ITIL Glossary Terms Flashcards

Study Guide

1
Q

Service

A

“Means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the outcomes customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risk”

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2
Q

IT Service Management (ITSM)

A

“Complete set of activities required to provide value to a customer through services, including policies and strategies to Plan, Design, Deliver, Operate, and Control IT services”

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3
Q

Information Technology Infrastructure Library

A

“Developed as a framework for organizations to use in order to perform ITSM”

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4
Q

Best Practices

A

“Proven activities or processes that have been successfully used by many different organizations in a specific industry”

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5
Q

Process

A

“Set of coordinated activities combining resources and capability to produce an outcome that creates value for the customer”

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6
Q

Functions

A

“Self-contained unit of an organization specialized to perform specific tasks and are responsible for an outcome”

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7
Q

Roles

A

“A collection of specific responsibilities, duties, or positions within a process or function”

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8
Q

Service Owner

A

“Accountable for the overall design, performance, integration, improvement, and management of a single service”

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9
Q

Process Owner

A

“Accountable for the overall design, performance, integration, improvement, and management of a single process”

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10
Q

Service Manager

A

“Accountable for the development, performance, and improvement of all services”

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11
Q

Process Manager

A

“Accountable for the development, performance, and improvement of all processes”

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12
Q

Product Manager

A

“Accountable for the development, performance, and improvement of a group of related services”

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13
Q

Process Practitioner

A

“Responsible for actually conducting the actions and functions associated with operating the service”

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14
Q

Service Desk

A

“Provides a single, central point of contact for all users of IT services”

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15
Q

Local service Desk

A

“Located physically close to the customers they support”

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16
Q

Centralized service Desk

A

“Makes better use of resources, improves consistency, and centralizes management”

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17
Q

Virtualized service Desk

A

“Doesn’t require a centralized location, but can still make better use of resources, improves consistency, and centralizes management” Excerpt From: Dion, Jason. “ITIL®v3 Foundations: A Time-Compressed Resource To Passing The ITIL®v3 Foundations Exam On Your 1st Attempt! (Cram to Pass).” JasonDion.com, 2017-07-28T07:00:00+00:00. iBooks. This material may be protected by copyright.

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18
Q

Follow-the-sun

A

“Combines local, centralized, and virtual service desks, allowing for 24x7 coverage across all time zones”

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19
Q

Technical Management

A

“Responsible for the procurement, development, and management of the technical skill sets and resources required to support the infrastructure and the ITSM efforts”

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20
Q

Application Management

A

“Provide end-to-end management of applications in the environment which involves cultivating the skill sets and resources to support all phases of the lifecycle”

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21
Q

Application Development

A

“Focused on design and construction of a application solution to gain initial utility”

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22
Q

IT Service Management

A

“Monitors and controls the IT services and IT infrastructure.”

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23
Q

Operations Control

A

“Monitors the infrastructure for optimal performance minute-by-minute and conducts the normal maintenance cycles required”

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24
Q

Facilities Management

A

“Concerned with physical environment of the IT infrastructure, including the power, cooling, fire suppression, and physical access to the data centers and server rooms.”

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25
Q

RACI Model

A

“A generic tool for reviewing and assigning four key roles to any activity: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed”

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26
Q

Responsible (RACI)

A

“Role for the person who executes or performs the activity”

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27
Q

Accountable (RACI)

A

“The person who owns the activity and must answer for its outcomes”

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28
Q

Consulted (RACI)

A

“The person who reviews and provides advice and authorization for the activity”

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29
Q

Informed (RACI)

A

“The person who receives updates on activity’s progress”

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30
Q

Service Strategy

A

“Establishes and manages the broadest policies and standards to govern how a Service Provider will operate”

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31
Q

Business Case Analysis

A

“A structured and documented justification for a new investment that argues the benefits and costs of a particular service”

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32
Q

Return on Investment

A

“The expected financial growth created by a service”

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33
Q

Value on Investment

A

“The expected non-financial return created by a service, such as in a service providers increased recognition or reputation”

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34
Q

Utility

A

“Fit for purpose of a given service”

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35
Q

Warranty

A

“Fit for use of a given service”

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36
Q

Value

A

“Created from the balance between utility and warranty”

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37
Q

Service assets

A

“Resources and capabilities which the service provider must allocate to provide a given service”

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38
Q

Resources

A

“Tangible items that contribute to a service”

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39
Q

Capabilities

A

“Intangible items that contribute to a service”

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40
Q

Service Portfolio Management Process

A

“Process concerned with managing the services that comprise the service portfolio”

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41
Q

Service Portfolio

A

“Complete set of services under management by a service provider”

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42
Q

Strategy Management Process

A

“Ensures a service strategy is defined, maintained, and managed”

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43
Q

Demand Management Process

A

“Used to identify the demand for a particular service to prevent capacity limitations”

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44
Q

Financial Management Process

A

“Used to understand and manage financial resources, costs, and opportunities for a service”

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45
Q

Budgeting

A

“Forecasting and planning of how to spend money in relation to providing a service”

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46
Q

Accounting

A

“Tracking of money by cost centers and against the original budge”

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47
Q

Charging

A

“Getting payment from the customers for services”

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48
Q

Service Design

A

“Conducts the detailed planning of the service and all supporting materials to allow it into the live environment”

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49
Q

People

A

“Consist of the technical staff, users, customers, stakeholders, board executives, and many others”

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50
Q

Processes

A

“Set of coordinated activities combining resources and capability to produce an outcome that creates value for the customer; ITIL®v3 Lifecycle contains 26 distinct processes”

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51
Q

Products

A

“Made up of other services, technology (hardware, software, etc.), and tools needed to support the services”

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52
Q

Partners

A

“People and organizations that help the service provider provide excellent services”

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53
Q

Service Catalog Management Process

A

“Involves management and control of the Service Catalog”

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54
Q

Service Catalog

A

“A database or structured document with information about all live services including those available for deployment that it is widely available to those who are approved to access it”

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55
Q

Simple Service Catalog

A

“Simplified matrix of available services including comprehensive and accurate information”

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56
Q

Business or Customer Service Catalog

A

“Identifies the business processes that are being supported by the services and detailed versions can include service hours, SLA info, escalation paths, etc.”

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57
Q

Technical or Supporting Service Catalog

A

“Provides another level of depth to the service catalog by covering infrastructure, applications, and outsourced services”

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58
Q

Alternate View Service Catalog

A

“Service catalog that can be displayed in various formats to show the relationships between various retail customers, business-to-business, and technical or supporting service providers”

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59
Q

Service Level Agreement

A

“Written agreement between IT service provider and customer providing key service targets and responsibilities of both parties”

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60
Q

Operational Level Agreement

A

“Underpinning written agreement between two elements of the service provider organization regarding key service targets and responsibilities of both parties for the services being supported”

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61
Q

Underpinning contract

A

“Legally binding agreement that conform to contract law and organizational contract policy and written in “legalese” by a lawyer”

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62
Q

Availability Management Process

A

“Concerned with meeting current and future availability needs of the business by ensuring that the level of availability delivered in all IT services meets the agreed availability needs and/or service level targets in a cost effective and timely manner”

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63
Q

Availability

A

“Ability of a service, system, or configuration item to perform its function, when required”

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64
Q

Service Availbility

A

“Focused on end-to-end service that is experienced by the end user or customer”

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65
Q

Component Availabilty

A

“Focused on each individual piece that together provides the end-to-end experience”

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66
Q

Capacity Management Process

A

“Concerned with meeting current and future capacity and performance-related needs of the business by ensuring that the capacity of IT services and of the IT infrastructure meets the agreed capacity and performance-related requirements in a cost-effective and timely manner”

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67
Q

Capacity

A

“Maximum throughput of a service, system, or configuration item”

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68
Q

Business Capacity Management

A

“Aligns capacity management to business plans and strategy”

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69
Q

Component Capacity Management

A

“Ensures an appropriate understanding of the technical components in the infrastructure by employing data analysis techniques to get maximum value from components”

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70
Q

IT Service Continuity Management Process

A

“Ensures that the service provider can always provide the minimum agreed upon service levels by managing the risks associated with a disaster (or other incidents) that could seriously affect critical IT services”

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71
Q

Information Security Management Process

A

“Aligns IT security with business security and to ensure the IT security aspects match agreed-upon needs of the business by protecting IT assets and services from security threats”

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72
Q

Confidentiality

A

“Ensures only those with a ”need to know” can access the information system or data held by the system”

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73
Q

Integrity

A

“Ensures that the data and services are complete, accurate, and unmodified”

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74
Q

ISO27000

A

“International standard for Information Systems Management”

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75
Q

Supplier Management Process

A

“Responsible for obtaining quality service from suppliers that provides fiscal value to meet the agreed upon needs of the business and ensures suppliers meet their contractual obligations”

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76
Q

Strategic suppliers

A

“Involves senior managers and sharing of confidential long-term plans”

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77
Q

Operational suppliers

A

“Involves supply of operational services”

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78
Q

Tactical Suppliers

A

“Involves significant commercial activity and business interaction”

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79
Q

Commodity Suppliers

A

“Involves provision of low-value products, such as printer ink or bathroom supplies”

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80
Q

Service V-Model

A

“Defines progressive levels of activity and levels of testing/validation towards a defined objective such as a release or major change”

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81
Q

Change Management Process

A

“Controls the lifecycle of all changes in order to enable beneficial changes to be made with a minimal disruption of IT services”

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82
Q

Change

A

“Addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have an effect on IT services”

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83
Q

Request for change

A

“Documented request to alter a service or other Configuration Item (CI)”

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84
Q

Normal change

A

“Change that has a uniqueness to them that represents a higher risk or uncertainty of outcome; this is the default type of change”

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85
Q

Standard change

A

“A typical day-to-day changes that are low-risk and well understood”

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86
Q

Emergency change

A

“Address unforeseen operational issues, such as failures, security threats, and vulnerabilities”

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87
Q

Change manager

A

“Protector and enforcer of the standards and processes to ensure positive change”

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88
Q

Change Advisory Board

A

“Focused on providing a go/no-go decision for all changes and meets on a regular basis (i.e. weekly)”

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89
Q

Emergency Change Advisory Board

A

“A special group convened by the Change Manager to advise on the approval/rejection and planning for an emergency change”

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90
Q

Change model

A

“Predefined steps, procedures, and guidelines taken to handling a certain type of change”

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91
Q

Release and Deployment Management process

A

“Responsible for the planning, scheduling, and controlling the build, test, and deployment of releases, as well as to deliver new functionality required by the business while protecting the integrity of existing services”

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92
Q

Release

A

“One or more changes to an IT service that are built, tested, and deployed together to achieve an objective and consists of software, hardware, configurations, or a combinations of these”

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93
Q

Release unit

A

“A particular set of configuration items released together for a specific deployment effort”

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94
Q

Service Asset and Configuration Management

A

“Ensures that assets needed to deliver services are managed and accurate/reliable information about them is available”

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95
Q

Configuration items

A

“The individual records in your Configuration Management DB (CMDB); a component or service asset that needs to be identified and managed”

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96
Q

Baseline

A

“Documented and validated configuration of a component, system, or service; A snapshot of a particular configuration at a moment in time”

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97
Q

Configuration management system

A

“An essential set of tools, data, and information on configurations; Part of the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) that includes information on incidents, service requests, changes, problems, releases, errors, and much more”

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98
Q

Definitive Media Library

A

“A secure storage area for authorized software versions for every configuration item, including the licensing information and documentation”

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99
Q

Service validation and testing process

A

“Provides a separate and more focused support for testing of the service, it systems, and its components prior to release”

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100
Q

Transition Planning and Support process

A

“Provides broader support for large-scale transitions and releases”

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101
Q

Evaluation Process

A

“Provides support for post-release evaluation and confirmation of customer acceptance of new and changed services”

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102
Q

Service transition

A

“Conducts the the management of change and, more specifically, with the introduction of new and changed services into the live environment”

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103
Q

Service Operations

A

“Begins upon transition of a new service to facilitate the outcomes desired by customers; Urgent operational problems are handled by this stage while non-urgent problems are are fed back to Service Strategy, Service Design, or Service Transition, as appropriate”

104
Q

Incident Management Process

A

“Responsible for restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible while minimizing the adverse impact on business operations, thereby ensuring the agreed upon level of service quality is maintained for the customer”

105
Q

Incident

A

“An unplanned interruption to an IT service, a reduction in the quality of an IT service, or failure of a configuration item (CI) that may impact a service”

106
Q

Event

A

“Any change of state of an infrastructure or other item which has significance for the delivery of a service”

107
Q

Problem

A

“Underlying cause of one or more incident, or even possible incidents (such as a warning)”

108
Q

Workaround

A

“Method to minimize or eliminate the impact of an incident until a permanent fix can be implemented”

109
Q

Known error database

A

“Forms part of the Configuration Management System (CMS); details problems, workarounds, and known errors in a common database”

110
Q

Error

A

“Exists when you have an incident and a current workaround for that particular incident”

111
Q

Hieracrchal escalation

A

“Occurs when an incident is referred to management due to the severity of the incident, the person affected by the incident, or needing special permission to obtain replacement components due to cost threshold the incident has created”

112
Q

Functional escalation

A

“Most common type of escalation and occurs when an incident requires a specialist or skills beyond initial tier of Service Desk support”

113
Q

Problem management

A

“Problem Management focuses on the long-term solution and fixing the root cause”

114
Q

Reactive problem management

A

“Charged with responding to problems as they arise in the environment and is triggered mainly by the incident management process”

115
Q

Proactive problem management

A

“Focuses on seeking out improvements to service and infrastructure before an incident occurs” Excerpt From: Dion, Jason. “ITIL®v3 Foundations: A Time-Compressed Resource To Passing The ITIL®v3 Foundations Exam On Your 1st Attempt! (Cram to Pass).” JasonDion.com, 2017-07-28T07:00:00+00:00. iBooks. This material may be protected by copyright.

116
Q

Informational event

A

“Usually indicated as green, it is an event that shows that everything is operating properly”

117
Q

Warning Event

A

“Usually indicated as yellow, it is an event that shows that something isn’t operating properly”

118
Q

Exception Event

A

“Usually indicated as red, this event shows that an error condition is currently occurring”

119
Q

Service request fulfillment process

A

“Manages the lifecycle for all service requests from all users and delivers value directly and swiftly to users by enhancing their efficiency and effectiveness”

120
Q

Access management Process

A

“Responsible for providing the access rights to allow users to utilize a given service or group of services”

121
Q

Continual Service Improvement

A

“Focuses on the alignment and realignment of services, processes, and functions to changing business needs”

122
Q

Service Improvement plan

A

“Primary output of the periodic service reviews conducted as part of the CSI process; Maps specific improvement objectives for an identified time period between one service review and the next service review”

123
Q

Metrics

A

“A measure that is captured and reported on for a given service, process, or activity“

124
Q

Technology Metrics

A

“Measure components or application-based measurements, such as server availability or application performance”

125
Q

Process Metrics

A

“Measure the process workflow through management tools”

126
Q

Service Metrics

A

“Measure the end-to-end experience of a given service using service management tools”

127
Q

Key Performance indicator

A

“Metric used to help manage an IT service, process, or activity and is supported by metrics”

128
Q

Critical success Factor

A

“Something that must happen for a service, process, or activity to succeed in its objectives”

129
Q

“Means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the outcomes customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risk”

A

Service

130
Q

“Complete set of activities required to provide value to a customer through services, including policies and strategies to Plan, Design, Deliver, Operate, and Control IT services”

A

IT Service Management (ITSM)

131
Q

“Developed as a framework for organizations to use in order to perform ITSM”

A

Information Technology Infrastructure Library

132
Q

“Proven activities or processes that have been successfully used by many different organizations in a specific industry”

A

Best Practices

133
Q

“Set of coordinated activities combining resources and capability to produce an outcome that creates value for the customer”

A

Process

134
Q

“Self-contained unit of an organization specialized to perform specific tasks and are responsible for an outcome”

A

Functions

135
Q

“A collection of specific responsibilities, duties, or positions within a process or function”

A

Roles

136
Q

“Accountable for the overall design, performance, integration, improvement, and management of a single service”

A

Service Owner

137
Q

“Accountable for the overall design, performance, integration, improvement, and management of a single process”

A

Process Owner

138
Q

“Accountable for the development, performance, and improvement of all services”

A

Service Manager

139
Q

“Accountable for the development, performance, and improvement of all processes”

A

Process Manager

140
Q

“Accountable for the development, performance, and improvement of a group of related services”

A

Product Manager

141
Q

“Responsible for actually conducting the actions and functions associated with operating the service”

A

Process Practitioner

142
Q

“Provides a single, central point of contact for all users of IT services”

A

Service Desk

143
Q

“Located physically close to the customers they support”

A

Local service Desk

144
Q

“Makes better use of resources, improves consistency, and centralizes management”

A

Centralized service Desk

145
Q

“Doesn’t require a centralized location, but can still make better use of resources, improves consistency, and centralizes management” Excerpt From: Dion, Jason. “ITIL®v3 Foundations: A Time-Compressed Resource To Passing The ITIL®v3 Foundations Exam On Your 1st Attempt! (Cram to Pass).” JasonDion.com, 2017-07-28T07:00:00+00:00. iBooks. This material may be protected by copyright.

A

Virtualized service Desk

146
Q

“Combines local, centralized, and virtual service desks, allowing for 24x7 coverage across all time zones”

A

Follow-the-sun

147
Q

“Responsible for the procurement, development, and management of the technical skill sets and resources required to support the infrastructure and the ITSM efforts”

A

Technical Management

148
Q

“Provide end-to-end management of applications in the environment which involves cultivating the skill sets and resources to support all phases of the lifecycle”

A

Application Management

149
Q

“Focused on design and construction of a application solution to gain initial utility”

A

Application Development

150
Q

“Monitors and controls the IT services and IT infrastructure.”

A

IT Service Management

151
Q

“Monitors the infrastructure for optimal performance minute-by-minute and conducts the normal maintenance cycles required”

A

Operations Control

152
Q

“Concerned with physical environment of the IT infrastructure, including the power, cooling, fire suppression, and physical access to the data centers and server rooms.”

A

Facilities Management

153
Q

“A generic tool for reviewing and assigning four key roles to any activity: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed”

A

RACI Model

154
Q

“Role for the person who executes or performs the activity”

A

Responsible (RACI)

155
Q

“The person who owns the activity and must answer for its outcomes”

A

Accountable (RACI)

156
Q

“The person who reviews and provides advice and authorization for the activity”

A

Consulted (RACI)

157
Q

“The person who receives updates on activity’s progress”

A

Informed (RACI)

158
Q

“Establishes and manages the broadest policies and standards to govern how a Service Provider will operate”

A

Service Strategy

159
Q

“A structured and documented justification for a new investment that argues the benefits and costs of a particular service”

A

Business Case Analysis

160
Q

“The expected financial growth created by a service”

A

Return on Investment

161
Q

“The expected non-financial return created by a service, such as in a service providers increased recognition or reputation”

A

Value on Investment

162
Q

“Fit for purpose of a given service”

A

Utility

163
Q

“Fit for use of a given service”

A

Warranty

164
Q

“Created from the balance between utility and warranty”

A

Value

165
Q

“Resources and capabilities which the service provider must allocate to provide a given service”

A

Service assets

166
Q

“Tangible items that contribute to a service”

A

Resources

167
Q

“Intangible items that contribute to a service”

A

Capabilities

168
Q

“Process concerned with managing the services that comprise the service portfolio”

A

Service Portfolio Management Process

169
Q

“Complete set of services under management by a service provider”

A

Service Portfolio

170
Q

“Ensures a service strategy is defined, maintained, and managed”

A

Strategy Management Process

171
Q

“Used to identify the demand for a particular service to prevent capacity limitations”

A

Demand Management Process

172
Q

“Used to understand and manage financial resources, costs, and opportunities for a service”

A

Financial Management Process

173
Q

“Forecasting and planning of how to spend money in relation to providing a service”

A

Budgeting

174
Q

“Tracking of money by cost centers and against the original budge”

A

Accounting

175
Q

“Getting payment from the customers for services”

A

Charging

176
Q

“Conducts the detailed planning of the service and all supporting materials to allow it into the live environment”

A

Service Design

177
Q

“Consist of the technical staff, users, customers, stakeholders, board executives, and many others”

A

People

178
Q

“Set of coordinated activities combining resources and capability to produce an outcome that creates value for the customer; ITIL®v3 Lifecycle contains 26 distinct processes”

A

Processes

179
Q

“Made up of other services, technology (hardware, software, etc.), and tools needed to support the services”

A

Products

180
Q

“People and organizations that help the service provider provide excellent services”

A

Partners

181
Q

“Involves management and control of the Service Catalog”

A

Service Catalog Management Process

182
Q

“A database or structured document with information about all live services including those available for deployment that it is widely available to those who are approved to access it”

A

Service Catalog

183
Q

“Simplified matrix of available services including comprehensive and accurate information”

A

Simple Service Catalog

184
Q

“Identifies the business processes that are being supported by the services and detailed versions can include service hours, SLA info, escalation paths, etc.”

A

Business or Customer Service Catalog

185
Q

“Provides another level of depth to the service catalog by covering infrastructure, applications, and outsourced services”

A

Technical or Supporting Service Catalog

186
Q

“Service catalog that can be displayed in various formats to show the relationships between various retail customers, business-to-business, and technical or supporting service providers”

A

Alternate View Service Catalog

187
Q

“Written agreement between IT service provider and customer providing key service targets and responsibilities of both parties”

A

Service Level Agreement

188
Q

“Underpinning written agreement between two elements of the service provider organization regarding key service targets and responsibilities of both parties for the services being supported”

A

Operational Level Agreement

189
Q

“Legally binding agreement that conform to contract law and organizational contract policy and written in “legalese” by a lawyer”

A

Underpinning contract

190
Q

“Concerned with meeting current and future availability needs of the business by ensuring that the level of availability delivered in all IT services meets the agreed availability needs and/or service level targets in a cost effective and timely manner”

A

Availability Management Process

191
Q

“Ability of a service, system, or configuration item to perform its function, when required”

A

Availability

192
Q

“Focused on end-to-end service that is experienced by the end user or customer”

A

Service Availbility

193
Q

“Focused on each individual piece that together provides the end-to-end experience”

A

Component Availabilty

194
Q

“Concerned with meeting current and future capacity and performance-related needs of the business by ensuring that the capacity of IT services and of the IT infrastructure meets the agreed capacity and performance-related requirements in a cost-effective and timely manner”

A

Capacity Management Process

195
Q

“Maximum throughput of a service, system, or configuration item”

A

Capacity

196
Q

“Aligns capacity management to business plans and strategy”

A

Business Capacity Management

197
Q

“Ensures an appropriate understanding of the technical components in the infrastructure by employing data analysis techniques to get maximum value from components”

A

Component Capacity Management

198
Q

“Ensures that the service provider can always provide the minimum agreed upon service levels by managing the risks associated with a disaster (or other incidents) that could seriously affect critical IT services”

A

IT Service Continuity Management Process

199
Q

“Aligns IT security with business security and to ensure the IT security aspects match agreed-upon needs of the business by protecting IT assets and services from security threats”

A

Information Security Management Process

200
Q

“Ensures only those with a ”need to know” can access the information system or data held by the system”

A

Confidentiality

201
Q

“Ensures that the data and services are complete, accurate, and unmodified”

A

Integrity

202
Q

“International standard for Information Systems Management”

A

ISO27000

203
Q

“Responsible for obtaining quality service from suppliers that provides fiscal value to meet the agreed upon needs of the business and ensures suppliers meet their contractual obligations”

A

Supplier Management Process

204
Q

“Involves senior managers and sharing of confidential long-term plans”

A

Strategic suppliers

205
Q

“Involves supply of operational services”

A

Operational suppliers

206
Q

“Involves significant commercial activity and business interaction”

A

Tactical Suppliers

207
Q

“Involves provision of low-value products, such as printer ink or bathroom supplies”

A

Commodity Suppliers

208
Q

“Defines progressive levels of activity and levels of testing/validation towards a defined objective such as a release or major change”

A

Service V-Model

209
Q

“Controls the lifecycle of all changes in order to enable beneficial changes to be made with a minimal disruption of IT services”

A

Change Management Process

210
Q

“Addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have an effect on IT services”

A

Change

211
Q

“Documented request to alter a service or other Configuration Item (CI)”

A

Request for change

212
Q

“Change that has a uniqueness to them that represents a higher risk or uncertainty of outcome; this is the default type of change”

A

Normal change

213
Q

“A typical day-to-day changes that are low-risk and well understood”

A

Standard change

214
Q

“Address unforeseen operational issues, such as failures, security threats, and vulnerabilities”

A

Emergency change

215
Q

“Protector and enforcer of the standards and processes to ensure positive change”

A

Change manager

216
Q

“Focused on providing a go/no-go decision for all changes and meets on a regular basis (i.e. weekly)”

A

Change Advisory Board

217
Q

“A special group convened by the Change Manager to advise on the approval/rejection and planning for an emergency change”

A

Emergency Change Advisory Board

218
Q

“Predefined steps, procedures, and guidelines taken to handling a certain type of change”

A

Change model

219
Q

“Responsible for the planning, scheduling, and controlling the build, test, and deployment of releases, as well as to deliver new functionality required by the business while protecting the integrity of existing services”

A

Release and Deployment Management process

220
Q

“One or more changes to an IT service that are built, tested, and deployed together to achieve an objective and consists of software, hardware, configurations, or a combinations of these”

A

Release

221
Q

“A particular set of configuration items released together for a specific deployment effort”

A

Release unit

222
Q

“Ensures that assets needed to deliver services are managed and accurate/reliable information about them is available”

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

223
Q

“The individual records in your Configuration Management DB (CMDB); a component or service asset that needs to be identified and managed”

A

Configuration items

224
Q

“Documented and validated configuration of a component, system, or service; A snapshot of a particular configuration at a moment in time”

A

Baseline

225
Q

“An essential set of tools, data, and information on configurations; Part of the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) that includes information on incidents, service requests, changes, problems, releases, errors, and much more”

A

Configuration management system

226
Q

“A secure storage area for authorized software versions for every configuration item, including the licensing information and documentation”

A

Definitive Media Library

227
Q

“Provides a separate and more focused support for testing of the service, it systems, and its components prior to release”

A

Service validation and testing process

228
Q

“Provides broader support for large-scale transitions and releases”

A

Transition Planning and Support process

229
Q

“Provides support for post-release evaluation and confirmation of customer acceptance of new and changed services”

A

Evaluation Process

230
Q

“Conducts the the management of change and, more specifically, with the introduction of new and changed services into the live environment”

A

Service transition

231
Q

“Begins upon transition of a new service to facilitate the outcomes desired by customers; Urgent operational problems are handled by this stage while non-urgent problems are are fed back to Service Strategy, Service Design, or Service Transition, as appropriate”

A

Service Operations

232
Q

“Responsible for restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible while minimizing the adverse impact on business operations, thereby ensuring the agreed upon level of service quality is maintained for the customer”

A

Incident Management Process

233
Q

“An unplanned interruption to an IT service, a reduction in the quality of an IT service, or failure of a configuration item (CI) that may impact a service”

A

Incident

234
Q

“Any change of state of an infrastructure or other item which has significance for the delivery of a service”

A

Event

235
Q

“Underlying cause of one or more incident, or even possible incidents (such as a warning)”

A

Problem

236
Q

“Method to minimize or eliminate the impact of an incident until a permanent fix can be implemented”

A

Workaround

237
Q

“Forms part of the Configuration Management System (CMS); details problems, workarounds, and known errors in a common database”

A

Known error database

238
Q

“Exists when you have an incident and a current workaround for that particular incident”

A

Error

239
Q

“Occurs when an incident is referred to management due to the severity of the incident, the person affected by the incident, or needing special permission to obtain replacement components due to cost threshold the incident has created”

A

Hieracrchal escalation

240
Q

“Most common type of escalation and occurs when an incident requires a specialist or skills beyond initial tier of Service Desk support”

A

Functional escalation

241
Q

“Problem Management focuses on the long-term solution and fixing the root cause”

A

Problem management

242
Q

“Charged with responding to problems as they arise in the environment and is triggered mainly by the incident management process”

A

Reactive problem management

243
Q

“Focuses on seeking out improvements to service and infrastructure before an incident occurs” Excerpt From: Dion, Jason. “ITIL®v3 Foundations: A Time-Compressed Resource To Passing The ITIL®v3 Foundations Exam On Your 1st Attempt! (Cram to Pass).” JasonDion.com, 2017-07-28T07:00:00+00:00. iBooks. This material may be protected by copyright.

A

Proactive problem management

244
Q

“Usually indicated as green, it is an event that shows that everything is operating properly”

A

Informational event

245
Q

“Usually indicated as yellow, it is an event that shows that something isn’t operating properly”

A

Warning Event

246
Q

“Usually indicated as red, this event shows that an error condition is currently occurring”

A

Exception Event

247
Q

“Manages the lifecycle for all service requests from all users and delivers value directly and swiftly to users by enhancing their efficiency and effectiveness”

A

Service request fulfillment process

248
Q

“Responsible for providing the access rights to allow users to utilize a given service or group of services”

A

Access management Process

249
Q

“Focuses on the alignment and realignment of services, processes, and functions to changing business needs”

A

Continual Service Improvement

250
Q

“Primary output of the periodic service reviews conducted as part of the CSI process; Maps specific improvement objectives for an identified time period between one service review and the next service review”

A

Service Improvement plan

251
Q

“A measure that is captured and reported on for a given service, process, or activity“

A

Metrics

252
Q

“Measure components or application-based measurements, such as server availability or application performance”

A

Technology Metrics

253
Q

“Measure the process workflow through management tools”

A

Process Metrics

254
Q

“Measure the end-to-end experience of a given service using service management tools”

A

Service Metrics

255
Q

“Metric used to help manage an IT service, process, or activity and is supported by metrics”

A

Key Performance indicator

256
Q

“Something that must happen for a service, process, or activity to succeed in its objectives”

A

Critical success Factor