B. com.snc.problem.create_from_incident.attributes
In the baseline, what assignment groups are displayed in the Assignment group field on the Problem form?
A. groups with the itil role
B. groups with the problem_user role
C. all assignment groups
D. problem doesn’t have an assignment group field
A. groups with the itil role
After setting the assignment group on the Problem form, what would cause there to be no available employees in the Assigned to field?
None of the users in the assignment group have the [problem_coordinator] role
After setting the assignment group on the Problem Task form, what would cause there to be no available employees in the Assigned to field?
None of the users in the assignment group have the [problem_task_analyst] role.
If the Support group field on the ______________ is not populated, then the assignment group (incident, problem, or change) will be automatically populated from the Support group field from the _______________.
A. Configuration Item (CI), Service Offering
B. Configuration Item (CI), Business Service
C. Business Service, Technical Service.
D. Service Offering, Configuration Item (CI)
A. Configuration Item (CI), Service Offering
What copies the Support group from the CI or Service Offering to the Problem?
A. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO UI action
B. ProblemUtils script include
C. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO business rule
D. Problem Assignment group UI policy
C. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO business rule
If you want to impose prerequisites or limits for moving from one state to another on the Problem record, you can incorporate logic in the _______________?
A. Problem state UI action
B. ProblemUtils script include
C. Update Problem State to Assess business rule
D. Problem state UI policy
B. ProblemUtils script include
T | F: If referring to states in code, it is best practice to use the value rather than the constant
False
It is best practice to use the CONSTANT rather than the value.
Problem tasks cannot be cancelled at the __________ state.
A. New
B. Assess
C. Work in Progress
D. On Hold
A. New
**They can only be deleted by an Admin if they have been created unnecessarily.
To impose prerequisites or limits for moving from one state to another on the Problem Task, incorporate new logic in the ________________ script includes.
A. ProblemMigrationHelperUtils
B. ProblemV2Util
C. RelateClosedIncidentsToProblem
D. ProblemTaskStateUtils
D. ProblemTaskStateUtils
When a problem task record is in the New state and is saved or edited, what moves the problem task from the New to Assess state?
A. Check if problem task can be created business rule
B. Update Problem Task State to Assess business rule
C. Update Started fields business rule
D. Update re-assess (reopen) fields business rule
B. Update Problem Task State to Assess business rule
By default, what fields are required to move a Problem or Problem Task from New to Assess? (choose 2 options)
A.- State
B.- Assigned to
C.- Assignment group
D.- Category
A.- State
B.- Assigned to
What are the types of Problem tasks? (Select 2)
A. Root Cause Analysis
B. Normal
C. Emergency
D. General
A. Root Cause Analysis
D. General
What is used to copy the problem workaround to related incidents?
A. Copy Workaround business rule
B. Transfer Workaround script includes
C. Populate Related Incidents business rule
D. Communicate Workaround UI action
D. Communicate Workaround UI action
When is the Problem workaround copied to the Additional Comments field of any related incident?
A. Always
B. When the resolution code of the Incident is Known Error
C. When the Incident is in an active state
D. When the Incident is in an On hold state
B. When the resolution code of the Incident is Known Error
T | F: The Communicate Workaround UI action will not appear until text is saved to the Workaround field.
True
What causes the delay in between the time you communicate the workaround to when it populates the related incidents?
A. Slow-running system scripts
B. The process uses an event, which takes a few seconds to be processed
C. Limited bandwidth
D. You have to wait for the scheduled job to run
B. The process uses an event, which takes a few seconds to be processed
What copies the text from the Fix notes field of the problem record to associated incidents?
A. Attach Communication Plans business rule
B. Make Problem State Readonly client script
C. Communicate Fix UI action
D. Resolve Related Incidents UI policy
C. Communicate Fix UI action
By default, when you use the Communicate Fix UI action, the fix notes get copied to Incidents that are in what states? (Select 3)
A. New
B. In progress
C. On hold
D. Resolved
E. Canceled
F. Closed
G. Pending Problem
A. New
B. In progress
C. On hold
What script action does the Communicate Fix UI action call?
A. Copy Prb to Inc work notes
B. Communicate Prb to Inc
C. Copy Problem Fix
D. Transfer prb fix
A. Copy Prb to Inc work notes
What plugins must be active so that a user can create a knowledge article from the Problem?
- Problem Management Best Practice - Madrid
- Problem Management Best Practice - Madrid - Knowledge Integration
What table stores Known Error articles?
A. [knowledge]
B. [kb_template_known_error_article]
C. [knowledge_known_error]
D. [problem_known_error_article]
B. [kb_template_known_error_article]
What maps fields between the problem and knowledge article?
A. Transform map
B. CSM table map
C. Problem Field Mapping business rule
D. Import set
B. CSM table map
What State the problem record returns to when you click on the ‘Re-Analyze’ UI action?
A. Root Cause Analysis
B. New
C. Assess
D. Fix in Progress
A. Root Cause Analysis
Which fields are mandatory when you click ‘Accept Risk’ on a problem record? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Cause notes
B. Work notes
C. Close notes
D. Risk accepted reason
A. Cause notes
D. Risk accepted reason
What table stores change request records?
A. [change]
B. [change_request]
C. [ch_ch_changes]
D. [change_task]
B. [change_request]
What are the four stages in the Change process lifecycle?
- Creation and scope
- Approval
- Implementation
- Closure
At what stage in the change process lifecycle would you define scope, schedule, and classify change details?
A. Creation and scope
B. Approval
C. Implementation
D. Closure
A. Creation and scope
At what stage in the change process lifecycle would you create manual change tasks?
A. Creation and scope
B. Approval
C. Implementation
D. Closure
A. Creation and scope
At what stage in the change process lifecycle would changes be pre-approved or move through a series of reviews and approvals?
A. Creation and scope
B. Approval
C. Implementation
D. Closure
B. Approval
At what stage in the change process lifecycle would you complete assigned tasks?
A. Creation and scope
B. Approval
C. Implementation
D. Closure
C. Implementation
At what stage in the change process lifecycle would you complete a post implementation review (PIR)?
A. Creation and scope
B. Approval
C. Implementation
D. Closure
D. Closure
What allows change managers to tailor change activities and flows for specific use cases in an easy and convenient way?
A. Multimodal change
B. Change Advisory Board (CAB)
C. Agent Workspace
D. CAB Workbench
A. Multimodal change
What is defined within an individual change model? (Select all that apply)
A. State purpose
B. State of mind
C. State model
D. State transitions
E. State limitation/s
F. State transition conditions
C. State model
D. State transitions
F. State transition conditions
What plugin enables the 7 change models that are available by default?
A. Change Management - Change Model Foundation Data
B. Change Management - Quebec - Change Models
C. Change Management - San Diego - Enable Addition Change Models
D. Change Management - Mo’ Models, Mo’ Problems
A. Change Management - Change Model Foundation Data
What change model is used to capture Change requests in an external system and there are no approvals associated?
A. Change Registration
B. Cloud Infrastructure
C. Site Reliability Ops
D. Unauthorized Change
A. Change Registration
What change model is used for Change requests that commission and decommission Cloud infrastructure services?
A. Change Registration
B. Cloud Infrastructure
C. Site Reliability Ops
D. Unauthorized Change
B. Cloud Infrastructure
What change model is used for site reliability operations?
A. Change Registration
B. Cloud Infrastructure
C. Site Reliability Ops
D. Unauthorized Change
C. Site Reliability Ops
What change model is used for Change requests that are created from the unauthorized change events?
A. Change Registration
B. Cloud Infrastructure
C. Site Reliability Ops
D. Unauthorized Change
D. Unauthorized Change
______________ is optimized for areas that are more predictable and well-understood. It focuses on exploiting what is known, while renovating the legacy environment into a state that is fit for a digital world.
A. Mode 1
B. Mode 2
C. Mode 3
D. Mode 4
A. Mode 1
______________ is exploratory, experimenting to solve new problems and optimized for areas of uncertainty.
A. Mode 1
B. Mode 2
C. Mode 3
D. Mode 4
B. Mode 2
A ___________ is a list of states that describe an expected record workflow through the lifecycle of the record.
State model
_____________ are a list of conditions for entering or exiting each state defined for a table.
State transitions
Where can you enable or disable the unauthorized change capability and configure the criteria for additional unauthorized change properties?
A. Unauthorized Change Properties page
B. In the system properties
C. In the Change UI policies
D. Change Configuration Properties page
A. Unauthorized Change Properties page
What happens when an unplanned CI activity occurs on CIs that are part of an application service?
A. The change is captured to review the impact and for approval to be requested.
B. A standard change is created.
C. A normal change is created and automatically moved to the Authorize state.
D. The authorities are notified.
A. The change is captured to review the impact and for approval to be requested.
_____________ specify times during which normal change activity should not be scheduled
Blackout windows
_____________ specify times during which change requests should be scheduled.
Maintenance windows
T | F: Blackout and Maintenance schedules can be applied to individual CIs, CI classes, or dynamic CI groups.
True
What identifies potential scheduling conflicts for a change request based on the configuration items (CIs), planned start date, and the planned end date in scope for the change?
Conflict detection
What aims to help change initiators remove conflicts on their change request by suggesting an alternative target deployment window?
Scheduling assistant
When will the scheduling assistant provide actionable feedback? (Select all that apply)
A. There are no common windows found between related maintenance schedules
B. The change start and end dates are within an available maintenance window
C. Blackout windows overlap with available maintenance windows
D. The change start and end date are not far enough apart
E. The duration of the change request exceeds the available maintenance window time
A. There are no common windows found between related maintenance schedules
C. Blackout windows overlap with available maintenance windows
E. The duration of the change request exceeds the available maintenance window time
The unauthorized change process will only trigger if the CI is part of what?
A. Application service
B. Business service
C. Business product
D. Technical service
A. Application service
What role can create and modify a change model?
A. itil_admin
B. change_admin
C. change_manager
D. sn_change_model_manager
C. change_manager
What defines the requirements for a change model to move from one state to another?
A. Business rules
B. Transition conditions
C. Lifecycle model requirements
D. Change update script
B. Transition conditions
T | F: Risk is set to the lowest risk value based upon matching conditions.
False
Risk is set to the HIGHEST risk value based upon matching conditions.
Risk is assessed based on the _______________.
A. Impact and Urgency
B. Assignment group
C. Risk conditions
D. Prestige of the CI
C. Risk conditions
__________________ uses predefined properties and conditions to calculate a risk value.
A. Change Risk Calculator
B. Change Management - Risk Assessment
C. Change Risk Analysis
D. Change Risk Assessment flow
A. Change Risk Calculator
_________________ uses information provided by the end user to assess a risk value.
A. glide.ui.risk_calculate_rule
What allows you to enable risk assessment surveys?
A. Risk conditions
B. A configurable client script
C. Change Management - Risk Assessment plugin
D. UI Macro
C. Change Management - Risk Assessment plugin
Risk conditions may set the _______ and ________ fields.
A. priority, impact
B. impact, urgency
C. priority, service offering
D. risk, impact
D. risk, impact
Use the ____________________ to create and edit metric types, use different metric types for different risks, select multiple respondents for a risk assessment, as well as change scoring parameters.
A. Workflow editor
B. App Engine Studio
C. Flow Designer
D. Risk Assessment Designer
D. Risk Assessment Designer
A change approval policy consists of what three components? (Select all that apply)
A. On-Call scheduling
B. CAB Workbench
C. Policy inputs
D. Decisions
E. Approval definitions
C. Policy inputs
D. Decisions
E. Approval definitions
Within a change approval policy, what are the variable sources evaluated within the condition defined on a decision?
A. Policy inputs
B. Decisions
C. Approval definitions
A. Policy inputs
Within a change approval policy, what, based on the conditions, determines whether the associated Change approval definition applies?
A. Policy inputs
B. Decisions
C. Approval definitions
D. Change model/s
B. Decisions
Within a change approval policy, what defines the type of approval that can applied?
A. Policy inputs
B. Decisions
C. Approval definitions
D. Change rules
C. Approval definitions
What is a course of action that can be applied to a change request and defines the approvals that should be applied to a change request?
Change approval policy
What define a set of criteria that are evaluated automatically before the policy is marked as approved?
Approval definitions
What are variable sources that you can use while evaluating a decision to determine the approval action?
Policy inputs
T | F: By default, the change_request policy input of type Reference is not available for all change types
False
The change_request policy input of type Reference IS available for all change types, by default.
___________ allow authorized users to quickly define approval process using conditions.
A. Policy Inputs
B. Approval definitions
C. Decisions
D. Scopes
C. Decisions
T | F: An approval policy can contain MULTIPLE decisions allowing a single policy to handle every approval required for a change model (type).
True
When were flows introduced in Change Management?
A. New York
B. Quebec
C. Rome
D. San Diego
B. Quebec
Note: Users on previous release instances will leverage Workflow and Workflow Editor.
When was the ability to add standard change proposals to a CAB Agenda introduced in ServiceNow?
A. New York
B. Quebec
C. Rome
D. San Diego
C. Rome
T | F: The Change Management - CAB Workbench application is enabled by default.
True
What does the CAB Workbench allows change managers to do? (Select all that apply)
A. Schedule a series of CAB meetings
B. Manage meeting invitations and track meeting attendance
C. Define CAB meeting agendas
D. View change calendar
E. Approve or reject changes
F. Approve or reject standard change proposals
G. Review and take meeting notes
All of them apply! :)
T | F: Manual change tasks should be created during or after the Assess or Authorize states.
False
Change tasks should be manually before entering the Assess or Authorize states so the specific change tasks involved may be incorporated into the review process.
What are the available Change task types?
- Planning
- Implementation
- Testing
- Review
A change task for Post Implementation Review is automatically created when an unauthorized, emergency change request record moves to a state of _________.
A. Assess
B. Authorize
C. Implement
D. Review
D. Review
T | F: In the baseline, there is no functionality or fields defined for Post-Implementation Review (PIR).
True
Which release phase defines the specific plans for the release and supporting the fulfillment of required change requests?
A. Release planning
B. Release definition
C. Approval
D. Build and Test
A. Release planning
What encompasses the planning, design, build, configuration, and testing of hardware and software releases to create a defined set of release components?
Release Management
This activity defines the specific plans for the release that are agreeable to all relevant stakeholders and supports the fulfillment of the involved changes of the release.
Release planning
Which release phase starts with the authorization to build the release and end with change management authorization for the release package to be checked into the DML through the Configuration Management process.?
A. Release planning
B. Release definition
C. Approval
D. Build and Test
D. Build and Test
These activities begin with the authorization to deploy the release package to one or more target environments and ends with the handover to service operations and early life support.
Deployment
This marks the conclusion of the Release Management process, which includes a formal review of the deployment activities from start to finish, including the final status of the release control.
Review and Close
The Release Management tables are direct extensions of which table?
A. Task [task]
B. Planned Task [planned_task]
C. Release [sn_release]
D. Release Management [release_management]
B. Planned Task [planned_task]
Note: The RM tables are a direct child to the [planned_task] table, which itself is a direct child to the [task] table. This allows the release tables to use all the functionality specific to the Task table, as well as the standard time-related functionality provided by Planned Task.
What introduced increased flexibility into the Release Management table structure?
Release Management v2 plugin
Conflict detection in change management can identify conflicts from which of the following reasons? (select 3)
A. The change schedule is during blackout periods
B. The CI is not in the maintenance window
C. Existing scheduled changes to the CI
D. The change scheduled is outside of business hours
E. The changes schedule does not give appropriate lead time
A. The change schedule is during blackout periods
B. The CI is not in the maintenance window
C. Existing scheduled changes to the CI
How do you increase change efficiency without compromising stability or compliance in the change process?
A. Manually update the change records
B. Create new change types
C. Build M2M tables with other records
D. Build and customize change models
D. Build and customize change models
What plugin allows you to gain more control over the access that different change agents, technicians, and managers have within your Change Management process?
ITSM Roles — Change Management plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles.change_management)
When you request the ITSM Roles plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles), it will activate the ITSM Roles — Change Management plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles.change_management)
What roles are installed when you activate the ITSM Roles — Change Management plugin?
Change read [sn_change_read]
Change write [sn_change_write]
Which catalog item type should be used for “Report an outage”?
A. Order guide
B. Record producer
C. Content item
D. Catalog item
B. Record producer
User criteria can be applied to which two components?
A. Service catalog
B. Catalog categories
C. Catalog items
D. Catalog homepage
B. Catalog categories
C. Catalog items
A Catalog UI Policy cannot be applied to which of the following?
A. Catalog item view
B. Catalog tasks
C. Requested items
D. Cart layout
D. Cart layout
The Incident Variable Editor is used to display variables on which of these records?
A. Incidents created via record producer
B. Incidents created via Now Mobile
C. Catalog items
D. Catalog tasks
A. Incidents created via record producer
Which role has the ability to delete a knowledge base?
A. admin
B. knowledge_admin
C. knowledge_manager
D. A knowledge base cannot be deleted
D. A knowledge base cannot be deleted
What happens if are no user criteria records assigned on the Can Read related list of a knowledge base?
A. The knowledge base is open to the public
B. Only knowledge base managers and owners have access
C. The knowledge base will become inactive
A. The knowledge base is open to the public
Where is the incident priority matrix configuration?
A. Incident properties module
B. Priority Data Lookup table
C. Incident priority action script
D. Incident priority UI policy
B. Priority Data Lookup table
What is the default time for incidents in a Resolved state to automatically move to the Closed state?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
B. 7 days
By default, when do SLA Percentage timers automatically trigger Breach Warning notifications?
A. 25% duration
B. 50% duration
C. 75% duration
D. 90% duration
B. 50% duration
C. 75% duration
Where , or how, are the roles that are allowed to re-analyze a problem defined?
A. Access Control Lists (ACLs)
B. UI Action condition
C. ProblemStateUtils Script Include
D. Problem Properties module
D. Problem Properties module
What defines when a problem record can automatically move from the New to Assess state?
A. Update Problem State to Assess business rule
B. Problem State UI Policy
C. Problem State UI Action
D. ProblemStateUtils Script Include
D. ProblemStateUtils Script Include
Which of the following problem task types are available in the ServiceNoiw baseline? (Choose two)
A. Common
B. Implement
C. General
D. Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
C. General
D. Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
What is the minimum role a user must have to be populated in the Assigned to field on a problem record?
A. itil
B. problem_coordinator
C. problem_manager
D. problem_task_analyst
B. problem_coordinator
What is the minimum role a user must have to be populated in the Assigned to field on a problem task record?
A. itil
B. problem_coordinator
C. problem_manager
D. problem_task_analyst
D. problem_task_analyst
The unauthorized change process will only trigger if the CI is part of what?
A. Application service
B. Business service
C. Business product
D. Technical service
A. Application service
Which role can create and modify a change model?
A. itil_admin
B. change_admin
C. change_manager
D. sn_change_model_manager
C. change_manager
What defines the requirements for a change model to move from one state to another?
A. Business rule
B. Transition conditions
C. Lifecycle model requirements
D. Change update script
B. Transition conditions
Which release phase defines the specific plans for the release and support of the required change request fulfillment?
A. Release planning
B. Release definition
C. Approval
D. Build and Test
A. Release planning
T/F In the ServiceNow baseline, the fields on the Planning tab are mandatory when moving the change from the New to Asses state
False
2Which of these actions can be automated using conditions with a major incident tigger rule? (choose 2)
A. Promote a major incident
B. Approve a major incident
C. Propose a major incident
D. Reject a major incident
E. Copy a major incident
A. Promote a major incident
C. Propose a major incident
Which of these are supported in the Standard service portfolio taxonomy structure, released in Utah? (Choose 2)
A. The ability to report on services, nodes, and portfolio performance using KPI Groups.
B. Layer records are not required in the portfolio taxonomy.
C. The ability to report on service portfolios via performance metrics, scores and weights.
D. Layer records are required in the portfolio taxonomy.
A. The ability to report on services, nodes, and portfolio performance using KPI Groups.
B. Layer records are not required in the portfolio taxonomy.
Which plugin activates the ability to map the default Service Portfolio Management lifecycle fields and values to Common Service Data model lifecycle fields and values?
A. CSDM Data Manager [com.snc.csdm.datamanager]
B. Application Portfolio Management Digital Integration Management [sn_apm_di]
C. Service Portfolio Management Lifecycle Mapping [com.snc.spm.lifecycle]
D. CSDM Activation [com.snc.cmdb.csdm.activation]
D. CSDM Activation [com.snc.cmdb.csdm.activation]
What must be added to a service offering in order for Service Portfolio Management to generate availability records for that item?
A. Availability calculator
B. Catalog item
C. KPI group assigment
D. Availability commitment
D. Availability commitment
In Catalog Builder, what happens when a user discards a draft item that has a published item associated with it?
A. The draft item and the published item are deleted
B. The draft item is deleted and the published item remains intact
C. The draft item is set to inactive and the published item remains intact
D. The draft item is deleted and the published item’s version number increases by .01
B. The draft item is deleted and the published item remains intact
What is the state of a new service item while being created in Service Builder?
A. Draft
B. In Edit
C. Awaiting Approval
D. work in Progress
A. Draft
