ITIL Exam A & B

Question 1

1. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change
   management?
   a) Changes to a mainframe computer
   b) Changes to business strategy
   c) Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
   d) The retirement of a service

Answer 1

1 B

05-51 ST 4.2.4.3
A change request is a formal communication seeking an alteration to one or more configuration items (CIs). Services, SLAs and computers are examples of CIs. A business strategy is not normally a CI and would be out of scope for change management.

Question 2

2. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?

a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and manage IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

Answer 2

2 A

02-09 SO 1.1.1
Each of these are a purpose of service operation except for option A, undertaking testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs. Option A is part of service transition.

Question 3

3. What does the term IT operations control refer to?

a) Managing the technical and applications management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
c) A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and
applications
d) A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not available

Answer 3

3 B

06-02 SO 6.5.1.1
IT operations control oversees the execution and monitoring of the operational activities and events in the IT infrastructure.

Question 4

4. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?

a) Service level management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
d) Incident management

Answer 4

4 C

05-63 ST 4.3.1
Part of SACM’s purpose is to maintain accurate information about assets, including the relationship between assets.

Question 5

5. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analysing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service
management

Answer 5

5 A

07-02 SD 3.7.4.1
RACI is a responsibility model used by ITIL to help define roles and responsibilities.

Question 6

6. Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that
assists in the provision of services
b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key targets
and responsibilities of both parties
c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the
customer
d) An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix and response
times

Answer 6

6 A

03-12 SD 4.3.4
A is the OLA, B is the definition of an SLA, C doesn’t correspond to an ITIL definition, D involves a third party and is a contract.

Question 7

7. What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?

a) To monitor and report availability of components
b) To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business

Answer 7

7 D

05-42 SD 4.4.1
A is a supporting element of availability management, not a main purpose. B relates to service level management. Availability management does not offer guarantees as identified in C. D is the
main purpose of availability management: - “to ensure that the level of availability delivered in all IT services meets the agreed availability needs… of the business.”

Question 8

8. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
9. Introducing new services
10. Decommissioning services
11. Transfer of services between service providers

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

Answer 8

8 C

02-07 ST 1.1.1
All three are in scope for service transition as all three involve major change.

Question 9

9. Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?

a) Service optimization
b) Service transition
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

Answer 9

9 A

02-02 SS 1.2
Service optimization is the correct answer

Question 10

10. Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system
    (CMS) is CORRECT?

a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
b) There may be more than one CMS
c) There should not be more than one configuration management database (CMDB)
d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS

Answer 10

10 D

03-18 ST 4.3.4.3
A: a CMS can contain corporate data about users / customers such as location or department. B and C: there may be more than one CMDB but they will be part of a single CMS. D is correct as a CMS still helps to control and report on the infrastructure when IT services are outsourced.

Question 11

11. What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?

a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
b) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology capacity management
d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and
component capacity management

Answer 11

11 A

05-45 SD 4.5.4.3
Book answer…business, service and component capacity management are the three sub-processes

Question 12

12. Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
13. Copies of purchased software
14. Copies of internally developed software
15. Relevant licence documentation
16. The change schedule

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer 12

12 D

03-19 ST 4.3.4.4
The DML contains master copies of all controlled software in an organization … “along with licence documents or information”. The change schedule would not be included.

Question 13

13. Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on
    a regular basis?

a) Supplier management
b) Service level management
c) Service portfolio management
d) Demand management

Answer 13

13 B

05-31 SD 4.3.1
Service level management has responsibility for negotiating and agreeing OLAs.

Question 14

14. Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?

a) The service owner
b) The chief information officer
c) Knowledge management
d) The process owner

Answer 14

14 D

07-01 SD 6.3.2
Book answer. A process owner should ensure process documentation is current and available.

Question 15

15. Which of the following does the release and deployment management process
    address?
16. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
17. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
18. Authorizing changes to support the process

a) 1 and 2 only
b) All of the above
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Answer 15

15 A

05-61 ST 4.4.1
The two correct answers (1 and 2) are included in release and deployment objectives. Option 3 is addressed by change management.

Question 16

16. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?
17. It is measurable
18. It delivers a specific result
19. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

Answer 16

16 D

01-10 SS 2.2.2
Measurability, delivery of specific results, and delivery of results to a customer or stakeholder are all characteristics of a process.

Question 17

17. Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
18. It is vendor-neutral
19. It is non-prescriptive
20. It is best practice
21. It is a standard

a) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 17

17 B

01-02 SD 1.4
Option 4 is incorrect, ITIL is not a standard: ISO/IEC 20000 would be an example of a standard. ITIL is vendor-neutral, nonprescriptive, and provides a best practice framework.

Question 18

18. Who should be granted access to the information security policy?

a) Senior business managers and IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information security management staff only

Answer 18

18 C

05-43 SD 4.7.4.1
In most cases the policies should be widely available to all customers and users and referenced in SLAs, OLAs and UCs.

Question 19

19. Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
20. Agreed and documented business requirements
21. A plan for transition of the service
22. Requirements for new or changed processes
23. Metrics to measure the service

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Answer 19

19 D

03-14 SD App A
All of the elements identified are included in the service design package passed to service transition.

Question 20

20. Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
21. A tool to store definitive versions of software
22. A workflow tool for managing changes
23. An automated software distribution tool
24. Testing and validation tools

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 20

20 C

08-02 SS 7.1
1 would be used to support a DML. 2 helps change management. 3 is a release and deployment tool. 4 can help with

Question 21

21. Which of the following statements about problem management is/are CORRECT?
22. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a configuration item (CI) are submitted through change management
23. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

Answer 21

21 C

05-72 SO 4.4.2 and 4.4.6.4
Book answer. They are both valid roles for problem management.

Question 22

22. What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?

a) Dealing with service requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
d) Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met

Answer 22

22 A

05-82 SO 4.3.1
Request fulfilment is the process responsible for dealing with service requests from the users. ‘All requests’ (B) is too wide a scope for the process. Change management looks after change requests (C). Service level management is responsible for D.

Question 23

23. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?

a) The customer’s perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service

Answer 23

23 A

04-02 SS 3.2.3
D is incorrect; customer preferences drive value perception. C is incorrect; delivering on customer outcomes is vital. B is incorrect; the value of a service can be financial but other factors are also relevant. A is correct; customer perception is a vital element in defining how much a customer values a service.

Question 24

24. Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is MOST correct?

a) External customers should receive better customer service because they pay for their IT services
b) Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay employee salaries
c) The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the most money
d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service that has been agreed

Answer 24

24 D

01-04 SS 3.2.1.2
D is the correct response. Both internal and external customers should be provided with the agreed level of service, and with the same level of customer service.

Question 25

25. Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?

a) Capabilities
b) Cost
c) Risk
d) Value

Answer 25

25 D

01-03 SS 2.1.1
A service is a means of delivering value to customers. IT needs capabilities to deliver services. Cost and risk are what IT helps to manage.

Question 26

26. Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?

a) Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service

Answer 26

26 C

05-31 SD 4.3.5.6
C is correct: monitoring the SLAs and performance against them is a vital part of the service level management process. A - designing the CMS is a service asset and configuration management activity. B – technology metrics are likely to be created within capacity management or other design processes. D – training the service desk is a service desk role.

Question 27

27. Which one of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices

Answer 27

27 A

05-81 SO 4.1.1
A - the ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action is provided by event management. B includes some incident management responsibilities. C is a technical management task. D is likely to be shared between availability management and service level management.

Question 28

28. Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?
    a) The version information of all software
    b) The organizational structure of the company
    c) Asset information
    d) Details of all operational services

Answer 28

28 D

05-41 SD 4.2.1
The service catalogue should contain details of all operational services.

Question 29

29. What does “Warranty of a service” mean?

a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security

Answer 29

29 D

03-01 SS 2.1.6
A is part of the definition of utility. B is unrealistic. C could be feasible as a warranty statement from another industry but is not the definition of warranty as used by ITIL. D is a good summary of warranty as defined by ITIL.

Question 30

30. Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

a) Understand the business vision and objectives
b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

Answer 30

30 A

04-09 CSI 3.1
The improvement approach begins with embracing the vision by understanding the high-level business objectives.

Question 31

31. Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?

a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
b) It means known incident types never recur
c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve

Answer 31

31 C

05-71 SO 4.2.4.2
Incident models are designed to provide reusable steps that can be used to restore service after known incident types.

Question 32

32. Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?

a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, escalation, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, escalation, resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure
d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, escalation, prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure

Answer 32

32 A

05-71 SO 4.2.5
The correct order is given in the diagram in the incident management process, and in the subsections of 4.2.5.

Question 33

33. Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the
    required metrics for new or changed services?

a) Service design
b) Service operation
c) Service strategy
d) Service delivery

Answer 33

33 A

04-04 SD 3.1.1
Measurements and metrics should be included in the design for a new or changed service.

Question 34

34. Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
35. IT service continuity management
36. Information security management
37. Service catalogue management

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Answer 34

34 D

05-43 05-46 SD 4.7.2 SD 4.6.5.2
IT service continuity management carries out risk assessment as part of defining the requirements and strategy. Information security
also needs to analyse security risks before taking action to mitigate them. Service catalogue management does not carry out these assessments.

Question 35

35. Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement (CSI)?

a) Process metrics
b) Service metrics
c) Personnel metrics
d) Technology metrics

Answer 35

35 C

04-10 CSI 5.5
Personnel metrics are not one of the three types of metrics described in CSI

Question 36

36. Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management system (CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is CORRECT?

a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS

Answer 36

36 B

03-16 ST 4.7.4.3
A is the wrong way round. C is incorrect as the SKMS contains more information than the CMS. D is incorrect as the CMS is part of the SKMS.

Question 37

37. What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?

a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made
during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether they should be authorized
d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so
that no unacceptable delays occur

Answer 37

37 C

05-51 ST 4.2.5.11
The emergency change advisory board (ECAB) provides assistance in the authorization of emergency changes.

Question 38

38. Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
39. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between
    IT and its users for all operational issues
40. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process
    a) 2 only
    b) 1 only
    c) Both of the above
    d) Neither of the above

Answer 38

38 B

06-01 SO 6.3
The service desk should be the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis. The service desk manager may also be the incident management process owner but would not normally be the owner of problem management.

Question 39

39. Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the four Ps of service design?

a) Planning, products, position, processes
b) Planning, perspective, position, people
c) Perspective, partners, problems, people
d) People, partners, products, processes

Answer 39

39 D

04-03 SD 3.1.5
Book answer: people, processes, products (services, technology and tools) and partners (suppliers, manufacturers and vendors).

Question 40

40. Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a
    problem workaround is found?

a) The problem record is closed
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented within it
c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented on all related incident records
d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a
request for change(RFC)

Answer 40

40 B

05-72 SO 4.4.5.6
A is incorrect; the problem record must remain open as it hasn’t yet been resolved. B is correct to document the workaround on the problem record, not on each Incident record [C], nor on an RFC [D].

Question 41

1 Input from which processes could be considered by service level management when
negotiating service level agreements (SLA)?

a) All other ITIL processes
b) Capacity management and availability management only
c) Incident management and problem management only
d) Change management and release and deployment management only

Answer 41

1 A

05-31 SD 4.3.5.2
“Representatives of all of the other processes need to be consulted for their opinion on what targets can be realistically achieved.”

Question 42

2 Which one of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?

a) They are pre-authorized by change management
b) They follow a procedure or work instruction
c) They are low risk
d) They must be implemented as soon as possible

Answer 42

2 D

05-51 ST 4.2.4.3
Standard changes would not normally need to be implemented as soon as was possible, whereas emergency changes would.

Question 43

3 Which of the following statements about the service desk are CORRECT?

1. It provides a single point of contact between the service provider and users
2. It manages incidents and service requests
3. It is a service management process
4. Service desk staff try to restore service as quickly as possible

a) All of the above
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Answer 43

3 B

06-01 SO 6.3.2
The service desk is a function and not a process.

Question 44

4 Which of the following statements about functions are CORRECT?

1. They may include tools
2. They are groups that use resources to carry out one or more activities
3. One person or group may perform multiple functions
4. They are more costly to implement compared to processes

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

Answer 44

4 A

01-09 SS 2.2.3.1
Functions are not described as being more costly than processes and this would depend on the function or process being considered.

Question 45

5 Which one of the following is the BEST description of the activities carried out by
facilities management?

a) The management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network access
b) Advice and guidance to IT operations on methodology and tools for managing IT services
c) Management of the physical IT environment such as a data centre or computer room
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

Answer 45

5 C

06-02 SO 6.5.1
“Facilities management refers to the management of the physical IT environment, typically a data centre or computer rooms”.

Question 46

6 Which process would assist with the identification and resolution of any incidents and problems associated with service or component performance?

a) Capacity management
b) Supplier management
c) Technology management
d) Change management

Answer 46

6 A

05-45 SD 4.5.2
Performance issues are within the scope of capacity management.

Question 47

7 Which one of the following statements about the known error database (KEDB) is MOST correct?

a) The KEDB is the same database as the service knowledge management system (SKMS)
b) The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process
c) Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. This can be done by giving access to as many technicians as possible to create new
records
d) Access to the KEDB should be limited to the service desk

Answer 47

7 B

03-32 SO 4.4.7.2
A – The KEDB is part of the SKMS, NOT the same thing. B is correct. C – Duplication should be avoided but by RESTRICTING access. D – Yes, the service desk should use it but they are NOT the only ones.

Question 48

8 Which of the following statements about key performance indicators (KPIs) and metrics are CORRECT?

1. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service
2. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor
3. Metrics can be used to identify improvement opportunities
4. KPIs can be both qualitative and quantitative

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Answer 48

8 D

04-10 CSI 4.1.12 5.5
Each statement is a summary of the book content.

Question 49

9 Which one of the following maintains relationships between all service components?

a) The capacity plan
b) The definitive media library
c) The configuration management system
d) A service level agreement

Answer 49

9 C

03-18 ST 4.3.4.3
The configuration management system (CMS) is responsible via its various data sources (CMDBs, etc) for maintaining these relationships.

Question 50

10 Should a customer’s request for a new service ALWAYS be fulfilled?

a) Yes – if they are an external customer as they are paying for the service
b) No – if they are an internal customer as they are not always paying for the service
c) No – it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before requests are fulfilled
d) Yes – the service provider should ensure that all requests for new services are fulfilled

Answer 50

10 C

01-04 SS 3.2.1.2
The service provider should ensure due diligence is carried out against the customer’s requirements, irrespective of whether they are internal or external customers.

Question 51

11 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Problem management can support the service desk by providing known errors to speed up incident resolution
2. Problem management is the only source of information to service level management about the impact of changes

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

Answer 51

11 A

05-72 SO 4.4.6.4
Problem management is the source of known errors but change and service asset and configuration management are likely to be other sources of information about the impact of changes.

Question 52

12 A failure has occurred on a system and is detected by a monitoring tool. This system supports a live IT service. When should an incident be raised?

a) Only when users notice the failure
b) An incident should not be raised if the technicians have seen this before and have a workaround
c) Only if the failure results in a service level being breached
d) Immediately, to limit or prevent impact on users

Answer 52

12 D

05-71 SO 4.2.5
A – There do not need to be discernable impacts to the user for an incident to be raised. B – Even if a workaround is available it needs to be recorded to measure any on-going impact of the incident. C - All incidents must be recorded. D – Correct, in order to prevent loss of service or to restore service as soon as possible.

Question 53

13 Which of the following could be considered stakeholders in a service management project?

1. Users
2. Customers
3. Suppliers
4. Functions

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Answer 53

13 D

01-08 SS 2.1.5
D is the correct response. Stakeholders can be both internal and external entities. An example of a function as a stakeholder could be the service desk, technical management or application management functions.

Question 54

14 Which of the following activities does service asset and configuration management ensure are performed?

1. Configuration items (CIs) are identified
2. CIs are baselined
3. Changes to CIs are controlled

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Answer 54

14 A

05-63 ST 4.3.2
All activities are part of the scope of service asset and configuration management.

Question 55

15 Which of the following aspects of service design should be considered when designing a service solution?

1. Measurement methods and metrics
2. Management information systems and tools
3. Technology architectures
4. The processes required

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Answer 55

15 D

04-04 SD 3.1.1
All of these items are aspects of service design.

Question 56

16 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for ALL processes?

a) They define functions as part of their design
b) They deliver results to a customer or stakeholder
c) They are carried out by an external service provider in support of a customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

Answer 56

16 B

01-10 SS 2.2.2
A – Process design would involve allocation of activities to functions but not their definition. B – Correct – processes deliver results or they would not be worthwhile. C – Not ALL processes are carried out by external providers. D – Is a description of a function.

Question 57

17 Which process is primarily responsible for packaging, building, testing and deploying services?

a) Transition planning and support
b) Release and deployment management
c) Service asset and configuration management
d) Service catalogue management

Answer 57

17 B

05-61 ST 4.4.2
All are activities performed by release and deployment management.

Question 58

18 Which one of the following is the BEST example of a workaround?

a) A technician installs a script to temporarily divert prints to an alternative printer until a permanent fix is applied
b) A technician tries several ways to solve an incident. One of them works, although they do not know which one
c) After reporting the incident to the service desk, the user works on alternative tasks while the problem is identified and resolved
d) A device works intermittently, allowing the user to continue working at degraded levels of performance while the technician diagnoses the incident

Answer 58

18 A

03-30 SO 4.4.5.6
A is a good example of a workaround which is not a permanent solution but which overcomes the original incident. B is a ‘lucky’ incident resolution and unlikely to be repeatable. C does not allow the user to continue with their original task. D is an incident under investigation.

Question 59

19 Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?

1. Request management
2. Service catalogue management
3. Detection and monitoring
4. Design and modelling

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

Answer 59

19 D

08-02 SS 7.1
All four areas can be assisted by technology.

Question 60

20 Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of stages in the Deming Cycle?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

Answer 60

20 D

03-42 CSI 3.8
The four key stages of the cycle are Plan, Do, Check and Act.

Question 61

21 Which two processes will be involved the MOST in negotiating and agreeing contracts for the provision of recovery capability to support continuity plans?

a) Service level management and capacity management
b) Supplier management and service level management
c) IT service continuity management and service level management
d) IT service continuity management and supplier management

Answer 61

21 D

05-46 SD 4.6.1
ITSC provides the subject matter expertise and supplier management provides the contract negotiation and selection process. SLM also has a role in underpinning contracts but is not as significant in this respect as the other two processes.

Question 62

22 Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incident model?

a) The template that defines the incident logging form used for reporting incidents
b) A type of incident involving a standard (or model) type of configuration item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of
incident
d) An incident that is easy to solve

Answer 62

22 C

05-71 SO 4.2.4.2
C matches the description of an incident model.

Question 63

23 What roles are defined in the RACI model?

a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
b) Responsible, Achievable, Consulted, Informed
c) Realistic, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
d) Responsible, Accountable, Corrected, Informed

Answer 63

23 A

07-02 SD 3.7.4.1
Roles are Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed.

Question 64

24 Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?

a) Continual service improvement
b) Service operation
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

Answer 64

24 D

02-03 SS 1.1.1
Deciding what services should be offered and to whom is an integral part of service strategy.

Question 65

25 Which of the following does continual service improvement (CSI) provide guidance on?

1. How to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. How to improve services
3. Improvement of all stages of the service lifecycle

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

Answer 65

25 D

02-11 CSI 1.1.1 1.
CSI looks for ways to improve process effectiveness and efficiency, as well as cost effectiveness. 2. CSI identifies and implements improvements to IT services 3. CSI improvement activities support each lifecycle stage: service strategy, service design, service transition, service operation, and CSI itself.

Question 66

26 Which of the following is a type of service level agreement (SLA) described in the ITIL service design publication?

a) Priority-based SLA
b) Technology-based SLA
c) Location-based SLA
d) Customer-based SLA

Answer 66

26 D

05-31 SD 4.3.5.1
Priority-based, technology-based and location-based SLAs are not discussed in service design.

Question 67

27 Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed service level has been impacted
b) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or
improvement programme

Answer 67

27 B

03-24 SO 4.1
A and C may cause an event to be generated. D is a meeting. B closely matches the definition of an event in service operation.

Question 68

28 Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?

a) Customers
b) IT Senior management
c) Financial management for IT services
d) Suppliers

Answer 68

28 A

04-02 SS 3.2.3
Value is viewed as the level to which the service meets customer’s expectations and therefore they make the ultimate decision on whether the service will drive value.

Question 69

29 Which of the following should be treated as an incident?

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A network component fails but the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the service desk about the slow performance of an application

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

Answer 69

29 A

03-26 SO 4.2
An incident is “an unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service… or a failure of a CI that has not yet impacted an IT service…”. The inability to access an IT service as agreed is an unplanned interruption from the user’s perspective.

Question 70

30 Which one of the following statements about a change model is CORRECT?

a) A change model should NOT be used for emergency changes
b) A change model should be constructed when a significant change is required
c) A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change
d) Escalation procedures are outside the scope of a change model

Answer 70

30 C

05-51 ST 4.2.4.5
A – A change model can be used for emergency changes. B – Change models would not routinely be created when significant changes are made. C is correct. D – Escalation procedures can be included in a change model.

Question 71

31 The CSI approach uses a number of techniques. Which one of the following techniques would BEST help a business understand “where are we now?”?

a) Reviewing critical success factors
b) Understanding the business vision
c) Performing a baseline assessment
d) Checking the CSI register

Answer 71

31 C

04-09 CSI 3.1.1
Understanding “where are we now” requires a business to create a baseline.

Question 72

32 Which service operation processes are missing from the following list?

1. Incident management
2. Problem management
3. Access management
4. ?
5. ?

a) Event management and request fulfilment
b) Event management and service desk
c) Facilities management and event management
d) Change management and service level management

Answer 72

32 A

05-81 05-82 SO 4.1.1 4.3.1
All of the service operation processes are covered by the syllabus. The correct answer is A, B is a process and a function, C is a function and a process, D are processes in service transition and service design.

Question 73

33 Which stage of the service lifecycle provides a framework for evaluating service capabilities and risk profiles before new or changed services are deployed?

a) Service strategy
b) Continual service improvement
c) Service transition
d) Service operation

Answer 73

33 C

02-07 ST 1.1.1
Service transition is responsible for this as part of the deployment of new services.

Question 74

34 Which of the following activities should a service owner undertake?

1. Representing a specific service across the organization
2. Updating the configuration management system (CMS) after a change
3. Helping to identify service improvements
4. Representing a specific service in change advisory board (CAB) meetings

a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) All of the above
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer 74

34 D

07-01 SD 6.3.1 1,
3 and 4 are all responsibilities of the service owner role. Option 2 is the responsibility of the configuration librarian/administrator.

Question 75

35 Which one of the following is NOT a purpose or objective of availability management?

a) To monitor and report on the availability of components
b) To ensure that service availability matches the agreed needs of the business
c) To assess the impact of changes on the availability plan
d) To ensure that business continuity plans are aligned to business objectives

Answer 75

35 D

05-42 SD 4.4.1
4.4.2 D is the responsibility of IT service continuity management.

Question 76

36 Which one of the following is a CORRECT description of the “four Ps” of service design?

a) A four-step process for the design of effective service management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) Four major areas that need to be considered during service design

Answer 76

36 D

04-03 SD 3.1.5
1 – The “four Ps” are not a process. 2 – Has some merit but only addresses two of the four areas. 3 – The four Ps are not a checklist or set of questions.

Question 77

37 Which one of the following BEST describes a major problem review?

a) Facilitated by the problem manager, a major problem review is designed to apportion blame after a resolution to the problem has been found
b) A major problem review is run as part of the change advisory board (CAB) by the change manager. It is conducted after the request for change (RFC) to
resolve the problem has been accepted
c) A major problem review is facilitated by the service desk manager so that lessons can be learned after a major problem has been resolved
d) Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness
for support staff

Answer 77

37 D

05-72 SO 4.4.5.10
D is the book answer. A is the right role but it is not about apportioning blame. B is incorrect. C is plausible but is facilitated by the wrong role.

Question 78

38 Which one of the following statements about supplier management is INCORRECT?

a) Supplier management negotiates operational level agreements (OLAs)
b) Supplier management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier management maintains information in a supplier and contractor management information system
d) Supplier management negotiates external agreements to support the delivery of services

Answer 78

38

A 05-44 SD 4.8.1
All are objectives of the supplier management process, except A which is undertaken by service level management.

Question 79

39 Which one of the following is a primary purpose of business relationship management?

a) Carrying out operational activities to support services
b) Ensuring all targets within service level agreements are met
c) Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are delivered
d) Understanding the customer’s needs and ensuring they are met

Answer 79

39 D

05-23 SS 4.5.1
“To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet these needs…”

Question 80

40 Which one of the following statements is an objective of the design coordination process?

a) To ensure that service availability targets are met
b) To define, document, agree, monitor, measure and review service levels
c) To provide and maintain a single source of consistent information on all operational services
d) To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage

Answer 80

40 D

05-47 SD 4.1.1
D is the correct answer. C is the purpose of service catalogue management. B is an objective of service level management. A is an objective of availability management.