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ITIL Foundation v4 > ITIL v4 Sample Test Questions > Flashcards

ITIL v4 Sample Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which practice is responsible for moving components to live environments?

A. Change enablement
B. Release management
C. IT asset management
D. Deployment management

A

D. Deployment management

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2
Q

Which practice includes the classification and ownership of queries and requests from users?

A. Service desk
B. Incident management
C. Change enablement
D. Service level management

A

A. Service desk

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3
Q

Which practice identifies metrics that reflect the customer’s experience of a service?

A. Continual improvement
B. Service desk
C. Service level management
D. Problem management

A

C. Service level management

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4
Q

What is the PRIMARY use of a change schedule?

A. To support ‘incident management’ and improvement planning
B. To manage emergency changes
C. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts
D. To manage standard changes

A

C. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts

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5
Q

Which service management dimension is focused on activities and how these are coordinated?

A. Organizations and people
B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Value streams and processes

A

D. Value streams and processes

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6
Q

How does categorization of incidents assist the ‘incident management’ practice?

A. It helps direct the incident to the correct support area
B. It determines the priority assigned to the incident
C. It ensures that incidents are resolved in timescales agreed with the customer
D. It determines how the service provider is perceived

A

A. It helps direct the incident to the correct support area

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7
Q

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating ____ that customers want to
achieve.

A. the warranty
B. outcomes
C. the utility
D. outputs

A

B. outcomes

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8
Q

Which is a recommendation of the ‘continual improvement’ practice?

A. There should at least be a small team dedicated to leading ‘continual improvement’ efforts
B. All improvements should be managed as multi-phase projects
C. ‘Continual improvement’ should be isolated from other practices
D. External suppliers should be excluded from improvement initiatives

A

A. There should at least be a small team dedicated to leading ‘continual improvement’ efforts

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9
Q

Which is a potential benefit of using an IT service management tool to support the ‘incident
management’ practice?

A. It may ensure that the cause of incidents is identified within agreed times
B. It may provide automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors
C. It may ensure that supplier contracts are aligned with the needs of the service provider
D. It may provide automated resolution and closure of complex incidents

A

B. It may provide automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors

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10
Q

Which role submits service requests?

A. The user, or their authorized representative
B. The customer, or their authorized representative
C. The sponsor, or their authorized representative
D. The supplier, or their authorized representative

A

A. The user, or their authorized representative

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11
Q

Which practice provides a single point of contact for users?

A. Incident management
B. Change control
C. Service desk
D. Service request management

A

C. Service desk

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12
Q

Which guiding principle recommends that the four dimensions of service management are
considered?

A. Think and work holistically
B. Progress iteratively with feedback
C. Focus on value
D. Keep it simple and practical

A

A. Think and work holistically

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13
Q

Which would be supported by the ‘service request management’ practice?

A. A request to authorize a change that could have an effect on a service
B. A request from a user for something which is a normal part of service delivery
C. A request to restore service after a service interruption
D. A request to investigate the cause of multiple related incidents

A

B. A request from a user for something which is a normal part of service delivery

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14
Q

Which practice is the responsibility of everyone in the organization?

A. Service level management
B. Change control
C. Problem management
D. Continual improvement

A

D. Continual improvement

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15
Q

Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
The purpose of the ‘information security management’ practice is to ____ the organization’s
information.

A. store
B. provide
C. audit
D. protect

A

D. protect

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16
Q

Which guiding principle recommends collecting data before deciding what can be re-used?

A. Focus on value
B. Start where you are
C. Keep it simple and practical
D. Progress iteratively with feedback

A

B. Start where you are

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17
Q

Which is NOT usually included as part of incident management?

A. Scripts for collecting initial information about incidents
B. Formalized procedures for logging incidents
C. Detailed procedures for the diagnosis of incidents
D. The use of specialized knowledge for complicated incidents

A

C. Detailed procedures for the diagnosis of incidents

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18
Q

Which describes the nature of the guiding principles?

A. Guiding principles can guide an organization in all circumstances
B. Each guiding principle mandates specific actions and decisions
C. An organization will select and adopt only one of the seven guiding principles
D. Guiding principles describe the processes that all organizations must adopt

A

A. Guiding principles can guide an organization in all circumstances

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19
Q

Which statement about a change authority is CORRECT?

A. A single change authority should be assigned to authorize all types of change and change
models
B. A change authority should be assigned for each type of change and change model
C. Normal changes are pre-authorized and do not need a change authority
D. Emergency changes can be implemented without authorization from a change authority

A

B. A change authority should be assigned for each type of change and change model

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20
Q

Which practice has the purpose of making new and changed services and features available for
use?

A. Change control
B. Service request management
C. Release management
D. Deployment management

A

C. Release management

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21
Q

Which value chain activity ensures people understand the organization’s vision?

A. Improve
B. Plan
C. Deliver and support
D. Obtain/build

A

B. Plan

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22
Q

Which statement about the value chain activities is CORRECT?

A. Every practice belongs to a specific value chain activity
B. A specific combination of value chain activities and practices forms a service relationship
C. Service value chain activities form a single workflow that enables value creation
D. Each value chain activity contributes to the value chain by transforming specific inputs into outputs

A

D. Each value chain activity contributes to the value chain by transforming specific inputs into outputs

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23
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘supplier management’ practice?

A. To ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
to support the seamless provision of quality products and services
B. To align the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the
ongoing identification and improvement of services
C. To ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
at strategic and tactical levels through coordinated marketing, selling, and delivery activities
D. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of suppliers’ services
is available when and where it is needed

A

A. To ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
to support the seamless provision of quality products and services

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24
Q

What are the two types of cost that a service consumer should evaluate?

A. The price of the service, and the cost of creating the service
B. The costs removed by the service, and the costs imposed by the service
C. The cost of provisioning the service, and the cost of improving the service
D. The cost of software, and the cost of hardware

A

B. The costs removed by the service, and the costs imposed by the service

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25
Q

Which is a purpose of the ‘service desk’ practice?

A. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of
incidents
B. To maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring risks are properly assessed
C. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests
D. To set clear business-based targets for service performance

A

C. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests

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26
Q

How should an organization adopt continual improvement methods?

A. Use a new method for each improvement the organization handles
B. Select a few key methods for the types of improvement that the organization handles
C. Build the capability to use as many improvement methods as possible
D. Select a single method for all improvements that the organization handles

A

B. Select a few key methods for the types of improvement that the organization handles

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27
Q

Which ITIL concept describes governance?

A. The seven guiding principles
B. The four dimensions of service management
C. The service value chain
D. The service value system

A

D. The service value system

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28
Q

Which is a recommendation of the ‘service desk’ practice?

A. Service desks should avoid the use of automation
B. Service desks should be highly technical
C. Service desks should understand the wider organization
D. Service desks should be a physical team in a single fixed location

A

C. Service desks should understand the wider organization

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29
Q

Which guiding principle recommends organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and completed in a timely manner?

A. Focus on value
B. Start where you are
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Collaborate and promote visibility

A

C. Progress iteratively with feedback

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30
Q

What is a standard change?

A. A change that is well understood, fully documented and pre-authorized
B. A change that needs to be assessed, authorized, and scheduled by a change authority
C. A change that doesn’t need a risk assessment because it is required to resolve an incident
D. A change that is assessed, authorized, and scheduled as part of ‘continual improvement’

A

A. A change that is well understood, fully documented and pre-authorized

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31
Q

What happens if a workaround becomes the permanent way of dealing with a problem that cannot
be resolved cost-effectively?

A. A change request is submitted to change control
B. Problem management restores the service as soon as possible
C. The problem remains in the known error status
D. The problem record is deleted

A

C. The problem remains in the known error status

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32
Q

What is the definition of change?

A. To add, modify or remove anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services
B. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is
available
C. To make new and changed services and features available for use
D. To move new or changed hardware, software, or any other component to live environments

A

A. To add, modify or remove anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services

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33
Q

What is the definition of an event?

A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item
B. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service
C. An unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service
D. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service

A

A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item

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34
Q

Which describes outcomes?

A. Tangible or intangible deliverables
B. Functionality offered by a product or service
C. Results desired by a stakeholder
D. Configuration of an organization’s resources

A

C. Results desired by a stakeholder

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35
Q

Which is NOT a key focus of the ‘information and technology’ dimension?

A. Security and compliance
B. Communication systems and knowledge bases
C. Workflow management and inventory systems
D. Roles and responsibilities

A

D. Roles and responsibilities

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36
Q

Which practices are typically involved in the implementation of a problem resolution?

  1. Continual improvement
  2. Service request management
  3. Service level management
  4. Change control

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

A

D. 1 and 4

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37
Q

Which is a key consideration for the guiding principle ‘keep it simple and practical’?

A. Try to create a solution for every exception
B. Understand how each element contributes to value creation
C. Ignore the conflicting objectives of different stakeholders
D. Start with a complex solution, then simplify

A

B. Understand how each element contributes to value creation

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38
Q

What should be done first when applying the ‘focus on value’ guiding principle?

A. Identify the outcomes that the service facilitates
B. Identify all suppliers and partners involved in the service
C. Determine who the service consumer is in each situation
D. Determine the cost of providing the service

A

C. Determine who the service consumer is in each situation

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39
Q

A service provider describes a package that includes a laptop with software, licenses, and support. What is this package an example of?

A. Value
B. An outcome
C. Warranty
D. A service offering

A

D. A service offering

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40
Q

What is the definition of warranty?

A. A tangible or intangible deliverable that is produced by carrying out an activity
B. The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements
C. A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives
D. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need

A

B. The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements

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41
Q

What is the effect of increased automation on the ‘service desk’ practice?

A. Greater ability to focus on customer experience when personal contact is needed
B. Decrease in self-service incident logging and resolution
C. Increased ability to focus on fixing technology instead of supporting people
D. Elimination of the need to escalate incidents to support teams

A

A. Greater ability to focus on customer experience when personal contact is needed

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42
Q

Which term describes the functionality offered by a service?

A. Cost
B. Utility
C. Warranty
D. Risk

A

B. Utility

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43
Q

Which is the purpose of the ‘monitoring and event management’ practice?

A. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is available when and where it is needed
B. To systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected
changes of state
C. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business
D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly
as possible

A

B. To systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected
changes of state

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44
Q

What should all ‘continual improvement’ decisions be based on?

A. Details of how services are measured
B. Accurate and carefully analyzed data
C. An up-to-date balanced scorecard
D. A recent maturity assessment

A

B. Accurate and carefully analyzed data

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45
Q

How do all value chain activities transform inputs to outputs?

A. By determining service demand
B. By using a combination of practices
C. By using a single functional team
D. By implementing process automation

A

B. By using a combination of practices

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46
Q

How does customer engagement contribute to the ‘service level management’ practice?

  1. It captures information that metrics can be based on
  2. It ensures the organization meets defined service levels
  3. It defines the workflows for service requests
  4. It supports progress discussions

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

A

D. 1 and 4

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47
Q

What is the starting point for optimization?

A. Securing stakeholder engagement
B. Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization
C. Determining where the most positive impact would be
D. Standardizing practices and services

A

B. Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization

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48
Q

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
The purpose of the ____ is to ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all
stakeholders in line with the organization’s objectives.

A. ‘focus on value’ guiding principle
B. four dimensions of service management
C. service value system
D. ‘service request management’ practice

A

C. service value system

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49
Q

Which practice provides support for managing feedback, compliments and complaints from users?

A. Change control
B. Service request management
C. Problem management
D. Incident management

A

B. Service request management

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50
Q

Which joint activity performed by a service provider and service consumer ensures continual value co-creation?

A. Service provision
B. Service consumption
C. Service offering
D. Service relationship management

A

D. Service relationship management

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51
Q

Which practice may involve the initiation of disaster recovery?

A. Incident management
B. Service request management
C. Service level management
D. IT asset management

A

A. Incident management

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52
Q

What type of change is MOST likely to be managed by the ‘service request management’ practice?

A. A normal change
B. An emergency change
C. A standard change
D. An application change

A

C. A standard change

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53
Q

Which guiding principle emphasizes the need to understand the flow of work in progress, identify
bottlenecks, and uncover waste?

A. Focus on value
B. Collaborate and promote visibility
C. Think and work holistically
D. Keep it simple and practical

A

B. Collaborate and promote visibility

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54
Q

What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to
achieve?

A. A service
B. An output
C. A practice
D. Continual improvement

A

A. A service

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55
Q

Which statement about change authorization is CORRECT?

A. A change authority should be assigned to each type of change and change model
B. Centralizing change authorization to a single person is the most effective means of authorization
C. The authorization of normal changes should be expedited to ensure they can be implemented
quickly
D. Standard changes are high risk and should be authorized by the highest level of change
authority

A

A. A change authority should be assigned to each type of change and change model

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56
Q

Which dimension of service management considers governance, management, and communication?

A. Organizations and people
B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Value streams and processes

A

A. Organizations and people

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57
Q

Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
A known error is a problem that has been ____ and has not been resolved.

A. logged
B. analyzed
C. escalated
D. closed

A

B. analyzed

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58
Q

Which statement about known errors and problems is CORRECT?

A. Known error is the status assigned to a problem after it has been analyzed
B. A known error is the cause of one or more problems
C. Known errors cause vulnerabilities, problems cause incidents
D. Known errors are managed by technical staff, problems are managed by service
management staff

A

A. Known error is the status assigned to a problem after it has been analyzed

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59
Q

What does the ‘service request management’ practice depend on for maximum efficiency?

A. Compliments and complaints
B. Self-service tools
C. Problem management
D. Incident management

A

C. Problem management

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60
Q

Which statement about the ‘service desk’ practice is CORRECT?

A. It provides a link with stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels
B. It carries out change assessment and authorization
C. It investigates the cause of incidents
D. It needs a practical understanding of the business processes

A

D. It needs a practical understanding of the business processes

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61
Q

Which practice ensures that accurate and reliable information is available about configuration
items and the relationships between them?

A. Service configuration management
B. Service desk
C. IT asset management
D. Monitoring and event management

A

A. Service configuration management

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62
Q

Which practice has a purpose that includes restoring normal service operation as quickly as
possible?

A. Supplier management
B. Deployment management
C. Problem management
D. Incident management

A

D. Incident management

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63
Q

Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
A customer is a person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the ____ of service consumption.

A. outputs
B. outcomes
C. costs
D. risks

A

B. outcomes

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64
Q

Which guiding principle describes the importance of doing something, instead of spending a long
time analyzing different options?

A. Optimize and automate
B. Start where you are
C. Focus on value
D. Progress iteratively with feedback

A

D. Progress iteratively with feedback

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65
Q

What should be done for every problem?

A. It should be diagnosed to identify possible solutions
B. It should be prioritized based on its potential impact and probability
C. It should be resolved so that it can be closed
D. It should have a workaround to reduce the impact

A

B. It should be prioritized based on its potential impact and probability

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66
Q

How should an organization include third-party suppliers in the continual improvement of
services?

A. Ensure suppliers include details of their approach to service improvement in contracts
B. Require evidence that the supplier uses agile development methods
C. Require evidence that the supplier implements all improvements using project management practices
D. Ensure that all supplier problem management activities result in improvements

A

A. Ensure suppliers include details of their approach to service improvement in contracts

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67
Q

What considerations influence the supplier strategy of an organization?

A. Contracts and agreements
B. Type of cooperation with suppliers
C. Corporate culture of the organization
D. Level of formality

A

C. Corporate culture of the organization

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68
Q

What is a problem?

A. An addition or modification that could have an effect on services
B. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item
C. A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents
D. An unplanned reduction in the quality of a service

A

C. A cause or potential cause of one or more incidents

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69
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘relationship management’ practice?

A. To align the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs
B. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels
C. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors
D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly
as possible

A

B. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels

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70
Q

Which is intended to help an organization adopt and adapt ITIL guidance?

A. The four dimensions of service management
B. The guiding principles
C. The service value chain
D. Practices

A

B. The guiding principles

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71
Q

What is an output?

A. A change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item
B. A possible event that could cause harm or loss
C. A result for a stakeholder
D. Something created by carrying out an activity

A

D. Something created by carrying out an activity

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72
Q

What is the reason for using a balanced bundle of service metrics?

A. It reduces the number of metrics that need to be collected
B. It reports each service element separately
C. It provides an outcome-based view of services
D. It facilitates the automatic collection of metrics

A

C. It provides an outcome-based view of services

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73
Q

Why should incidents be prioritized?

A. To help automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors
B. To identify which support team the incident should be escalated to
C. To ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first
D. To encourage a high level of collaboration within and between teams

A

C. To ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved first

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74
Q

Which practice has a purpose that includes helping the organization to maximize value, control
costs and manage risks?

A. Relationship management
B. IT asset management
C. Release management
D. Service desk

A

B. IT asset management

75
Q

Why should service desk staff detect recurring issues?

A. To help identify problems
B. To escalate incidents to the correct support team
C. To ensure effective handling of service requests
D. To engage the correct change authority

A

A. To help identify problems

76
Q

Which value chain activity communicates the current status of all four dimensions of service management?

A. Improve
B. Engage
C. Obtain/build
D. Plan

A

D. Plan

77
Q

Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with consumer’s revenue and growth?

A. Keep it simple and practical
B. Optimize and automate
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Focus on value

A

D. Focus on value

78
Q

Which practice provides visibility of the organization’s services by capturing and reporting on service performance?

A. Service desk
B. Service level management
C. Service request management
D. Service configuration management

A

B. Service level management

79
Q

Which is the BEST example of an emergency change?

A. The implementation of a planned new release of a software application
B. A low-risk computer upgrade implemented as a service request
C. The implementation of a security patch to a critical software application
D. A scheduled major hardware and software implementation

A

C. The implementation of a security patch to a critical software application

80
Q

Which guiding principle recommends assessing the current state and deciding what can be
reused?

A. Focus on value
B. Start where you are
C. Collaborate and promote visibility
D. Progress iteratively with feedback

A

B. Start where you are

81
Q

Select the service management dimension which is focused on an organization’s relationships with other organizations to deliver its services

A. Organizations and people
B. Value streams and processes
C. Information and technology
D. Partners and suppliers

A

D. Partners and suppliers

82
Q

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.

ITIL 4 has introduced the ____, to ensure that the organization constantly co-creates value with all stakeholders through the use and management of products and services.

A. Service value chain
B. Activity chain
C. Practice system
D. Service value system

A

D. Service value system

83
Q

Select the term which best describes a fit for use service

A. Outcome
B. Warranty
C. Value
D. Utility

A

B. Warranty

84
Q

Select the service management dimension which is focused on the roles and responsibilities of the people involved in a process workflow

A. Organizations and people
B. Value streams and processes
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Information and technology

A

A. Organizations and people

85
Q

Select the number of questions on the ITIL 4 Foundation exam

A. 75
B. 60
C. 50
D. 40

A

D. 40

86
Q

Which of the following is NOT an activity within the service value chain?

A. Obtain/Build
B. Continual improvement
C. Plan
D. Engage

A

B. Continual improvement

87
Q

Select the term which best describes a person or a group of people which has its own functions with responsibilities, authorities, and relationships to achieve its objectives

A. Customer
B. Service Provider
C. Organization
D. Consumer

A

C. Organization

88
Q

Which is intended to help an organization adopt and adapt ITIL guidance?

A. Practices
B. The service value chain
C. The four dimensions of service management
D. The guiding principles

A

D. The guiding principles

89
Q

View and examine the following available responses.

Select the question type on the ITIL4 exam which requires you to identify a term based on a specific word for word definition

A. Description
B. Comprehension
C. Explanation
D. Recollection

A

D. Recollection

90
Q

Select the item which refers to the value of co-creation by facilitating outcomes which a customer wishes to achieve without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks

A. Warranty
B. Outcome
C. Service offering
D. Service

A

D. Service

91
Q

Select the minute duration of the ITIL 4 Foundation exam

A. 120
B. 90
C. 45
D. 60

A

D. 60

92
Q

Select the industrial revolution which occurred in the 1980s with the large spread adoption of computers

A. First
B. Fourth
C. Second
D. Third

A

D. Third

93
Q

Select the item which refers to an outcome description

A. Tangible or intangible deliverables
B. Configuration of an organization’s resources
C. Results for a stakeholder
D. Functionality offered by a product or service

A

C. Results for a stakeholder

94
Q

Which guiding principle is concerned with an understanding of how all the parts of an organization work together in an integrated way?

A. Optimize and automate
B. Think and work holistically
C. Focus on value
D. Keep it simple and practical

A

B. Think and work holistically

95
Q

Which statement about the value chain activities is CORRECT?

A. Service value chain activities receive and provide triggers for further actions to be taken
B. Activities within a service value chain operate independently from each other
C. Practices are considered a value chain activity
D. Continual improvement is considered a value chain activity

A

A. Service value chain activities receive and provide triggers for further actions to be taken

96
Q

You have been asked to investigate an email service within your organization that is failing to meet its intended outcomes.

You begin by determining the intended outcome and then observe the current service with as much objectivity as possible. Based on your observations, you are able to determine that the current service is not meeting its utility and warranty requirements.

Which guiding principles best describes your actions in this scenario?

A. Optimize and automate
B. Collaborate and promote visibility
C. Keep it simple and practical
D. Start where you are

A

D. Start where you are

97
Q

Select the statement which describes the nature of the guiding principles

A. A guiding principle can guide an organization in all circumstances
B. Guiding principles describe the processes that all organizations must adopt
C. Each guiding principle mandates specific actions and decisions
D. An organization will select one of the principles to adopt

A

A. A guiding principle can guide an organization in all circumstances

98
Q

Select the set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value to customers in the form of services

A. Service levels
B. Service options
C. Service companies
D. Service management

A

D. Service management

99
Q

Select the ITIL concept which describes governance

A. The seven guiding principles
B. The service value chain
C. The four dimensions of service management
D. The service value system

A

D. The service value system

100
Q

Select the service management dimension which is focused on the communication systems and knowledge bases used by employees

A. Organizations and people
B. Partners and suppliers
C. Value streams and processes
D. Information and technology

A

D. Information and technology

101
Q

What release uses two mirrored production environments?

A. First, Second releases
B. Blue/green releases
C. Function/Non-function releases
D. None of the above

A

B. Blue/green releases

102
Q

Incident management can have an enormous impact on customer and user ________?

A. Satisfaction
B. Value
C. View
D. Needs

A

A. Satisfaction

103
Q

What usually requires a separate process?

A. Managing major incidents
B. Working on creating value
C. Collecting customer’s requirements
D. None of the above

A

A. Managing major incidents

104
Q

What changes are not typically included in a change schedule?

A. Standard changes
B. Normal changes
C. Emergency changes
D. None of the above

A

C. Emergency changes

105
Q

The addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on ______?

A. Value
B. Satisfaction
C. Performance
D. Services

A

D. Services

106
Q

A _________ is a configuration of an organization’s resources designed to offer value for a consumer.

A. Service
B. Practice
C. SVS
D. Product

A

D. Product

107
Q

In the information security management practice, what is done to ensure that security incidents don’t occur?

A. Prevention
B. Detection
C. Correction
D. Controls

A

A. Prevention

108
Q

What practice will ensure the availability of information?

A. Relationship management
B. Information security management
C. Incident management
D. Service desk management

A

B. Information security management

109
Q

What practice will establish and nurture the links between the company and its stakeholders?

A. Relationship management
B. Stakeholder management
C. Change management
D. Service desk management

A

A. Relationship management

110
Q

In what practice will you negotiate and agree on contracts and arrangements?

A. Vendor management
B. Staff Management
C. Supplier management
D. Change management

A

C. Supplier management

111
Q

What is it called when the products or services are developed and/ or delivered internally by the business?

A. Outsourcing
B. Multi-sourcing
C. Insourcing
D. Single source

A

C. Insourcing

112
Q

_______ is the procurement of a product or service from more than one independent supplier.

A. Outsourcing
B. Multi-sourcing
C. Insourcing
D. Single source

A

B. Multi-sourcing

113
Q

What practice is to observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of their states?

A. Monitoring and event management
B. Problem Management
C. Incident Management
D. Service level management

A

A. Monitoring and event management

114
Q

What events allow actions to be taken before any negative impact is actually experienced by the business?

A. Informational events
B. Warning events
C. Exception events
D. Error events

A

B. Warning events

115
Q

What should be done to ensure successful monitoring and event management?

A. Automation
B. Problem identification
C. Systems updates
D. Baselines

A

A. Automation

116
Q

What is used to document the timing for releases?

A. Release register
B. Release calendar
C. Release timer
D. Release schedule

A

D. Release schedule

117
Q

What events do not require action at the time they are identified?

A. Informational events
B. Warning events
C. Exception events
D. Error events

A

A. Informational events

118
Q

What in release management enables learning and improvement, and helps to ensure that customers are satisfied?

A. Release review
B. Release customer review
C. Release post-implementation review
D. Release implementation review

A

C. Release post-implementation review

119
Q

What is it called when Components are integrated, tested, and deployed when they are needed, providing frequent opportunities for customer feedback loops?

A. Phased deployment
B. Continuous delivery
C. Big bang deployment
D. Pull deployment

A

B. Continuous delivery

120
Q

What does the W stand for in a SWOT analysis?

A. Waste
B. Weakness
C. Withhold
D. Witness

A

B. Weakness

121
Q

Who is responsibility for continual improvement?

A. Senior management
B. Users
C. Administrators
D. Everyone

A

D. Everyone

122
Q

What changes are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented, and can be implemented without needing additional authorization?

A. Standard changes
B. Normal changes
C. Emergency changes
D. Non-standard changes

A

A. Standard changes

123
Q

What events require action, even though business impact may not yet have been experienced?

A. Informational events
B. Warning events
C. Exception events
D. Error events

A

C. Exception events

124
Q

What is used to help plan changes, assist in communication, avoid conflicts, and assign resources?

A. Change calendar
B. Change authority
C. Change log
D. Change schedule

A

D. Change schedule

125
Q

Change enablement is usually focused on changes in?

A. People
B. Processes
C. Services
D. Products and Services

A

D. Products and Services

126
Q

The change authority should be assigned to?

A. Each type of change
B. Standard changes only
C. Normal changes only
D. Deny changes

A

A. Each type of change

127
Q

Service actions are performed by the service provider according to the?

A. Needs of the consumer
B. Usage of the consumer
C. Cost to the consumer
D. Agreement with the consumer

A

D. Agreement with the consumer

128
Q

The supplier strategy, sometimes called the ____?

A. Vendor strategy
B. Sourcing strategy
C. Seller strategy
D. Wholesaler strategy

A

B. Sourcing strategy

129
Q

What is specifically aimed at managing the acquisition, development, release, deployment, maintenance, and eventual retirement of software assets?

A. Software contract management
B. Software management
C. Software asset management
D. Software vendor management

A

C. Software asset management

130
Q

What practice requires accurate inventory information, which it keeps in an asset register?

A. IT Asset management
B. IT Register Management
C. IT Software management
D. IT Hardware management

A

A. IT Asset management

131
Q

Cloud-based assets must be assigned to specific products or groups so that _______ can be managed.

A. Cost
B. Integrity
C. The cloud provider
D. Usage

A

A. Cost

132
Q

A ____ is a controlled environment established to test products, services, and other configuration items

A. Demo environment
B. Test environment
C. User environment
D. Software environment

A

B. Test environment

133
Q

What is a list of minimum requirements that a service or service component must meet for it to be acceptable to key stakeholders?

A. Acceptance requirements
B. Acceptance criteria
C. Minimum requirements
D. Acceptance requirements

A

B. Acceptance criteria

134
Q

Agile is an umbrella term for frameworks such as?

A. Scrum
B. Lean
C. Kanban
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

135
Q

What is a way of working that has been proven to be successful by multiple organizations?

A. Organizational practices
B. Best practices
C. Industry practices
D. User practices

A

B. Best practices

136
Q

What are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized following a process?

A. Standard changes
B. Normal changes
C. Emergency changes
D. Non-standard changes

A

B. Normal changes

137
Q

The asset register is used in what practice?

A. Incident management
B. Service level management
C. Deployment management
D. IT asset management

A

D. IT asset management

138
Q

Which practice observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes?

A. Event management
B. Problem management
C. Service management
D. Monitoring and event management

A

D. Monitoring and event management

139
Q

Which of the following statement about authentication is correct?

A. It’s about ensuring someone is who they claim to be
B. It’s about ensuring someone is not who they claim to be
C. It’s about ensuring the actions took by an individual can be verified
D. It’s about having users enter their username when logging in to a computer

A

A. It’s about ensuring someone is who they claim to be

140
Q

The use of scripts can help which of the following?

A. User satisfaction
B. Problem management
C. Diagnose and resolve a simple incident
D. Managing large problems

A

C. Diagnose and resolve a simple incident

141
Q

What is a justification for expenditure of organizational resources, providing information about costs, benefits, options, risks, and issues?

A. Business spending
B. Business assessment
C. Business impact assessment
D. Business case

A

D. Business case

142
Q

What should be everyone responsibility in an organization?

A. Fixing incidents
B. Continual improvement
C. Creating policies
D. Implementing changes

A

B. Continual improvement

143
Q

Which of the following statement is correct about the continual improvement register (CIR)?

A. There can be more than one CIR in an organization
B. There must only be a single CIR for the entire organization
C. The CIR should only be updated by a single group
D. CIR’s are not needed in an organization

A

A. There can be more than one CIR in an organization

144
Q

What change maybe subject to less testing than others?

A. Standard Change
B. Normal change
C. Emergency Change
D. User Change

A

C. Emergency Change

145
Q

Information security is critically dependent upon the?

A. Technology available to secured IT assets
B. Skill level of the IT service manager
C. The behavior of people throughout the organization
D. Type of security software used in the organization

A

C. The behavior of people throughout the organization

146
Q

Which of the following statement is true about non-repudiation?

A. It’s about ensuring that someone can deny that they took an action
B. It’s about ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action
C. It’s about what actions an individual took
D. It has nothing to do with the actions of an individual

A

B. It’s about ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action

147
Q

Change enablement balances the need to make beneficial changes and ____________?

A. The method to implement the change
B. The adverse effect of changes
C. The evolving needs of the business
D. The cost of the change

A

B. The adverse effect of changes

148
Q

In high velocity organizations, it is common for change management practice to be?

A. Done by a single group
B. Done by only senior management
C. Decentralized change approval
D. Centralize change approval

A

C. Decentralized change approval

149
Q

Which of the following is not an external factor in the four dimensions model?

A. Changes
B. Political
C. Economic
D. Legal

A

A. Changes

150
Q

What choice is defined in ITIL to support the holistic approach is service management?

A. Four dimensions model
B. Two dimensions model
C. External factors model
D. Service model

A

A. Four dimensions model

151
Q

Which of the following can lead to poor decision-making and in turn impact the organization’s ability to improve internal capabilities?

A. Insufficient changes
B. Insufficient user training
C. Insufficient visibility of work
D. Insufficient understanding of costs

A

C. Insufficient visibility of work

152
Q

Which guiding principle is about ensuring that service management includes understanding of how all parts of an organization work together?

A. Focus on value
B. Collaborate and promote visibility
C. Start where you are
D. Think and work holistically

A

D. Think and work holistically

153
Q

Which of the following will represent the steps and organization take in the creation of value?

A. Four dimensions model
B. The service value chain
C. The guiding principles
D. The ITIL practices

A

B. The service value chain

154
Q

What is the point of communication between the service provider and all its users?

A. Call center
B. IT Director
C. Service Desk
D. Service Center

A

C. Service Desk

155
Q

Which of the following statement is correct about service request fulfillment?

A. Should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree possible
B. Should not be automated and allow users to implement the changes themselves
C. Should only be automated if users agree
D. Automation should not be an option when requesting a change

A

A. Should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree possible

156
Q

What role is held accountable for the delivery of a specific service?

A. Service Owner
B. Service manager
C. Service User
D. Service Director

A

A. Service Owner

157
Q

A risk assessment does not need to be repeated for which of the following change?

A. Standard changes
B. Normal Changes
C. Emergency changes
D. User changes

A

A. Standard changes

158
Q

Which practice coordinates the classification and ownership of incidents?

A. Change enablement
B. Incident management
C. Problem management
D. Service desk

A

D. Service desk

159
Q

Engage, plan, and improve are examples of?

A. Service value chain
B. Service value
C. Dimensions model
D. Service management

A

A. Service value chain

160
Q

Organizational change management manages the _________ aspects of changes to ensure that improvements and organizational transformations are implemented successfully.

A. Cost
B. People
C. Service
D. Implementation

A

B. People

161
Q

Which is NOT a component of the service value system?

A. Governance
B. Four Dimensions
C. Service value chain
D. Continual Improvement

A

B. Four Dimensions

162
Q

Which of the following statement is correct about effective incident management?

A. Often requires a high level of collaboration within and between teams
B. Often requires no collaboration between teams
C. Often requires collaboration only between certain teams
D. Only requires collaboration between the service desk and change management

A

A. Often requires a high level of collaboration within and between teams

163
Q

Which service value chain activity is done to provide a good understanding of stakeholder needs?

A. Plan
B. Improve
C. Engage
D. Obtain/build

A

C. Engage

164
Q

When managing information security, an organization must strive to achieve a balance between protecting the organization and __________.

A. Allowing it to innovate
B. Conserving resources
C. Expending resources
D. Training users

A

A. Allowing it to innovate

165
Q

Which of the following practice has a major influence on how users perceived services?

A. Supplier management
B. Relationship management
C. Service desk
D. Deployment management

A

C. Service desk

166
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an operational metrics?

A. Availability
B. Incident response times
C. Change and request processing times
D. Service deployment times

A

D. Service deployment times

167
Q

An IT asset is any __________ valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service.

A. Commercially
B. Financially
C. User
D. Service

A

B. Financially

168
Q

Service request fulfillment generally includes which of the following types of changes?

A. Emergency change
B. Standard change
C. Normal change
D. Expedited change

A

B. Standard change

169
Q

Which deployment approach allows for frequent customer feedback?

A. Phased deployment
B. Big Bang deployment
C. Pull deployment
D. Continuous delivery

A

D. Continuous delivery

170
Q

A router was recently upgraded with new memory. What practice will ensure this router is implemented into operations?

A. Service desk
B. Deployment management
C. Service level management
D. It asset management

A

B. Deployment management

171
Q

What practice helps to optimize the use of valuable resources?

A. IT asset management
B. Service desks
C. Incident management
D. Problem management

A

A. IT asset management

172
Q

Information security management is primary driven by?

A. Users
B. IT security manager
C. The most senior level in the organization
D. Type of security software available in the marketplace

A

C. The most senior level in the organization

173
Q

What is it called when new or changed components are deployed to just part of the production environment at a time?

A. Phased deployment
B. Continuous delivery
C. Big bang deployment
D. Pull deployment

A

A. Phased deployment

174
Q

A new software has been made available on the network and users are able to install it at a time that is convenient for them. What deployment approaches this?

A. Phased deployment
B. Big Bang deployment
C. Pull deployment
D. Users deployment

A

C. Pull deployment

175
Q

Which of the following statement about change enablement is correct?

  1. Scope is defined by the organization
  2. There are 3 types of changes
  3. Change authority is who authorizes a change

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

176
Q

Which of the following would be an example of a service requests?

A. Deploy a new change
B. Deploy a new software
C. Delaying the deployment of a new service
D. Giving feedback compliments and complaints about services

A

D. Giving feedback compliments and complaints about services

177
Q

It is common practice to use a decentralize change approval process in what type of organization?

A. Low-velocity organization
B. Small organization
C. High-velocity organization
D. Large organization

A

C. High-velocity organization

178
Q

The IT department will be installing a new application to all users over the weekend. What deployment approach is this?

A. Phased deployment
B. Continuous delivery
C. Big Bang deployment
D. All in one deployment

A

C. Big Bang deployment

179
Q

ITIL SVS includes how many general management practices?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 26

A

C. 14

180
Q

Events are often classified as:

  1. Informational
  2. Warning
  3. Exceptions

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

181
Q

What is an arrangement of configuration items (CIs) or other resources that work together to deliver a product or service?

A. Configuration
B. Formation
C. CMS
D. CMDB

A

A. Configuration

182
Q

What is a measure of whether the objectives of a practice, service or activity have been achieved?

A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Cost Saving
D. Objectives definition

A

A. Effectiveness

183
Q

What is the maximum acceptable period of time following a service disruption that can elapse before the lack of business functionality severely impacts the organization?

A. RPO
B. RTO
C. BIA
D. Disaster recovery plan

A

B. RTO

ITIL Foundation v4 (4 decks)

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